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Hematology And Oncology > Other > Flashcards

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1
Q

Protein C function

A

Cleaves and inactivates Va and VIIIa

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2
Q

Vwf is founded

A
  1. a granules of platelets

2. Weidel palade bodies of endothelial cells

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3
Q

Inside endothelial cells

A
  1. Vwf and VIII
  2. Thrombloplastin
  3. Thrombomodulin
  4. tPA
  5. PGI2
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4
Q

Schistocytes are also called

A

Helmet cells

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5
Q

Teardrop cells also are also called

A

Dacrocytes

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6
Q

Heinz bodies

A

Hb precipitation

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7
Q

β-thalassemia treatment side effect

A

Secondary hemochromatosis (from blood transfusions)

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8
Q

Anemias-parvovirus

A
  1. β-Thalassemia
  2. Aplastic
  3. Sickle cell
  4. Hereditary spherocytosis
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9
Q

When does the major β-thalassemia become symptomatic

A

6 months (because of HbF)

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10
Q

Sideroblastic anemia treatment

A

Pyridoxine (B6)

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11
Q

Follate deficiency drugs

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Trimethoprim
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12
Q

Intravascular hemolysis findings

A
  1. Decreased haptoglobin 2. Increased LDH 3. Schistocytes. 4. Increased reticulocytes in peripheral blood smear 5. Hemoglobinuria
  2. Hemosiderinuria 7. Urobilinogen in urine
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13
Q

Extravascular hemolysis findings

A
  1. Spherocytes 2. Increased LDH 3. No hemoglobinuria/hemosiderinuria 4. Increased unconjucated bilirubin
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14
Q

Aplastic anemia-drugs

A
  1. Benzene
  2. Chloramphenicol
  3. Alkylating agents
  4. Antimetabolites
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15
Q

Increased MCHC anemia

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

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16
Q

Paroxismal noctural hemoglobinuria - impaired synthesis of

A

GPI-anchor for decay accelerating factor

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17
Q

Hemophillia treatment

A

A–> desmopressin and factor 8 concentrate
B–> factor 9 concentrate
C–> factor 11 concentrate

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18
Q

TTP symptoms

A
  1. Neurological
  2. Renal
  3. Fever
  4. Thrombocytopenia
  5. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
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19
Q

Packed RBCs dosage effect

A

Increased Hb and O2 carrying capacity

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20
Q

Platelets dosage effect

A

Increases 5000

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21
Q

Neutropenia causes

A
  1. Postinfection/sepsis
  2. SLE
  3. Drugs (Chemotherapy)
  4. Radiation
  5. Aplastic anemia
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22
Q

Eosinopenia

A

Corticosteroids

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23
Q

Lymphopenia

A
  1. Scid
  2. SLE
  3. Corticosteroids
  4. POSTOPERATIVE
  5. DiGeorge
  6. Radiation
  7. Sepsis
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24
Q

LAP

A

Leukocyte alkaline phosphate

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25
Q

Non hodgkin age

A

20-40

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26
Q

Non-hodgkin may associated with

A

HIV

autoimmune disease

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27
Q

Multiple myeloma x ray

A

Punched out lytic bone lesions

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28
Q

Neonates – vit k

A

Neonates –> lack enteric bacteria –> low vit K

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29
Q

Macrohemorrage in hemophilia

A
  1. Hemarthroses
  2. Easy bruising
  3. Easy bleeding after trauma or surgery (dental procedures)
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30
Q

Hereditary thrombosis syndromes leading to hypercoagulability

A
  1. V Leiden
  2. Prothrombin mutation
  3. Pr C or S deficiency
  4. Antithrombin deficiency
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31
Q

B12 absorption

A

salivary amylase liberates B12 –> bound to R-binder (also from salivary gland) –> pancreatic protease detach B12 from R –> B12 binds intrinsic factor –> absorbed in ileum as a complex

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32
Q

Echinocytes - seen in

A
  1. end-stage renal disease
  2. liver disease
  3. pyruvate kinase
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33
Q

Fanconi anemia - mode of inheritance

A

AR

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34
Q

Hemophilia C (vs A,B)

A

less hemarthrosis
less spontaneous bleeding
more common in Askentzi

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35
Q

lymphoma stage (Ann Arbor)

A

Stage I: single region, usually one lymph node and the surrounding area
Stage II two separate regions, an affected lymph node or organ and a second affected area, and that both affected areas are confined to one side of the diaphragm—that is, both are above the diaphragm, or both are below the diaphragm. (IIE if extralymphatic tissue or spleen)
Stage III both sides of the diaphragm, including one organ or area near the lymph nodes or the spleen. (IIIE if extralymphatic tissue or spleen)
Stage IV indicates diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, including any involvement of the liver, bone marrow, or nodular involvement of the lungs.

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36
Q

MC hematologic problem in Down sndrome

A

acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

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37
Q

low albumini in infants –>

A

jaundice

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38
Q

Schilling test - stages

A
  1. IM unlabeled B12 oral labeled B12 (IM replenish the store so the oral labeled B12 is in urine)
  2. IF + oral labeled B12
  3. oral labeled B12 + oral antibiotic
  4. oral labeled B12 + pancreatic enzymes
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39
Q

Rb - active vs inactive form and mechanism

A

GF –> activation of Cyclin D + E + cdk 4 + 6 –> hyperphosphorylation –> inactive
hypophosphorylation –> active –> binds E2F –> inhibition of G1 to S

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40
Q

p27 function

A

cell cycle inhibitor (stop it in G1) by inhibiting CDKs

downregulation in cancer

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41
Q

SLE mediated pancytopenia

A

type 2 hypersensitivity –> antibodies agienst cells

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42
Q

EGFR pathway

A

EGFR –> RAS –> nucleus

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43
Q

panitumumab?

A

like cetuximab

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44
Q

RBC - stomatocytes?

A

in hereditary stomatocytosis

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45
Q

patrier micro-abscess

A

by T cells infiltration in the skin (Mycoses fungoides)

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46
Q

precursor B-ALL vs T-ALL

A

both TdT
B –> CD10, 19
T –> 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 1a

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47
Q

special characteristic of atypical lymphocytes (eg. EBV)

A

more cytoplasm

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48
Q

biposy diagnostic for MM

A

more than 30% plasma cells

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49
Q

MM mediated osteopenia

A

IL-1 + IL6 secretion

50
Q

anorexia in cachecia

A

hypothalamus leads to appetite suppression

51
Q

Platelet function analyzer (PFA-100) test

A

monitors the time needed for a patient’s blood to form a platelet based hemostatic plug in an in vitro environment

52
Q

HER2 is a family member of

A

EGFR

53
Q

a special characteristic that differentiates dysplasia from Ca

A

dysplasia is reversible (once invade the basement membrane –> irreeversible ca

54
Q

Osteomyelitis - mcc (and 2MCC) in SCA

A
  1. salmonela

2. S. aureus / E. coli

55
Q

Burkit lymphoma - cells

A

monomorphic, medium size with round nuclei, multiple nucleoli, vacuolated basophilic cytoplasm

56
Q

t15,17 in AML menas

A

PML/PAR
PML: promyelocytic leukemia gene
RAR: retinoic acid receptor

57
Q

integrin binds to ECM - specifically

A
  1. fibronectin
  2. collagen
  3. laminin
    (and also binds intracellulary to actin + keratin)
58
Q

caspases - structure + what they cleave

A

containe cysteine

they are able to cleave aspartic acid residues

59
Q

bleeding problems in renal disease

A

Uremic platelet dysfunction: uremia –> qualitive platelet disorder –> increased BT with normal platelet count, PT, PTT

60
Q

SC trait - malaria

A

relative protection –> but when visiting endemic areas should receive prophylaxis

61
Q

Hb electrophoresis pattern and persentages in normal , SC trait, SC

A

Normal: 99% HbA, 0% S, less than 1% Hb F
SC: 0% HbA, 5-15 F, 85-95 S
SC trait: 50-60 % HbA, less than 2 F, 35-45 S

62
Q

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

A

an astrocytoma found in in children and yound adults

  • -> rarely progress to GBM
    histology: reticulin deposits + chronic inflammatory infiltrates
63
Q

cyclophosphamide metabolite causes cystitis - which metabolite

A

acrolein

64
Q

podophylin - mechanism of action + clinical use

A

inhibits topoisomerase 2

treat genital wart

65
Q

folate administration in in B12 deficient

A
  1. partially correct anemia

2. worse the neurological symptoms

66
Q

braf related cancer

A
  1. melanoma

hairy cell leukemia

67
Q

aplastic anemia - splenomegaly

A

no because no progenitors

68
Q

JAK2 mutation in chronic myeloproliferative disoreders

A

V617F (replaces valine with phenylalanine) –> more sensitive to GF such as erythropoietin + thrmobopoietin)

69
Q

polyceythemia vera can cause peptic ulcer - mechanism

A

increased histamine secretion (also pruritus)

70
Q

SIS gene - ca

A

proto-oncogene –> astrocytoma, osteosarcoma

71
Q

TGFA gene - ca

A

proto-oncogene –> astrocytoma, HCC

72
Q

HER1

A

proto-oncogene –> scc of lung

73
Q

colon cancer stage

A

stage A: mucosa (90% survival in 5 years)
stage B: muscular (70-80)
stage C: lymph node (poor)
stage D: distant metstasis (poor)

74
Q

placental abruption mediated DIC - mechanism

A

tissue factor release in high concentration from the placental trophoblast (placental abruption)

75
Q

placental abruption vs amniotic fluid mediated DIC according to mothers sympoms

A

amniotic –> PE –> hypotension + cardiogenic shock

76
Q

Breast cancer prognosis in BCL-2 overexpression

A

better

77
Q

mutated fene in paroxysaml nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

phosphatidyloinositol glycan class A (PIGA gene) –> help on GPI synthesis

78
Q

chromosomal rearrangement in non-small cell lung ca

A

EML4-ALK –> constitutive active tyrosine kinase

Echinoderm microtubule-associated protein like 4, anaplastic lymphoma kinase

79
Q

carbon tetracloride - mechanism of liver damage

A

CCL4 –> oxidized by P450 –> CCL3 –> lipid peroxidation

80
Q

biopsy - diagnosis of AML

A

more than 20% of myeloblasts in bone marrow

81
Q

2ry ITP is sometime associated with

A

HIV or HCV

82
Q

pancreatic role in B12 absorption

A

cleave R factor from B12 –> allowing B12 to bind to IF

83
Q

ca cell migration steps

A
  1. detachment (decreasing of E-cadherin)
  2. Adhesion to basement membtain (increasing of laminin)
  3. invasion (MMPs
84
Q

HBV mediated HCC

A

integration –> HBx protein transcription –> suppression of p53

85
Q

Patietns receiving regular transfusion should undegro routine

A

chelation therapy

86
Q

tumor that causes pure red aplasia

A

thymoma, lymphicytic leukemia

87
Q

paraneoplastic of uterine fibrinoids

A

erithropoietin

88
Q

Pro-carcinoges are converted to carcinogens by

A

cyt P45O oxidase system (microsomal monoxygenase)

89
Q

leukemoid reaction - number of leukocytes / and histology

A

more than 50 000

peripheral smear can show Dohle bodies (basophilic) in neutrophils

90
Q

leukemia with 13q-

A

CLL

91
Q

MTX - enter ther the cell

A

undergoes polyglutamation –> prevents the movement out of the cell

92
Q

etoposide, tenoposide + … (similar)

A

podophyllin (topically to treat genital warts)

93
Q

MCC of thombocytopenia in hospitilized patients

A

HIT

94
Q

topoisomerase type 1 vs 2 according to action

A
  1. –> single strand –> relieve negative supercoilling

2. –> transient break in both strands –> relieve both positive + negative supercoiling

95
Q

Fludarabine?

A

deamination resistant purine nucleotide analog –> inhibition of DNA pol, primase, ligase, ribon reductase
–> CLL

96
Q

mensa - mechanism of action

A

sulfhydryl compound that binds acrolein in the urine (cyclophosphamide is converted to mensa by acrolein)

97
Q

folic acid - MTX v Fluorouracil

A

reverse toxicity of MTX

increases action of Fluororuacil

98
Q

MDR1?

A

P-glycoprotein –> transmembrane ATP depended efflux pump protein –> reduces influx and increases efflux of drug –> prevents action of chemotherapeuitic agents
ALSO IN BBB –> prevent penetration of foreign compounds into CNS

99
Q

MM myeloma cells are susceptible to

A

protease inhibition due to large amount of proteins that they manufacture (SUCH AS BORTEZOMIB, a boronic acid-containing dipeptide) –> APOPTOSIS

100
Q

DVT in pregnancy - treatment

A

LMWH

101
Q

oral 5-FU

A

GI ulcerations

102
Q

OKT3?

A

monoclonal antibody against CD3 –> immunosuppression

103
Q

first cells infected by EBV

A

pharyngeal B lymphocytes

104
Q

hereditary spherocytosis - mode inheritance

A

AD

105
Q

embryonic hemoglobins

A
  1. Gower 1 ζ2ε2
  2. Portland ζ2γ2
  3. Gower 2 α2ε2
    (Yolk sac)
106
Q

CLL genetics

A

BCL2 overexpression

107
Q

Porphyrea cutanea tarda - hereditary or acquired

A

both, but acquired is MC

due to iron and susceptibility factors (alcohol, smoking, HCV, HIV, halogenated hydrocarbons)

108
Q

SCC - organs with more sickling

A

organs with high metabolic demands: brain, muscles, placenta

109
Q

what increases the action of ALA synthase

A

CYP450 inducers

110
Q

Isonizid leading to B6 deficiency

A

pyridoxine phosphokinase inhibition

111
Q

high oxygen affinity Hb leads to (eg. Hb Chesapeake + Kempsey)

A

reduced ability to release oxygen within the peripheral tissues –> renal hypoxia –> increased EPO –> erythrocytosis

112
Q

HbS –> why is that bad (chemistry)

A

contains valine instead of Glutamic –> hydrophobic interaction among Hb molecules –> polymerization + erythrocyte sickling (and weaker 2,3-DPG bidning)
(NO alternation in β structure)

113
Q

pyruvate kinase deficiency - causes of splenomegaly

A

low ATP –> low transport of ions in RBCs–> deformed erythrocytes –> increased work of splenic parenchyma tp remove them –> Red pulp hyperplasia

114
Q

B12 deficiency is due to complete absence for …. (how long)

A

4-5 years

115
Q

hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis - definition

A

abnormal activation + proliferation of lymphocytes leading to hemophagocytosis and secretion of preinflammatory cytokines –> immune system overactivation –> attack native cells in bone marrow
it an also causes inflammation of the brain

116
Q

causes and diagnosis of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis

A

causes: Familiar (AR), 2ry to EBV
diagnosis: bone marrow –> macrophages engulfing RBCs

117
Q

Trousseau syndrome is caused by (and mechanism)

A

Pancreatic tumor –> tissue factor

118
Q

stomach tumor can cause jaundice?

A

tumor in lesser stomach –> mass effect –> compress hepatoduodenal ligament –> jaundice

119
Q

DLBCL markers

A

similar with CLL (including CD5+)

120
Q

IBD - race

A

Askenazi Jewish

Hematology And Oncology (21 decks)

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