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NPTE > OS T#1: S1 > Flashcards

OS T#1: S1 Flashcards

1
Q

At what angle of the knee is the MCL most responsible for knee stability?

A

20-30 degrees

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2
Q

At what angle do you hold the patients knee for Lachmans test?

A

between full ext and 30 degrees and slight lateral rotation on the tibia

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3
Q

What is a mandated reporter?

A

mandated reporters are people who have regular contact with vulnerable people and are therefore legally required to ensure a report is made when abuse is observed or suspected.

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4
Q

Define: Anesthesia

A

general or local insensibility, as to pain and other sensation, induced by certain interventions or drugs to permit the performance of surgery or other painful procedures.

insensitivity to touch

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5
Q

Define: Abarognosia

A

Loss of the ability to sense weight

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6
Q

Define: Analgesia

A

the inability to feel pain (while conscious)

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7
Q

Define:Allodynia

A

Pain that results from a non-injurious stimulus to the skin.

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8
Q

Define:Causalgia

A

constant relentless burning hyperesthesia and hyperalgesia that develops after a peripheral nerve injury

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9
Q

Define:Dysesthesia

A

Disorientation of any of the senses (especially touch)

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10
Q

Define:Hyperesthesia

A

heightened sense of touch

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11
Q

Define:Hyperpathia

A

heightened sense of pain

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12
Q

Define:Neuralgia

A

severe and multiple shock like pains that radiate from a specific nerve distribution

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13
Q

Define:Pallanesthesia

A

loss of vibratory sensation

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14
Q

Define:Paresthesia

A

abnormal sensations such as tingling, pins and needles, burning or numbness

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15
Q

Define:Asthenia

A

Generalized weakness

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16
Q

Define:Athetosis

A

A condition with involuntary movements combined with postural instability

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17
Q

Define:Fasciculation

A

A muscular twitch that is caused by random discharge of LMN, it suggests LMNL although it can be benign

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18
Q

Define:Fibrilation

A

a muscular twitch involving muscle fibrils that is not visible suggests UMNL

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19
Q

What are the common symptoms of Lymphedema?

A

Swelling, decreased ROM, achy heaviness, a feeling of fullness, brawny, fibrous non pitting edema.

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20
Q

What may be observed with cancer patients during ther ex

A

increased fatigue: elevated HR and BP, dyspnea, pallor, sweating

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21
Q

What hematological issues are possible with cancer treatment?

A

Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets), anemia

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22
Q

What is an open skill?

A

An open skill is a skill where the environment is constantly changing and so movements have to be continually adapted.

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23
Q

What is a closed skill?

A

These skills take place in a stable, predictable environment and the performer knows exactly what to do and when.

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24
Q

What is an internally paced skill?

A

This is a skill in which the performer controls the rate at which the skill is executed.

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25
Q

What is an externally paced skill?

A

This is a skill in which the environment, which may include opponents, controls the rate of performing the skill.

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26
Q

What is a discrete skill?

A

Brief, well-defined actions that have a clear beginning and end.

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27
Q

What is a serial skill?

A

A group of discrete skills strung together to make a new and complex movement.

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28
Q

What is a continuous skill?

A

A skill that has no obvious beginning or end. The end of one cycle of movements is the beginning of the next, and the skill is repeated like a cycle.

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29
Q

What foot position correlates with a rigid lever arm?

A

Supination

30
Q

What position is the foot in during initial contact (heel strike)?

A

Supination

31
Q

What position is the foot in during foot flat (loading response)?

A

Pronation

32
Q

What position is the foot in during midstance?

A

Neutral

33
Q

What position is the foot in during heel off?

A

Supination

34
Q

What position is the foot in during toe off?

A

Supination

35
Q

In what position should joint play be performed?

A

Open packed position

36
Q

What three motions make up supination?

A

Inversion, Adduction, and Plantarflexion

37
Q

What three motions make up pronation?

A

Eversion,Abduction and Dorsiflexion

38
Q

Define Neurapraxia

A

Injury to a nerve that creases transient loss of function. (ex: conduction is blocked due to ischemia) nerve dysfunction is rapidly reversed (weeks)

39
Q

Define Axonotmesis

A

Injury to to the nerve interrupting the axon and casing a loss of function and Wallerian degeneration. There is no disruption to the endoneurium and regeneration is possible.

40
Q

Define Neurotmesis

A

A cutting of the nerve with severance of all structures and complete loss of function. Regeneration generally fails without surgical intervention.

41
Q

Signs and symptoms of LMNL

A 
Weakness/paresis
Hypotonia,absent reflexes, or flaccidity
neurogenic atrophy
Sensory loss
Autonomic disfunction
Fasciculations
42
Q

How to diagnose LMNL’s

A

Nerve conduction velocity tests (slower or complete block)

EMG for nerve fuction check for fibrilations

43
Q

What is evidence of reinnervation as seen on an EMG?

A

Low amplitude, short duration, polyphasic motor unit potentials

44
Q

How do you propel a hemi-wheelchair?

A

With one arm and the ipsilateral leg.

45
Q

What is a contraindication to a one arm drive wheelchair?

A

Perceptual deficits

46
Q

What influences a persons ability to perform normal vital capacity, Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV) and total lung capacity?

A

muscular strength

47
Q

What is Functional residual capacity limited by

A

resting end expiratory pressure

48
Q

what is Resting end expiratory pressure (REEP)

A

REEP is Resting end expiratory pressure, The equilibrium point where forces of inspiration and expiration are balanced.
Occurs at the end of tidal respiration.

49
Q

What is considered a hypomobile patella?

A

When performing lateral glide and patella moves less than 1 quadrant

50
Q

What is considered a hypermobile patella?

A

When the patella moves more than 2 quadrants with a lateral glide

51
Q

At what angle is the ACL least stressed?

A

30-60 degrees

52
Q

Medial rotation of the knee causes which structures to become taut and which to become slack?

A

ACL and PCL taut and collaterals slack

53
Q

Lateral rotation of the knee causes which structures to become taut and which to become slack?

A

ACL and PCL slack and collaterals taut

54
Q

At what angle is the majority of the PCL taut?

A

30 degrees of flexion

55
Q

Which 3 nerves come from the anterior portion of the brachial plexus?

A

Musculocutaneus, median and ulnar

56
Q

Which two nerves come from the posterior division of the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary nerve and the Radial nerve

57
Q

What is class III heart diseased marked by?

A

Limitation of physical activity, less than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, angina pains

58
Q

What are the adverse reactions of Digoxin

A

fatigue, headache, muscle weakness, bradycardia,ventricular fibrillation, and super ventricular arrhythmias

59
Q

Normal reactions to Digoxin are:

A

Confusion/ memory loss, tachycardia, and involuntary movements/ shaking.

60
Q

What polarity is lidocaine and Xylocaine?

A

Positive

61
Q

What polarity is Salicylate?

A

Negative

62
Q

What polarity is Acetate

A

Negative

63
Q

What polarity is Zinc

A

Positive

64
Q

What polarity is Copper (for fungal infections)

A

positive

65
Q

What polarity is Copper and magnesium? (muscle spasms)

A

positive

66
Q

What polarity is Dexamethasone?

A

Negative

67
Q

What are the side effects of long term corticosteroid use?

A

osteoporosis, weakened supportive joint structures, muscle wasting.

68
Q

After how many weeks does muscle hypertrophy begin?

A

6-8 weeks

69
Q

Characteristics of Venous ulcer

A

irregular boarders, dark pigmentation, shallow, near medial malleolus is most common.

70
Q

Characteristics of Arterial ulcer

A

irregular edges, painful (especially when legs are elevated)

71
Q

Characteristics of Diabetic ulcer

A

Associated with arterial disease. not painful

NPTE (24 decks)

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