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NPTE > OS T#1: S3 > Flashcards

OS T#1: S3 Flashcards

1
Q

How do you implement Engineering Control Techniques?

A

By designing or modifying the workstation, work methods/tools to eliminate/ reduce exposure to excessive

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2
Q

When the subtalar joint goes into pronation what happens to the rest of the LE?

A

The LE goes into medial rotation.

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3
Q

When the subtalar joint goes into supination what happens to the rest of the LE?

A

The LE goes into lateral rotation.

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4
Q

What effect does flexion have on the spine?

A

Increases the vertebral foramen spaces and the intervertebral foramen space as well as increases the pressure on the intervertebral discs

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5
Q

What effect does extension have on the spine?

A

Decreases the vertebral foramen spaces as well as the intervertebral foramen space, decreases pressure on the intervertebral discs

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6
Q

Which spinal position should be avoided with spinal stenosis?

A

Extention

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7
Q

What is a Meta-analysis?

A

This is a pooling of data of RCTs to yield a larger sample

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8
Q

What is Liposclerosis?

A

Thickening of the tissue

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9
Q

What are the signs of a venous stasis ulcer?

A

Location:superior to medial malleolus, hemosiderosis, liposclerosis

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10
Q

When looking at a venous stasis ulcer what is the first thing you should do?

A

Find the ABI

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11
Q

If the ABI shows decreased arterial perfusion what is contraindicated?

A

Compression therapies (ABI between 0.5-0.8)

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12
Q

What is the difference between the lurch/ gluteus medius gait and the trendelenburgh gait?

A

During lurch gait patient shifts weight over the involved hit and pain may be associated, in trendelenburgh gait pt allows contralateral hip to drop and does not shift trunk.

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13
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Vague hip pain, decreased hip flex, abd, and internal rot, with a lurch gait

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14
Q

What is the etiology of Bell’s palsy?

A

LMNL involving the Facial nerve (CN VII), acute inflammatory process results in inflammation cutting off this nerve

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15
Q

What are the sings and symptoms of Bell’s Palsy?

A

Weakness of the muscles of facial expression as well as loss of control of salivation and lacrimation. Inability to close one eye. Pt has normal sensation.

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16
Q

What is Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita?

A

A congenital deformity of the skeleton and soft tissues characterized by limitations in a joint motion and a sausage like appearance of the limbs

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17
Q

What is contraindicated with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

PROM and traction secondary to increased risk of fractures

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18
Q

Therapy goals for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A 
Joint protection
Maintain/improve joint mechanics
Aerobic activities (ex: swimming)
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19
Q

What are the TUG norms?

A

Less than or equal to 10 seconds is normal for adults, 11-20 seconds is normal for frail elderly, scores above 30 are indicative of impaired functional mobility and high risk of falls.

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20
Q

How do venous insufficiency ulcers present?

A

minimal pain, pain decreased with leg elevation, hemosiderin staining, liposclereosis, thin shiny and cyanotic skin.

21
Q

Define Cheyne-Strokes respiration?

A

Progressively deeper and faster breaths which decrease into a period of apnea then cycle restarts.

22
Q

When is the anterior aspect of the glenohumeral joint capsule stressed the most?

A

during the cocking phase (max ER Ext and abd

23
Q

What is the recommended time for suctioning to be performed?

A

10-15 seconds

24
Q

When to use transparent films?

A

Stage 1 or 2 ulcers
Autolytic debridement
Skin donor sites
As a cover for hydrophilic powders and hydrogels

25
Q

Advantages of Transparent Films?

A 
You can see the wound
Doesn't let fluids / bacteria in
Comfortable
Allows for autolytic debridement
Minimizes friction
26
Q

When to use Hydrocolloids?

A

Protection of partial thickness wounds
Autolytic debridement of necrosis or slough
Wounds with mild exudate

27
Q

What are Hydrocolloids?

A

Adhesive wafers that form a gel like mass over the wound

28
Q

Advantages of Hydrocolloids?

A

Non adhesive to healing tissues
Supports autolytic debridement
Maintains a moist environment
Min- mod absorption

29
Q

What are Hydrogels?

A

Water or glycerine based gels

30
Q

When to use Hydrogels

A

Partial or full thickness wounds
Wounds with necrosis/ slough
Burns and wounds damaged by radiation

31
Q

Advantages of Hydrogels?

A 
Soothing and cooling
Rehydrate wound beds 
Promote autolytic debridement 
Conform to wound bed
Amorphous form can be used with an infection present
32
Q

What are Foam Dressings?

A

Soft absorbent non woven dressing made from seaweed. Reacts with wound exudate to form a hydrophilic gel (comes in ropes and pads)

33
Q

What are advantages of Foam dressings?

A

Insulate wounds
Provide padding
Manage minimal to heavy exudate
Most are non-adherent

34
Q

When to use Foam Dressings?

A

Partial and full thickness wounds
Secondary dressing for wounds with packing to add absorption
To provide protection/ insulation

35
Q

What are Alginates?

A

Soft absorbent non woven dressings derived from seaweed that have fluffy cotton like apperance

36
Q

When to use Alginates?

A

Wounds with moderate to large amounts of exudate
Wounds with exudate and necrosis
Wounds that require packing
Infected and non infected exudate wounds

37
Q

Advantages of using Alginates?

A

Absorb up to 20 times their weight in drainage
Fill dead space
Support debridement in the presence of exudate

38
Q

When to use wet to dry Gauze dressing?

A

Mechanical debridement of wound

39
Q

When to use continuously dry Gauze dressing?

A

Heavily exudating wounds

40
Q

When to use continuously moist Gauze dressing?

A

Protection of clean wounds
Autolytic debridement
Delivery of topical needs

41
Q

With Internal rotation and Extension of the knee which meniscus has tensile and which has compressive forces acting on it?

A

Medial: Tensile
Lateral: Compressive

42
Q

With Internal rotation and Flexion of the knee which meniscus has tensile and which has compressive forces acting on it?

A

Medial: Compressive
Lateral: Tensile

43
Q

What are the primary functions of the meniscus?

A

to relive compressive force of the knee and stabilize the joint during motion.

44
Q

How does UE ergometery compare to LE ergometery?

A

UE uses lower VO2max and stroke volume but higher HR and BP

45
Q

Post MI at what RPE level should u exercise?

A

less than 13

46
Q

What is the first intervention to be performed with a Pt who has shoulder impingement syndrome?

A

Instruct the patient in proper postural alignment

47
Q

When using biofeed back when do you put the electrodes close together?

A

When targeting a specific muscle

48
Q

When using biofeedback when do you place the electrodes far apart?

A

When trying to achieve a general motion.

49
Q

how do you test motor function of CN IX and CN X

A

Elicit agag reflex glossophyrngeal vagus

NPTE (24 decks)

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