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NPTE > OS T#3: S1 > Flashcards

OS T#3: S1 Flashcards

1
Q

When is Symptom limited exercise testing normally performed?

A

Before stating Phase II outpatient cardiac care

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2
Q

how do you find out your target HR?

A

Age predicted method: (220-age=HR max)
(less error: 208 - 0.7 x age= HR max)

Karvonen’s Formula:
((HRmax - HRresting) x intensity ) + resting = target zone

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3
Q

What are the conditions for a submax Exercise tolerance Test (ETT)?

A

The test is symptom limited and terminated at 85% of of age predicted HR

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4
Q

When is submax used?

A

to evaluate patients for early exercise after MI, coronary bypass, or coronary angioplasty

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5
Q

When can maximal ETT take place?

A

Only when there is advanced cardiac life support o hand to handle any abnormal reactions

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6
Q

What should happen do diastolic BP during exercise?

A

It should remain about the same

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7
Q

What are the absolute indications for terminating an ETT? (7)

A
  • Drop in SBP by more than 10 mmHg from baseline despite increase in workload (with evidence of ischemia)
  • Moderately severe angina (3 out of 4 pain)
  • Signs of poor perfusion
  • Sustained V-tach
  • 1.0 mm ST elevation in leads without diagnostic Q waves
  • Increasing nervous system symptoms
  • severe claudication
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8
Q

What are relative indications for terminating an ETT? (7)

A
  • Drop in SBP by more than 10 mmHg from baseline despite increase in workload (without evidence of ischemia)
  • More than 2 mm ST segment depression
  • Arrhythmia’s other than sustained V-Tach
  • Fatigue SOB wheezing, leg cramps, mild claudication
  • Increasing chest pain
  • SBP at or above 250 mmHg, DBP at or above 115 mm Hg
  • Development of bundle branch block or intra-ventricular delay
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9
Q

Describe a 3rd degreed heart block

A

All impulses are blocked at the AV node, atria and ventricles beat at different rates (atria faster than ventricle)

Considered a medical emergency and needs pace maker

Pt may faint if ventricular output is too low

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10
Q

What causes a 3rd Degree heart block?

A

Digitalis
Degenerative changes in the conduction system
Heart Surgery
Acute MI

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11
Q

What does a depressed ST segment indicate?

A

Sub-endocardial ischemia
Digitalis toxicity
Hypokalemia

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12
Q

What is phase I of Cardiac Rehab?

A

Inpatient Cardiac Rehab (acute)

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13
Q

What is the exercise limitations for Phase I of Cardiac Rehab?

A

Starting from 2-3 METS (walking 2mph) progress to 5 METS(walking 3.5-4 mph)

Post MI: limited to 70% of HR max and/or 5METs until 6 weeks post MI

Post surgery normally progresses quicker
Lifting actives are restricted for 6 weeks

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14
Q

What is Phase II of Cardiac Rehab?

A

Outpatient Cardiac Rehab (subacute)

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15
Q

What is the exercise limitations for Phase II of Cardiac Rehab?

A

Frequency: 2-3x/week
Duration: 30-60 mins with 5-10min warm up/cool-down
Single/Multiple mode(s) of training
Suggested Exit point 9 METs (running 5.5 mph, biking 13 mph)

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16
Q

What is Phase III of Cardiac Rehab?

A

Community Exercise Programs

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17
Q

What is an Extremely low APGAR scale?

A

0-3 at 1 and 5 minutes (exhibit need for resuscitation) if scores remain this low neurological complications can be expected.

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18
Q

What are PT’s/ PTA’s liable for?

A

PTA’s/PT’s are liable for their own negligence, but supervisors may assume liability of the workers if they provide faulty supervision or in appropriate delegation of responsibilities. PT’s are liable for the use of defective equipment if they contributed to the malfunction or continued to have it used in treatment with out having it checked.

19
Q

What are the exercise:rest ratios used for a person post MI or with CAD

A 
Acute care (Phase I) 1:1
Subacute outpatient (Phase II) 2:1
Goal for progression 5:1
20
Q

What is Spondylolysis?

A

Fracture of the par interarticularis without movement

21
Q

What is Spondylolisthesis?

A

Fracture of the par interarticularis with anterior displacement of the vertebral body movement.

22
Q

What should be avoided with Spondylolysis and Spondylolisthesis in its early stages.

A

Lumbar extension beyond neutral and rotation

23
Q

What is semi-fowler position?

A

The Semi-Fowler’s position is the position of a patient who is lying in bed in a supine position with the head of the bed at approximately 30 to 45 degrees. Upright at 90 degrees is full or high Fowler’s position.

24
Q

Signs and symptoms for Addisons disease (hypocorticolism).

A 
Asthenia
Weight loss
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Syncope
25
Q

When instructing parents on the exercise program for an infant why i it important to assess the anxiety and attention of the clients?

A

If the clients are overwhelmed with the information given or the diagnosis of their child they will be unable to adequately follow the HEP

26
Q

What is a typical early manifestation of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Increased appetite with weight loss

27
Q

What kind of estim is used before a painful procedure to modulate pain?

A

Brief TENS

28
Q

What is the first part of the body that a pt should align when a pt is in sitting?

A

the pelvis

29
Q

What motions go into D1 flexion?

A

Shoulder: Flex, Add, ER
Forearm: Sup
Wrist: Rad.
Finger: Flex

30
Q

What motions go into D1 Ext?

A

Shoulder: Ext, Abd, IR
Forearm: Prone
Wrist: Ulnar dev
Finger: Ext

31
Q

What motions go into D2 flexion?

A

Shoulder: Flex, Abd, ER
Forearm: Sup
Wrist: Rad.
Finger: Ext

32
Q

What motions go into D2 ext?

A

Shoulder: Ext, Add, IR
Forearm: Prone
Wrist: Ulnar dev
Finger: Flex

33
Q

How do you bias the tibial nerve for Neural tension testing?

A

Straight leg raise with dorsiflexion and eversion

34
Q

How do you bias the sural nerve for Neural tension testing?

A

Straight leg raise with dorsiflexion and inversion

35
Q

How do you bias the fibular nerve for Neural tension testing?

A

Straight leg raise with plantarflexion and inversion

36
Q

What is one clinical finding of a patient with COPD Gold stage III

A

Muscle wasting

37
Q

What are the dimensions for a benign mole (vevus)?

A

Appearance: Symmetrical
Boarders: Clearly defined
Color: Uniform (black usually)
Diameter:less than 6 mm

38
Q

What are signs of Myasthenia Crisis?

A

Respiratory Difficulty
Swallowing Issues
Labored Talking/ Chewing

39
Q

What does a valsalva maneuver produce?

A

Decreased HR
Increased Venus pressure /Increased BP
Increased preload on the heart after relaxation

40
Q

3 causes for pitting edema:

A

CHF
Liver issues
Kidney issues

41
Q

What a score indicating a high risk for falling on the Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment (POMA)?

A

Less than 19

42
Q

McBurney’s point is associated with which disease?

A

Appendicitis

43
Q

Murphy’s Sign is associated with which disease?

A

Acute Cholecystitis

44
Q

Which muscles are constantly active in quiet stance?

A

Gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, because the line of gravity falls anterior to the ankles.Calf muscles work against that force constantly.

NPTE (24 decks)

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