Organic Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

A combination of atoms that confers certain chemical and physical properties on a compound is called a ___

A

functional group

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2
Q

What does saturated hydrocarbon mean?

A

Maximum number of hydrogens attached to each carbon (no multiple bonds)

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3
Q

Isomers with same connectivity

A

Stereoisomers

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4
Q

Achiral isomers AKA Geometric/ Configurational isomers

A

Cis–trans isomers

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5
Q

Stereoisomers that cannot be interconverted without breaking a chemical bond

A

Cis-trans isomers

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6
Q

Achiral isomers AKA Asymmetric isomers

A

Optical isomers

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7
Q

A substance is optically active when ___

A
  1. It has chiral carbon
  2. When hit by polarized light, angle changes
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8
Q

Chiral isomers that are mirror images.

A

Enantiomers

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9
Q

Equimolar mixture of two enantiomers

A

Racemic mixture

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10
Q

Chiral isomers that are not mirror images.

A

Diastereomers

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11
Q

Isomers with different connectivity

A

Constitutional isomers

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12
Q

Markonikov’s Rule

A
  • For HX, H attaches to double bonded C with more H, X (halogen) attaches to the more substituted carbon
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13
Q

Zaitev’s Rule
(Definition and when to apply)

A

“the rich getting richer, the poor getting poorer”
The carbon with the fewest hydrogens loses the hydrogen.

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14
Q

Formula Degree of Unsaturation

A

p= (2+2C+N-H-X)/2

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15
Q

Aliphatic came from word??

A

Greek: Aleiphar (meaning fat)

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16
Q

CnH2n+2

A

Alkane

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17
Q

AKA Apraffins

A

Alkane

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18
Q

AKA Olefins

A

Alkene

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19
Q

How to determine molecular formula (CxHy) of Aliphatic hydrocarbons?

A

a) for each double bond = 2 less H atoms
a) for each triple bond = 4 less H atoms
c) for each rings = 2 less H atoms (whenever ring is closed)

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20
Q

“Which is not a proper according to IUPAC nomenclature?”

A

“n-butyl”
kung alin merong “n-“

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21
Q

Notation on alkane containing Cl

A

chloro

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22
Q

C attached to two C

A

secondary

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23
Q

C attached to threeC

A

tertiary

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24
Q

C attached to fourC

A

quaternary

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25
Q

What iso means in nomenclature?

A

all carbons except one form a continuous chain

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26
Q

What neo means in nomenclature?

A

all but two carbons form a continuous chain

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27
Q

What sec means in nomenclature?

A

when the functional group is bonded to a secondary carbon.

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28
Q

What tert means in nomenclature?

A

when the functional group is bonded to a tertiary carbon.

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29
Q

Which of the following objects are chiral?
a. pair of scissors
b. beaker
c. paper clip
d. the swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink or bathtub

A

a. pair of scissors

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30
Q

How to differentiate alkane alkene and alkyne?
a. combustion on an empty beaker
b. nature of carbon and its branching
c. reaction with Br2
d. all of these

A

c. reaction with Br2

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31
Q

What compound is a ketone but it is not a carbohydrate but is useful commercially?

A

acetone

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32
Q

Focuses on the localization of electrons between atoms to form covalent bond

A

Lewis structure

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33
Q

Focuses on the delocalization of electrons to achieve stability

A

Resonance Structures

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34
Q

Culmination of contributions resonance structures

A

Resonance hybrid

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35
Q

Withdrawal or donation of electron through a sigma bond due to electronegativity and polarity of bonds in functional groups

A

Inductive Effect

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36
Q

Withdrawal or donation of electron through a pi bond due to overlap of a p-orbital on the substituent with a p-orbital on the aromatic ring.

A

Resonance Effect

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37
Q

Each bond in a benzene is considered

A

more than a single bond, but less than a double bond

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38
Q

Bonding between carbon atoms are ____

A

covalent and strong

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39
Q

Comparing Alkane Stability
a) Heat of combustion
b) number of C atoms
c) branching

A

a) number of C atoms: Less C = more stable
b) branching: more branching = more stable
c) Heat of combustion: inversely proportional

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40
Q

Comparing Alkene Stability
a) number of C atoms
b) substitution
c) Z/E or cis/trans

A

a) number of C atoms: Less C = more stable
b) substitution: more substituted = more stable
c) Z/E or cis/trans: E and trans = more stable

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41
Q

Comparing Melt pt, Boil pt and Density:
a)IMFA
b) substitution
c) number of C atoms
d) branching

A

a) IMFA: stronger = higher
also, more polar or symmetrical = higher
b) substitution: halogen substituted = higher (more IMFA)
c) number of C atoms: more = higher
d) branching: more = lower

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42
Q

Petroleum Products: (# of C’s and Phase)

a) Petroleum Gas
b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene
d) Fuel Oil
e) Lubricating Oil
f) Residue

A

a) Petroleum Gas: C1 to C4
Gas
b) Gasoline (naphtha): C5 to C12
Liquid
c) Kerosene: C12 to C16
Liquid
d) Fuel Oil: C15 to C18
Liquid
e) Lubricating Oil: C15 to C18
Liquid
f) Residue (asphalt): > C18
Solid

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43
Q

Each C-H bond of one carbon bisects the H-C-H angle of the other carbon

A

Staggered conformation
(hugis Y)

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44
Q

Substituents of one C atom in alkane does not align from other substituents

A

Staggered conformation

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45
Q

Each C-H bond of one carbon aligns with the C-H bond of the other carbons

A

Eclipsed conformation

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46
Q

How to avoid 1,3-diaxial repulsion?

A

in cyclohexanes
larger substituent must be in equatorial (horizontal) position

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47
Q

EPA

A

Eicosapentanoic acid

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48
Q

DHA

A

Docosapentanoic acid

49
Q

ALA

A

Alpha-Linoleic acid

50
Q

Comparing Melt pt, Boil pt and Density:
a) IMFA
b) number of C atoms
c) branching

A

a) IMFA: stronger = higher
b) number of C atoms: more = higher
c) branching: more = lower

51
Q

SN1 or SN2:
attacks methyl or primary alcohol

A

SN2

52
Q

SN1 or SN2:
attacks secondary or tertiary alcohol

A

SN1

53
Q

SN1 or SN2:
more steric effect

A

SN1

54
Q

SN1 or SN2:
tends to be racemic mixtures

A

SN1

55
Q

SN1 or SN2:
tends to undergo 100% inversion (Cahn Ingold Prelog)

A

SN2

56
Q

SN1 or SN2:
bimolecular reaction

A

SN2

57
Q

SN1 or SN2:
Unimolecular reaction

A

SN1

58
Q

SN1 or SN2:
faster reaction the more substituted the hydrocarbon is

A

SN1

59
Q

SN1 or SN2:
faster reaction the lesser substituted the hydrocarbon is

A

SN2

60
Q

SN1 or SN2:
Involves an intermediate reaction

A

SN1

61
Q

SN1 or SN2:
Doubling the reagent does not change the reaction rate

A

SN1

62
Q

SN1 or SN2:
Double the reagent will double the reaction rate

A

SN2

63
Q

pull of electron density through sigma bonds caused by electronegativity

A

Inductive effect

64
Q

Positively charged carbon draws electron from sigma bonds around it

A

Inductive Effect

65
Q

Electron delocalization due to the orbital overlap between an alkyl group and the positively charged carbon

A

Hyperconjugation

66
Q

How is a carbocation stabilized by the alkyl groups attached to it?

A

Hyperconjugation
Alkyl (CH) groups around carbocation C+ impart their electron density to it.

67
Q

The more substituted a carbocation is, the more __ it is

A

the more stable it is

68
Q

Alkene Nomenclature Priority:
Alcohol
Alkyl Halides
Double bond

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Double bond
  3. Alkyl halides
69
Q

Alkene Nomenclature:
Vinyl
Allyl

A

Vinyl C=C–
Allyl C=C-C–

70
Q

Z

A

Zusammen
Cis = “magkaZama”
High atomic number atoms on same side

71
Q

E

A

Entgegen
Trans = “magka-Eba”
High atomic number atoms on opposite side

72
Q

Alkene Nomenclature:
Cahn Ingold Prelog Rules
1. Multipliers
2. MW
3. Next carbon

A

AKA E/Z Rules
1. Highest atomic number atom
2. Proceed to next bonds if 1 fails
3. Multiple bonds and branching serve as multipliers

73
Q

Define Sigmatropic Rearrangements

A

reactions where sigma bonded substituent atom or group migrates across a pi electron system
(See QRC Notes)

74
Q

Organic Chemistry Rules:
Markovnikov

A

*When there is no peroxides
* X substituted into carbon with lesser H

75
Q

Organic Chemistry Rules:
Anti - Markovnikov

A

*When there is peroxides
* X substituted into carbon with more H

76
Q

KEYWORD:
Hydrohalogenation with Peroxide Reagent

A

anti Markovnikov

77
Q

Organic Chemistry Rules:
Zaitsev’s Rule

A

*for Hydrohalogenation (HX)
*in presence of weak-bulky and strong non-bulky bases:
lithium di-isopropyl amide (LDA)
NaOH
KOH
* Major product is alkene with most substituted double bond

78
Q

Organic Chemistry Rules:
Hofmann’s Rule

A
  • in presence of strong bulky base:
    Potassium tert-butoxide (KOt-Bu)
    DBN, DBU
  • Major product is alkene with least substituted double bond
79
Q

A mass spectrum technique and is obtained by grinding up a solid which is mixed with mineral oil to from a suspension for IR spectroscopy.

A

Nujol Mull
LOOKSFAM :)

80
Q

Glucose and fructose are examples of
A. double sugars
B. disaccharides
C. single sugars
D. polysaccharides

A

C. single sugars

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT a polysaccharide?
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Sucrose
D. Cellulose

A

C. Sucrose

82
Q

What are used in animals as a source of quick energy that can be stored in the liver and muscles ?
A. Proteins
B. Nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids

A

C. Carbohydrates

83
Q

Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to which major class of biological molecules?
A. Nucleic acids
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. polypeptides

A

B. carbohydrates

84
Q

Plants like sugar cane and sugar beets store the energy as simple sugars. Other plants, like corn and potatoes, store the energy as more complex sugars called?
A. carbohydrates
B. calories
C. starches
D. cellulose

A

C. starches

85
Q

What are the monomers of lipids?
A. Amino acids
B. Simple sugars
C. Fatty acids and glycerol
D. Nucleic acids

A

C. Fatty acids and glycerol

86
Q

Lipids are used by the body to perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A. membrane structural material.
B. enzyme action.
C. insulation.
D. a rich energy source.

A

B. enzyme action.

87
Q

What type of organic substances are fats?
A. nucleic acid
B. carbohydrate
C. protein
D. lipids

A

D. lipids

88
Q

Fats that have fatty acids with only single covalent bonds in their carbon skeletons are
A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. found in plants instead of animals
D. liquid at room temperature

A

A. saturated

89
Q

Which of the following is a polymer?
A. nucleic acid
B. fatty acid
C. Amino acid
D. Glycerol

A

A. nucleic acid

90
Q

Proteins are ____ made of amino acid ____.

A

polymers; monomers

91
Q

In this type of structure, most of carbonyl groups of peptide bonds forms a hydrogen bond with the amide nitrogen of another peptide bond four amino acids further down the polypeptide chain:
A. Alpha-helix
B. Beta-sheet
C. Beta-turn
D. Quaternary

A

A. Alpha-helix

92
Q

The isoelectric point of an amino acid is defined as the pH
A. where the molecule carries no electric charge
B. where the carboxyl group is uncharged
C. where the amino group is uncharged
D. of maximum electrolytic mobility

A

A. where the molecule carries no electric charge

93
Q

The local spatial arrangement of a polypeptide’s backbone atoms without regard to the conformation of its side chains can be called as
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure

A

B. Secondary structure

94
Q

Which of the following amino acids are
more likely to be found in a protein’s
interior away from aqueous solvent
molecules?
A. Val, Leu, Ile, Met, and Phe
B. Ser, Thr, Asn, Gln, and Tyr
C. Arg, His, Lys, Asp, and Glu
D. All of the above.

A

A. Val, Leu, Ile, Met, and Phe

95
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic
of a globular protein?
* A Polypeptide chain in extended, long sheets
* B Polypeptide chains are folded in a
spherical shape.
* C Contains several types of secondary
structure
* D Typical for regulatory proteins.

A

A Polypeptide chain in extended, long sheets

96
Q

The alpha helix found in myoglobin can best be described as
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Motif structure

A

B. Secondary structure

97
Q

Some parts of a protein that have a specific chemical structure and function are called protein
A. chemicals
B. domains
C. subunits
D. enzymes

A

B. domains

98
Q

One of the following is not usually a force that helps to hold the monomer units of a quaternary protein together?
A. Peptide bonds
B. Disulfide bonds
C. Salt bonds
D. Hydrophobic interactions

A

A. Peptide bonds

99
Q

If a person breathes into a paper bag, you would expect their blood CO2 to
A. decrease and their blood pH to increase
B. decrease and their blood pH to decrease
C. increase and their blood pH to increase
D. increase and their blood pH to decrease

A

D. increase and their blood pH to decrease

100
Q

The quaternary structure of a protein is
A. the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide
B. the coiling or folding of the polypeptide
C. the intertwining of two or more polypeptides
D. the 3-dimensional appearance of the polypeptide

A

C. the intertwining of two or more polypeptides

101
Q

The action of disrupting the three-dimensional shape of a protein is termed
A. dehydration
B. denaturation
C. deamination
D. hydrolysis

A

B. denaturation

102
Q

The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation.
* (a) Hydrogen bonds
* (b) Peptide bonds
* (c) lonic bond
* (d) Disulfide bonds

A
  • (b) Peptide bonds
103
Q

The protein portion of a conjugated enzyme is called a(n)
A) apoenzyme.
B) coenzyme.
C) holoenzyme.
D) cofactor.

A

A) apoenzyme.

104
Q

Enzyme cofactors that bind covalently at the active site of an enzyme are referred to as .
(a) cosubstrates.
(b) prosthetic groups.
(c) apoenzymes.
(d) vitamins

A

(b) prosthetic groups.
AKA Coenzyme

105
Q

An enzyme active site is the location in the enzyme where
* A) protein side groups are brought together by bending and folding to form a site for interactions with substrates
* B) the catalyst interactions with the enzyme
* C) catalyst molecules are generated
* D) the substrate creates the catalyst molecules

A
  • A) protein side groups are brought together by bending and folding to form a site for interactions with substrates
106
Q

What is the optimal temperature range for the majority of enzymes?
A. 40-55 ℃
B. 35-40 ℃
C. 25-30 ℃
D. 15-20 ℃

A

B. 35-40 ℃

107
Q

An allosteric activator
A. increases the binding affinity
B. decreases the binding affinity
C. stabilizes the R state of the protein
D. both (a) and (c)

A

D. both (a) and (c)

108
Q

Reactants of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are known as
A. products
B. substrates
C. proteins
D. complex

A

B. substrates

109
Q

The location on an enzyme where binding occurs is known as the
A. action point
B. enzyme
C. binding location
D. active site

A

D. active site

110
Q

An apoenzyme
A. Includes non-protein compounds such as metal ions
B. Consists of complex organic structures which may be classified as activation-transfer coenzymes or oxidation-reduction coenzymes
C. Is the protein portion of the enzyme without the cofactors
D. None of the above

A

C. Is the protein portion of the enzyme without the cofactors

111
Q

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme works by
A. fitting into the enzyme’s active site
B. fitting into the allosteric site of the enzyme
C. attaching itself to the substrate, thereby preventing
the enzyme from making contact with substrate
D. increasing the activation energy of the enzyme catalyzed reaction

A

A. fitting into the enzyme’s active site

112
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

113
Q

Sports physiologists wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for a buildup of which of the following compounds?

A

lactate

114
Q

In the liver, glucagon will activate
A. Glycolysis and glycogen synthesis
B. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis and glycogen synthase
D. Gluconeogenesis and glycogen synthesis

A

B. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

115
Q

Cellular respiration takes place mostly in:

A

mitochondria

116
Q

Enumerate Metabolic Processes in correct order

A
  1. glycolysis,
  2. pyruvate oxidation,
  3. citric acid cycle
  4. oxidative phosphorylation
117
Q

What are the products of the citric acid cycle?

A

NADH, ATP, FADH2, and CO2

118
Q

The TCA cycle:
A. Is found in the cytosol
B. Is controlled by the ADP/ATP ratio and the NADH concentration
C. Is also called the Cori cycle
D. Produces most of the water made in humans

A

B. Is controlled by the ADP/ATP ratio and the NADH concentration

119
Q

The main purpose of the electron transport chain is to:
A. Use high energy electrons from other cycles to convert ADP into ATP
B. Maintain a stable balance of high energy electrons
C. Constantly distribute electrons throughout
the cell
D. Tell the cell when glycolysis should stop or start

A

A. Use high energy electrons from other cycles to convert ADP into ATP