Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

3 types of spina bifida?

A
  1. mylomeningocele - the most severe neurological deficits seen, 2. meningocele - the sack will protrude from the spinal colum 3. spina bifida occulta - mildest type
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What blood results will you find in osteomalacia?

A

low calcium, low phosphate, raised ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which spinal tract does syryngomyelia effect?

A

Spinothalamic - so pain and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is perthes disease?

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral head - impaired blood supply causes bone infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe brown sequard lesion?

A

ipsilateral paralysis and contralateral change in pain/ temp sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is parsonage Turner syndrome?

A

peripheral neuropathy which will complicate a viral illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management of a fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus

A

hemiarthroplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 6 causes of pseudo gout?

A

hyperparathyroidism, hypothyroid, haemachromatosis, acromegaly, reduced mag/ reduced phos, Wilsons disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is Galeazzi fracture?

A

fall onto outstretched hand with rotational force ,displaced radial / ulnar fracture and dislocation of inferior radioulnar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is monteggia fracture?

A

dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint and ulnar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which nerves make up the SURAL nerve?

A

Branches of the tibial and common fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the barlow/ ortolani test?

A

They are used for screening of developmental dysplasia of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 radiographic signs of OA?

A
  1. joint space narrowing 2. subchondral sclerosis 3. osteophytes 4. subchondral cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes dupytrens contracture?

A

Contraction of the palmar fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which nerve passes through guyons canal?

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which nerves are part of the posterior cord, of the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary and radial nerve

17
Q

Which nerve is associated with tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

Tibial nerve

18
Q

What are the symptoms of trisomy 18? and what is the syndrome called?

A

Omphalocele, microcephalis, difficulty feeding, cryptorchidism. EDWARDS syndrome

19
Q

What age is perthes disease most common?

A

4-8 years

20
Q

Which fracture is most commonly associated with AVN of the femoral head?

A

inter capsular fracture of the femoral neck

21
Q

What is pes cavus?

A

high arched foot which will not flatten through weight baring

22
Q

What is kohl’s disease?

A

AVN of the navicular bone

23
Q

Explain the ortolani test?

A

flex and abducted (think out - o)

24
Q

Explain the Barlow test?

A

hip adducted

25
Q

What cell does an osteoid osteomalacia arise from?

A

osteoblast

26
Q

What diseases is carpal tunnel associated with?(5)

A

RA, DM, Hypothyroid, amyloid, acromegaly

27
Q

What malignancy is a rare complication of pagets disease?

A

osteosarcoma

28
Q

What is codmans triangle associated with?

A

osteosarcoma

29
Q

Which bacteria commonly causes gas gangrene?

A

clostridium perfringens

30
Q

Which tendon is involved in flexion of the DIP

A

FDP

31
Q

Boutonniere compared to swan neck deformity?

A

Boutonniere the flexion is of the proximal, swan neck the flexion is the distal joint

32
Q

Most common complication after femoral neck fracture?

A

AVN

33
Q

Which age is SUFE most common?

A

m 12-16, f 10-14

34
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of an osteoclastoma on XR?

A

Multiple lytic and Lucent areas (soap bubble) appearance

35
Q

Which amino acid is present in all types of collagen?

A

Glycine

36
Q

A defect in which cell causes osteopetrosis?

A

Osteoclast function

37
Q

Which tumour are you at risk of developing in pagets disease?

A

Osteosarcoma