Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Uworld > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Increased activity of _____cells and ___cells is thought to be responsible for IL-2’s anti cancer effect

A

T, NK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the complement region located on an immunoglobulin

A

By the hinge region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For T cells _____ selection occurs in the thymic medulla and is when T cells that bind with high affinity are destroyed

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For T cells, _______ selection occurs in the thymic cortex

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The binding of ____ to its ligand downregulates the immune response against tumor cells by inhibiting _____ T cells. Many cancers evade the immune system by upregulating this

A

PD-1, cytotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AIDS dementia can be associated with ______ from significant cortical atrophy, which allows the ventricles to expand while maintaining normal pressure

A

hydrocephalus ex-vacuo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Il-___ induces the production of acute phase reactants

A

IL-6

-which can lead to high levels of fibrinogen—> inc ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HOX gene complex is critical for _______

A

craniocaudal positioning of the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acute cellular rejection most often occurs within weeks of transplantation due to sensitization of ____ T lymphocytes against ______ MHC antigens. Typically see mononuclear infiltrate. Prevent with what drugs?

A

host, donor, calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ T cell sensitization against ____ MHC antigens is seen in graft v.s host disease in which the host lacks competent ___ lymphocytes. ______ T lymphocytes attack ______ antigens that are recognized as foreign

A

Graft, host, T, graft, host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Preformed antibodies against graft ABO antigens cause ________ graft rejection

A

hyper acute, why we blood match donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which three cytokines are critical for maintaining granulomas

A

IL-12, IFN-gamma, TNFalpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ is a major mediator in septic shock

A

TNF alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 Factors that increase plasma renin:

A

low sodium intake, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome has anti____ antibodies

A

anti-SSA/SSB=antiRo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IL-8 signals what molecules and helps form pus

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is from an absence in _____ which leads to persistent leukocytosis

A

CD18, recurrent skin and mucosal infections without purulence (makes pus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_______ is characterized by thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency, eczema. It is a defect in?

A

Wiskot Aldrich, cytoskeleton rearrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Deficiency of complement makes you more susceptible to what organisms

A

neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cachexia is mediated by what cytokine?

A

TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Granulomas in TB are mediated by which T cells

A

CD4+ to activate macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does Th1 do

A

Th1secretes INF-gamma, IL-2 to stimulate CD8+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Th2 do

A

Th2 secrets IL-4 (activates IgE), IL5( activates eosinophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease results in a defect in producing ________ which leads to inc risk of infection of _______ positive organisms

A

NADPH oxidase, catalase

-Staph aureus, Noricardia, Aspergillus, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Brukholderia cepacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 4 factors stimulate neutrophils

A

Leukotriene B4, 5-HETE, IL-8, C5a

26
Q

nasal mucosal ulcerations are a problem in __________. Have antibodies to __________. __ ANCA is positive

A

wegener’s (granulotomasis with polyangitis), neutrophils, c-ANCA

27
Q

Someone with aslpenia is at inc risk for encapsulated organisms. Why?

A

spleen deals with systemic bacteria clearance

28
Q

Poluysaccaride capsule vaccine provides a ___ cell response and conjugating with a toxoid protein creates and ___ and ___ cell response

A

capsule: only B cell
conjugated: B and T cell

29
Q

______ is an essential protein in the activation of IL-2 which promotes the growth and differentiation of T cells. Which two drugs block this

A

calcineurin

-cyclosporine, tacrolimus

30
Q

Anaphylaxis leads to release of ____ and _____ cell degranulation and release of _______

A

mast, basophil, histamine and tryptase (mast cells)

31
Q

high affinity IgE receptor binding depends on ________

A

receptor aggregation

32
Q

Hyperacute rejection of an organ is ______ mediated and is a type ____ HSN reaction

A

antibody, 2

  • preformed IgG antibodies
  • anti-ABO and anti-HLA
33
Q

immediate hypersensitivity =type ___ HSN

A

1, think IgE and histamine

34
Q

acute cellular rejection with lymphocytic interstitial infiltrate and endothelitis is ___ cell mediated

A

T cell

35
Q

acute cellular rejection with neutrophilic infiltrate and necrotizing vasculitis is ___ cell mediated

A

B cell

36
Q

Which cytokine mediates fever

A

IL-1

37
Q

Which cytokine stimulates bone marrow

A

IL-3

38
Q

What does IL-12 do

A

differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells

39
Q

Il-2 stimulates ____ cells

A

T cells
Hot-T-bone-stEAK
(1) (2)(3) (4)(5)(6)

40
Q

graft v host disease can happen in __________ and ________ transplants

A

bone marrow, liver(organs rich in lymphocytes), skin, GI involvement

41
Q

_____________ is the most common immunodeficiency and presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections, GI infections, autoimmune disease, anaphylaxis during blood transfusions

A

IgA deficiency

42
Q

interferon alpha and beta are produced by most human cells in response to ________. They help suppress viruses by ________

A

viral infections, halting protein synthesis in infected cells and promoting apoptosis

43
Q

________ occurs when host proteins such as immunoglobulins or complement ind to foreign cells such as bacteria and coat the surface, enhancing phagocytosis. What are the two most important opsonins

A

IgG and C3b

44
Q

IgA deficiency presents with _______ during blood transfusions

A

anaphylaxis

45
Q

IgG has ___ gamma chains and ___ light chains, IgA has _____ alpha chains and _____ light chains, IgM has _____ mu chains and is a pentamer

A

2 and 2,2 and 4, 2

46
Q

Differences between sirolimus and cyclosporine and tacrolimus

A

all inhibit IL-2 h/e sirolimus blocks mTOR and is less nephortoxic

  • tacrolimus blocks FK506 and is nephrotoxic
  • cyclosporine blocks cyclophillin and is nephrotoxic
47
Q

Sjorjen’s syndrome presents with _______ gland enlargement . Remember RA can coexist with other autoimmune disease. What antibodies

A

parotid

-anti SSA(Ro) and SSB (La)

48
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis associated with anti ______ antibodies

A

antimicrosomal antibodies

49
Q

serum sickness is a type _____ hypersensitivity

A

3 (immune complex deposition)

50
Q

antibody rich secreting plasma cells are rich in what aspect of the cell

A

rough ER because this is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins

51
Q

Drug eluting stents that contain sirolimus reduce __________ because this drug blocks ________

A

intimal hyperplasia, mTOR (blocks cycle between G1–>S phase)

52
Q

If lack an IgG response–>

A

problems with antigen presentation

53
Q

Within the dendritic cell, what protein must be degraded before the endocytose antigen is loaded onto the MHC molecule

A

the invariant chain, this in on the dendritic cell when it is in the ER (this prevents it from binding antigenic peptides within the ER)

54
Q

What inhibits C3 and C5 convertase

A

decay accelerating factor (DAF)

55
Q

What two things prevent inappropriate complement activation

A

DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor

56
Q

What are 3 complement factors associated with anaphylaxis

A

C3a,4a,5a

57
Q

What are two primary opsonins of bacteria?

A

C3b and IgG

58
Q

C1 esterase deficiency leads to dec ____ levels in the blood

A

C4

59
Q

Goodpastures is a type ____ HSN reaction

A

2

60
Q

contact dermatitis is a type ____ HSN reaction

A

4

61
Q

erythema multiforme is a type _____ reaction

A

4

62
Q

IgG, IgE, IgA, IgE levels is WAS

A

dec to norm (IgG, IgM), inc IgE and IgA

Uworld (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions