Organisms Flashcards

1
Q

Molluscum contagiousum on histo

A

(Pox virus) Molluscum bodies with eosinophillic cytoplasmic inclusions

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2
Q

Oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia in a infant with a IVDU Mom who didn’t receive prenatal therapy

A

Vertical HIV transmission, give zidovudine (enzyme inhibitor drug, nucleoside analog)

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3
Q

C diff precautions in hospital

A

Wearing non-sterile gloves, gown, hand washing with soap and water

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4
Q

How to IgA proteases help bacteria?

A

Cleaves IgA at its hinge region—>facilitates bacterial adherence to mucosa

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5
Q

How is trichomonas diagnosed

A

Wet mount (saline microscopy), pH>4.5, thin yellow-green discharge, module trichomonads

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6
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma on colonoscopy

A

Reddish/violet flat maculopapular lesions or raised hemorrhagic nodules or polyploid masses

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7
Q

India ink stain for Cryptococcus shows ______

A

Round or oval budding yeast with a thick capsule

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8
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains with gamma hemolysis (no hemolysis)

A

Enterococcus

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9
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae shares antigens with human _____. So we can get anemia and it resolves when the immune response is over

A

RBCs (I-antigen)

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10
Q

Gram negative sepsis is caused by release of ____ from bacterial cells. ______ is the toxic component of (first blank)

A

LPS, lipid A

-Lipid A can cause sepsis from e.coli

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11
Q

What yeast shows pseudohyphae with blastoconida

A

CANDIDA

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12
Q

What yeast shows distinct broad based budding

A

blastomyces

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13
Q

What yeast shows spherules with endospores

A

Cocciodioes

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14
Q

parvovirus B19 replicates in which cells

A

erythrocytes in bone marrow

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15
Q

ETEC labile toxin has a similar toxin to what other organism that produces watery diarrhea

A

cholera toxin

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16
Q

H flu is a blood loving organism that needs X (hematin) and V(____) for growth.

A

NAD+, staph can provide this “satellite phenomenon”

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17
Q

chancre are in what stage of syphillis

A

primary

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18
Q

condolomata lata are in what stage of syphillis

A

secondary, that also has diffuse rash

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19
Q

gummas are in what stage of syphillis

A

tertirary, that also has tabes dorsalis and aortic arch invovlement

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20
Q

what growth medium has vancomycin, nystatin, colistin, and trimethoprim

A

thayer martin, selective media

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21
Q

fungi with septate hyphae and V shaped branching

A

aspergillus

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22
Q

Primary TB infection tends to infect the ______ lobe of the lung while reactivation affects the _______ lobe of the lung

A

lower (can see Ghon complex), upper

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23
Q

tertiary syphillis can lead to aortic aneurysm and this process starts from ________ endarteritis and obliteration–>inflammation, ischemia–>weakening of aortic adventitia

A

vasa vorum

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24
Q

__________ can cause erythema infectiosum in kids (face rash) and arthralgias in adults. The joint pain can resolve quickly with NSAIDS

A

Parvovirus B19

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25
Q

Hyatid cysts in the liver are cause by _____ and what’s the reservoir. What happens if the cuts rupture in surgery

A

Ecchinococcus granulosus, dog/sheep, anaphylactic shock

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26
Q

________ has lead to decreased heaptocellular carcinoma in developed countries

A

Vaccinations

-water sanitation prevents hep A/E

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27
Q

which stage of pneumonia: vascular dilation, alveolar exudate contains mostly bacteria

A

congestion (1st 24 hrs)

28
Q

which stage of pneumonia: alveolar exudate contains erythrocytes, neutrophils, and fibrin

A

red hepatization (2-3 days)

29
Q

which stage of pneumonia: RBCs disintegrate, alveolar exudate contains neutrophils and fibrin

A

gray hepatization (4-6 days)

30
Q

which stage of pneumonia: enzymatic digestion of exudate

A

resolution

31
Q

Acid fast staining is carried out by applying _______ to a smear then decolorizing with HCl

A

carbolfushcin

-use this for acid fast (mycobacteria, nocardia)

32
Q

Staph food poisoning is caused by exotoxin formed ________ ingestion and causes _____ onset nausea/vomiting and resolves ______

A

prior to ingestion, rapid, quickly

33
Q

CMV causes which itisus in what kinds of people. See what kinds of cells?

A

retinitis, esophagitis, colitis
IMMUNOSUPPRESSED
enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusions

34
Q

someone who has a transplant is

A

IMMUNOSUPPRESSED

35
Q

Difference between CMV and HSV esophagitis

A

Both have intranuclear inclusions but
HSV: EOSINOPHILIC inclusions (punched out ulcers)
CMV: cytoplasmic inclusions (linear ulcerations)

36
Q

There are H flu strains without a capsule that can cause otitis media: true or false

A

true

37
Q

Peptostreptococcus and fusobacterium so if see a lung nodule that means

A

aspiration

-could be associated with a seizure disorder, alcoholism

38
Q

Major adaptive immune responses that prevent against influenza include anti-__________ antibodies

A

hemagglutin

39
Q

An organism with a phospholipid containing particle is most likely an ______ virus

A

Enveloped

40
Q

Listeria is not sensitive to ________ and treat with?

A

3rd gen cephalosporins, ampicillin

-it’s facultative intracellular and spreads intracellulary

41
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatosis is a severe vesicular ulcerative disease and indicates __________ infection

A

primary

42
Q

viral bronchiolitis is commonly caused by _______ and presents with low grade fever, cough, tachypnea, and inc work of breathing

A

RSV

-typ in kids <2

43
Q

Which cephalosporins and ahminoglycosides can treat psuedomonas

A

cefapime, ceftiazidine

cipro/levofloxacin

44
Q

___________ can lead to diffuse red rash, red tongue, and grayish white exudates. Most serious complication is _________

A

scarlet fever, rheumatic fever

45
Q

Hepatitis B stimulates CD___ cells to produce hepatocyte damage

A

CD8+

46
Q

What are the 3 ordered steps to treating diphtheria

A

diphtheria antitoxin(passive immunization), penicillin or erythromycin, DPT vaccine (active immunization)

47
Q

flu like febrile illness with marked myalgia and joint pain, , thrombocytopenia, shock, petechia

A

dengue fever

-can be infected by different serotypes

48
Q

H flu’s capsule is composed of

A

polyribosylribitol phosphate- this protects against phagocytosis

49
Q

virulent mycobacteria grow as ________ cords

A

serpentine and if don’t have this, can’t be virulent

50
Q

amatoxins are found in poisonous ________ and inhibit ________

A

mushrooms, RNA poly 2 so stop mRNA synthesis

51
Q

Why is IgG not completely effective against Hep C antigen?

A

B/c of antigenic variation in the envelope glycoproteins

52
Q

______ is characterized by an initial painless, small shallow genital ulcer and then weeks later you will see swollen, painful coalescing inguinal nodes. See intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies

A

Lymphogrnauloma venereum caused by chlamydia

53
Q

Infants born to moms with chronic Hepatitis B will have which positive in their labs. Maternal ______ and ______ are the strongest risk factors for infant infection

A

HBeAg

-maternal viral load, HBeAg

54
Q

Staph aureus has protein A that does what?

A

cleaves Fc portion of IgG—>impaired complement activation, opsonization, and phagocytosis

55
Q

common congenital eye complication of CMV

A

chorioretinitis

56
Q

cholera causes rice water stool that looks like heat under microscope

A

mucus (from activated goblet cells) and intestinal epithelial cells

57
Q

congenital CMV sx and see heterophiles NEGATIVE mononucleosis

A

periventricular calcifications, blueberry muffin rash, hepatosplenomegaly

58
Q

fusobacteirum, bacteriodies are members of the _______ flora

A

oral

59
Q

______ induced orchitis can lead to ________ atrophy and dec _______ production so tx with?

A

Mumps, Leydig cell. testosterone

60
Q

construction worker with TMJ pain

A

think clostridium tetani from a rusty nail

61
Q

Anti HBc IgG and HBsAg is present in ______ HBV infection

A

chronic

62
Q

rickettsia type is the same as

A

prowasekii

-rash that spares hands and feet

63
Q

What do dextran produced by strep viridians attach to

A

fibrin and platelets

64
Q

What affects Crenshaw cells in the spinal cord

A

clostridium tetani

65
Q

What affects the NMJ?

A

clostridium botulinum

66
Q

Botulism _____ AcH release and cleaves ______ protein

A

inhibits, Snap25 (a SNARE protein)

67
Q

amanita (poisonous mushroom) blocks?

A

RNA poly 2->mRNA synthesis