Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Command Preparation > OMA > Flashcards

OMA Flashcards

1
Q

What are the names of our three AOCs?

A

easyJet UK Limited
easyJet Switzerland SA. (Swiss)
easyJet Europe Airline GmbH (Austrian)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is ISA at sea level?

A

15 degC
QNH 1013
(14.7 psi)
(661kts Speed of Sound)

OMA 0.1.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the temperature at 39000ft in ISA?

A

-56.5 degC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is the CEO?

A

Johan Lundgren

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who (was) the COO?

A

Chris Browne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is the CFO?

A

Andrew Findlay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is head of operations (interim)? Previously head of flight operations.

A

David Morgan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is head of cabin services?

A

Tina Milton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is head of operational planning?

A

Phillip Smallwood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who is head of crew training?

A

David Froggatt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the regulatory responsibilities of the commander?

A 
Safety of all crew, passengers and cargo
Operation and safety of aircraft
Authority to give all commands regarding safety
Can disembark anyone
Must ensure all passengers briefed
Must ensure all ops/checklists followed
FDR/CVR not tampered with
Follow CDL/MEL
Conduct preflight inspection
Ensure emergency equipment available
File safety reports

“In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, take any action he considers necessary. In such cases he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures, and methods in the interests of flight safety.”

OMA 1.4.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the company responsibilities of the commander?

A

1) Flight deck door stays locked with engines running
2) Take “all reasonable steps” to ensure passengers seated and bags stowed
3) No loose articles in flight deck
4) Consideration given to increasing safety margins (like minima)
5) Continuous listening watch on ATC and 121.5
6) Conduct de-brief
7) Maintain crew uniform standards (ties on outside flight deck)
8) Use ACARS to provide info to company

OMA 1.4.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can OCC be contacted?

A

Telephone 01582 525525
ACARS
HF (5 freqs - 5541, 11345, 13342, 17916, 23210)

OMA 2.1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many flight crew are required for boarding?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Minimum age for cabin crew?

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many hours does a commander need?

A

3500 factored (can be reduced to 3000)

Currently 3000 by the end of the command course - January 2019

OMA 5.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the limits on alcohol consumption?

A

None within 10 hours of report

Moderation within 24 hours of report (5 units)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many hours off after anaesthetic?

A

24 hours after local

48 hours after general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many hours off after donating blood?

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many hours off after diving?

A

24 (or 48 if deeper than 10m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a “decrease in medical fitness”?

A 
Surgery
Admitted to hospital for 12 hours+
New regular medication
Injury/illness that affects ability to fly
Pregnancy

OMA 6.12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which chemicals make up air and by what amount?

A

78% Nitrogen
21% Oxygen
1% others (mostly Argon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who is head of operations (interim)?

May 2019

A

David Morgan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who is director of flight operations (interim)?

May 2019

A

Daniele Grassini (previously Head of Training and Standards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the maximum amount an FDP can be increased by? (At what amount does the CAA get notified?)

A

2 hours (1 hours+ CAA gets notified)

OMA 7.1.5.4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the minimum rest can be reduced to? (Home base and out of base)

A

12 hours home base, 10 hours out of base

OMA 7.1.11.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How much does rest need to be reduced by for the CAA to get notified?

A

1 hour (same as 1 hour extension for CAA notification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who can reduce standard report time?

A

Only the commander (not crewing!)

OMA 7.1.5.1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the minimum briefing/report times?

A

60 minutes - only reduced by captain. One flight crew member must receive 45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does delayed reporting work? What is the key number of hours?

A

4 hours…

If the delay is less than 4 hours then;

  • Max FDP is calculated based on original report time
  • FDP starts at delayed report time

If the delay is more than 4 hours then;

  • Max FDP is calculated based on the more limiting of original and delayed report time
  • FDP starts at delayed report time

OMA 7.1.5.4.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the maximum duty hours in 7, 14 and 28 days?

A

60 duty hours in 7 consecutive days
110 duty hours in 14 consecutive days
190 duty hours in 28 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the maximum flight hours in 28 days, a calendar year, and 12 rolling months?

A

100 hours flight time in 28 consecutive days
900 hours flight time in any calendar year
1000 hours flight time in any 12 consecutive months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does a positioning sector before an operating duty count towards FDP? What about afterwards?

A

Before yes it counts, afterwards it doesn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does a split duty work?

A

Minimum 3 hours break in “split”
Over 6 hours requires accommodation
Max FDP can be increased by 50% of break

OMA 7.1.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the BALPA guideline on maximum awake time?

A

18 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is max FDP calculated from following a callout from standby?

A

If on standby less than 6 hours: max FDP calculated from report time
If on standby more than 6 hours: max FDP is reduced by the time on standby above 6 hours

OMA 7.1.9.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The Commander shall not commence a flight unless they are satisfied that…? (8 key points)

A
  • Aircraft is airworthy
  • MEL and CDL complied with
  • Documents and forms are on board
  • Ground facilities are available
  • easyJet ops manuals can be complied with (fuel, oil, oxygen, MSAs, minima etc)
  • Load is secure
  • Weight means flight can be conducted above MFAs
  • Any operational limitation can be complied with

OMA 8.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What else can a Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) be known as?

A

TAA: Terminal Arrival Altitude (for RNAV approaches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What distance from the aerodrome reference point is the MSA valid?

A

25NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How much clearance do Minimum Flight Altitudes (MFAs) provide on the OFP?

A

1000ft clearance of terrain up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance of terrain above 5000ft

MFAs are based on route MORA, and are valid within 20NM of the route centreline.

Minimum is 2000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the minimum grid altitude (MGA) and what clearance does it provide?

A

Lowest safe altitude to be flown off track

1000ft clearance for terrain up to 6000ft
2000ft clearance for terrain above 6000ft

Minimum is 2000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When are temperature corrections required?

A

When surface temperature is -10 degC or below

OMA 8.1.1.3.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the easyJet requirements for an approved aerodrome?

A
  • Runway length and characteristics meet performance for takeoff and landing
  • Pavement strength is compatible with weight
  • Suitable approaches, ATS, communications, weather reporting and navaids are available
  • RFFS

In addition, when necessary;

  • Landing permissions obtained
  • Flight crew have qualifications required
  • Aerodrome has the correct ramp facilities
  • Police, custom, immigration services available

OMA 8.1.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the minimum RFFS category for departure/destination for each aircraft type? Can this be reduced and when?

A

A319/320 RFFS 6
A321 RFFS 7

Both can be reduced by 2 (to 4 and 5 respectively) in case of a temporary downgrade of less than 72 hours

For alternates: non-UK 4 and UK 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Can easyJet operate to isolated aerodromes? What is the procedure?

A

No we can’t

(It requires the alternate and final reserve fuel to be enough for 2 hours at cruise consumption above destination - around 4000kgs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is an aerodrome suitable?

A

Adequate for operation and met. conditions satisfy planning minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Within what time frame must destination and alternate weather be above planning minima?

A

+/- 1 hour of ETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

For planning, does the cloud ceiling need to be taken into account?

A

No, only for non-precision and circling approaches

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If weather minima is given in RVR at an aerodrome, does this need to be taken into account at the planning stage?

A

Yes, the forecast met vis should be at or above the RVR required. However, conversion (CMV) should not be used.

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the maximum distance required for a takeoff alternate? What is this based on?

A

320NM

Based on one hour still air time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed in ISA at the actual takeoff weight (distance of 320NM from OMB assumes MTOW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for twin engine aeroplanes without ETOPS?

A

A319 380NM
A320 400NM
(A321 400NM)

Based on one hour at the one engine inoperative cruise speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When are two alternates required?

A
  • Destination weather below minima
  • No met. info. available
  • Landing performance cannot be assured
  • Night ban?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

For alternate planning, what minima is required for the different types of approaches?

A

CAT I RVR for LTS CAT I, OTS CAT II, CAT II, CAT III

NPA VIS, MDH for CAT I

NPA VIS + 1000m, MDH + 200ft for NPA

Circling for circling

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is an alternate not required?

A

Flight less than 6 hours
Two runways (independent - incase one closes)
Independent nav-aids for each runway
Weather within +/- 1 hour ETA has a ceiling of 2000ft (or circling minima+500ft) and visibility of 5km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Do gusts need to be considered in TAFs?

A

No, but mean wind should be within limits

OMA 8.1.2.4 (table)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the approach category for our aircraft?

A

C

Calculated from a Vat of 121-140kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the minimum RVR for take off? Can you use a certain number of centreline lights?

A

125m (400m for FO)

6 consecutive lights (90m) from cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the minimum DH and RVR for each type of approach? (In low vis ops bank in more detail)

A 
CAT I: 200ft/550m
CAT I LTS: 200ft/400m/450m
CAT II: 100ft/300m
CAT II OTS: 100ft/350m
CAT IIIA: <100ft/200m (50' RA in box)
CAT IIIB: <50ft/75m

OMA 8.1.3.3.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When are multiple RVRs required?

A

For all CAT II and III approaches (not CAT I or CAT I LTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is required midpoint RVR usually and how can it be reduced?

A

125m, reduces to 75m with rollout guidance

61
Q

When are the restrictions on when you can use CMV (Conversion of reported Met. Vis.)?

A

Not for takeoff
Not for RVR <800m
Not for planning

62
Q

What are the minima for a visual approach?

A 
2500ft ceiling (BKN/OVC)
5000m visibililty
63
Q

What is the easyJet fuel policy?

A

Adequate block fuel to cover taxi, trip, contingency, alternate, final reserve. Carry the minimum fuel necessary for safe and efficient flight. Only take extra fuel for which there is a strong possibility it will be used (costs 3%/hour to carry)

OMA 8.1.7.1

64
Q

Which “elements” of the flight do we carry fuel for? They are listed on the front of the OFP

A
  • Taxi
  • Trip
  • Contingency
  • Alternate
  • Final reserve
  • Additional
  • Extra
65
Q

What is the minimum contingency fuel required with and without statistical contingency fuel (SCF)?

A

With SCF: CONT95% or 5 mins (99% on some pairs)
Without SCF: 5% of trip or 5 mins

(5 mins is at 1500ft above destination, not above alternate like final reserve)

66
Q

What can contingency fuel be reduced to if you have SCF?

A

It can be reduced to the greater of CONT90 and 5 mins above destination aerodrome at 1500ft

67
Q

What are the minimum values of contingency fuel that must be carried for each type?

A

A319 190kg
A320 204kg
A320NEO 170kg
A321 200kg

OMA 8.1.7.6.4

68
Q

What can contingency fuel be reduced to if you do not have SCF?

A

It can be reduced to the greater of 3% of trip fuel and 5 mins above destination aerodrome at 1500ft

69
Q

How is alternate fuel calculated?

A

Fuel required from missed approach point (MDA/DH) at destination to landing at the alternate. Includes completing the full missed approach procedure and the expected arrival.

70
Q

How is final reserve fuel calculated?

A

30 minutes at holding speed 1500ft above alternate

71
Q

When is extra fuel required?

A

A “strong possibility” exists that it is required

Penalty to carry extra is 3% per hour

OMA 8.1.7.5.9

72
Q

Where must a fuel enroute aerodrome be located?

A

(Recently shown on OFP above alternate on front page)

Aerodrome must be within 20% of the trip distance from a point centred 75% of the way into the trip distance

73
Q

When can you dispatch with no alternate?

A

When the destination meets the requirements on OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4 and the additional fuel is not less than that required to fly for 15 minutes at 1500ft above aerodrome.

74
Q

What standards weights are used for:

  • Flight crew?
  • Cabin crew?
  • Dogs?
  • Cellos?
A
  • Flight crew 85kg
  • Cabin crew 75kg
  • Dogs 35kg
  • Cellos 10kg

(Useful to know 4x cabin crew is 300kg, on positioning flights with no crew the DOW is usually 300kg less than what the OFP states…)

75
Q

Does the captain have authority to defer a defect?

A

Yes, follow MOC guidance

76
Q

Which original certificates must be carried onboard?

A

Certificate of Airworthiness
Airworthiness Review
Certificate of Registration

77
Q

What colours are the deicing fluids?

A

Type I - clear/orange
Type II - straw
Type IV - green

78
Q

Between which flight levels does RVSM apply?

A

FL290 to FL410

79
Q

What the minimum required accuracies for PBN enroute, in the terminal area, and on final approach?

A

Enroute: RNAV 5, 5.0NM
Terminal: RNAV 1 or RNP 1, 1.0NM
Final: RNP APP, 0.3NM

OMA 8.3.3.6

80
Q

When would you make a “MINIMUM FUEL” call to ATC?

A

When any changes to your current plan could mean you land below final reserve

81
Q

When would you make a “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL” call to ATC?

A

When you are already planning to land below final reserve

82
Q

What should you do flying through lightning?

A

Turn up the lights
Check your comms still work
Record in tech log

83
Q

What wake turbulence category are our aircraft?

A 
Medium (ICAO)
Lower Medium (UK)
84
Q

What separation is required behind a departure from the same intersection?

A

Behind A380? 3 minutes
Behind heavy? 2 minutes
Behind medium? 0 minutes

85
Q

What separation is required behind a departure from a different intersection?

A

Behind A380? 4 minutes
Behind heavy? 3 minutes
Behind medium? 0 minutes

86
Q

What separation is given to aircraft on final approach after

  • A380
  • Heavy
  • 757
  • Medium?
A
  • A380 7NM
  • Heavy 5NM
  • 757 4NM
  • Medium 3NM/2.5NM (minimum radar separation)
87
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000ft - cannot continue past this point unless the RVR is above minima - consider delaying the approach

88
Q

What defines “relevant” RVR?

A

The part of the runway needed to decelerate to around 60 knots

89
Q

What visual elements are required for NPA?

A

Elements of the ALS

90
Q

What visual elements are required for CAT I?

A

Elements of the ALS

91
Q

What visual elements are required for CAT II and CAT II OTS?

A

3 consecutive lights and lateral

92
Q

What visual elements are required for CAT I LTS?

A

3 consecutive lights and lateral

93
Q

What visual elements are required for CAT IIIA?

A

3 consecutive lights

94
Q

What visual elements are required for CAT IIIB?

A

With DH - 1 light

NO DH - 0 lights

95
Q

What is the minimum time required for the flight deck oxygen to supply the pilots? What about at 100%?

A

2 hours (or 30 minutes at 100%)

OMA 8.8.2.1

96
Q

What is the minimum time required for oxygen to supply the cabin crew?

A

30 minutes

97
Q

What is the minimum time required for oxygen to supply the passengers?

A

Different limitations depending on altitude, but 10% of passengers must have oxygen for the entire time above 10000ft

98
Q

For OTP, when should you plan to be at the aircraft?

A

STD-35

99
Q

For OTP, when should green light boarding begin?

A

STD-25

100
Q

What is the maximum you should leave the stand early with passengers?

A

STD-10

101
Q

What is the maximum you should arrive compared to STA?

A

No more than 15 minutes early

102
Q

When should doors be closed for an on time departure?

A

STD-3

103
Q

What should you do if there is no crew food loaded?

A

Don’t delay the flight - commander can authorise food to be taken from the bar for the crew

104
Q

On the loading form for wheelchairs, what is it for and which box always get forgotten?

A

To show wheelchair loaded correctly and battery disconnected and isolated as required. Small box on bottom left of form always left unticked - needs to be!

OMA 9.1.5.2

105
Q

What are some key thoughts if you receive a red bomb threat?

A
  • Disembark all passengers
  • Slides only in extreme cases
  • QRH checklist
  • Least risk bomb location
106
Q

What happens in the event of an amber bomb threat?

A

Speak to the Network Duty Manager and he/she will assess the risk as red or green

107
Q

What are the implications of a green threat?

A

No action - continue normal ops

108
Q

Describe what happens during an in-flight bomb search (in the flightdeck and in the cabin)

A

1 pilot flys, 1 pilot searches flight deck

Cabin crew conduct aircraft security search in accordance with OMA 10.2.5
Passengers identify all bags, open on laps, moving through systematically of front to back, aisle to window
Passengers moved from seats
If found, don’t touch bomb! Consider moving to LRBL (2R)

OMA 10.1.8.7

109
Q

Where is the least risk bomb location? What should you do if you have to place a suspect item near to it?

A

Door 2R

  • Disarm it
  • Don’t change bomb attitude
  • Cover with cabin bags
  • Use tape to support if necessary
110
Q

What is the hijack transponder code?

A

7500

111
Q

What are the four levels of disruptive passenger?

A

Level 1: non-compliance, disorderly
Level 2: physically disruptive, damage, assault
Level 3: life-threatening, weapons, tries to open doors
Level 4: attempt on accessing flight deck door

112
Q

What are the 3 aspects required to “positively ID” a customer?

A

Name
Passport/ID Number
Date of birth

113
Q

What are your actions in the case of a laser attack?

A
  • Don’t look at the laser
  • Consider automatics
  • Try to note location of attack
  • Inform ATC
  • Use blinds and cockpit lights
  • ASR
114
Q

When is an aircraft security search required?

A
  • Prior to all departures from UK, Jersey, Gibraltar, Isle of Man, Tel Aviv
  • All cold aircraft
  • Going to Tel Aviv

OMA 10.2.5.1

115
Q

What are your actions on the ground following a divert regarding passenger and bag reconciliation/searches?

A

Diverted from UK? 3 row procedure
Diverted from elsewhere? Full search, if one gets off, everyone gets off

OMA 10.2.5.2

116
Q

During an aircraft security search, where are some of the key areas that flight deck crew must check?

A
  • Standby compass
  • Under panels areas
  • Vents
  • All stowage areas (rope, torch, ground lock, toolkit, smoke hood, disks storage)
  • Lifejackets
  • Rain repellant
  • Waste bin
  • External power receptacle
  • Cargo door panels
  • Refuel panel

And many more! OMA 10.2.5.4

117
Q

Where are additional security measures used and what are they?

A

Turkey, Isreal, Morocco, Egypt, Jordan (May 2019)

  • Additional screening of bags and passengers
  • Protection of aircraft
  • Protection of screened bags
  • Selection of passengers for additional searches
118
Q

Are guns allowed onboard?

A

Yes - but rarely and with strict rules about who and how. Usually locked away and unloaded in the hold.

OMA 10.4.2.1

119
Q

Is filming allowed on board?

A

Yes - but not of security processes, such as check-in, baggage reconciliation, cabin crew safety demonstration, flight deck door

120
Q

What is OMA Section 0?

A

Administration and Control of Ops Manuals

121
Q

What is OMA Section 1?

A

Organisation and Responsibilites

122
Q

What is OMA Section 2?

A

Operational Control and Supervision

123
Q

What is OMA Section 3?

A

Management System

124
Q

What is OMA Section 4?

A

Crew Composition

125
Q

What is OMA Section 5?

A

Qualification Requirements

126
Q

What is OMA Section 6?

A

Crew Health Precautions

127
Q

What is OMA Section 7?

A

Flight Time Limitations (FTL)

128
Q

What is OMA Section 8?

A

Operating Procedures

129
Q

What is OMA Section 9?

A

Dangerous Goods and Weapons

130
Q

What is OMA Section 10?

A

Aviation Security

131
Q

What is OMA Section 11?

A

Handling, Notifying and Reporting Accidents, Incidents and Occurrences and Using the CVR

132
Q

What is OMA Section 12?

A

The Rules of the Air

133
Q

What is OMA Section 13?

A

Leasing

134
Q

How would you contact the Employee Assistance Programme?

A

By freephone: 0800 282193

135
Q

What is a reportable occurence?

A
  • Any event or defect endangering the aircraft, occupants, or other person
  • Any defect or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground which if not corrected would endanger aircraft or its occupants

OMA 11.1.3.3

136
Q

Who do you first contact to advise of a serious incident?

A

OCC (Duty Pilot)

137
Q

Can you pull the CVR circuit breakers? Where are they?

A

Not normally, but after a serious incident - yes. This prevents them from overwriting the incident. It only records the last 2 hours of recording.

Located on overhead panel: E13 and E14 (check)

138
Q

Where would you find the Rules of the Air?

A

OMA Section 12 refers you to the GEN Route Manual (Annex 2 - ICAO)

139
Q

What type of aircraft leasing do easyJet use?

A

Wet and dry

OMA 13.2

140
Q

What is the difference between Category A, B, B Restricted and C airfields?

A

A: Non-complex and routine
B: Complexity requiring specific briefing (e.g. audio visual brief)
B Restricted: Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions
C: Special crew qualification required

OMA 8.1.2.5

141
Q

Which category of airfields require self briefing?

A

Category B and B restricted

142
Q

Which category of airfields require a visit as operating crew or simulator training?

A

Category C

143
Q

What does TEMPO mean in a TAF?

A

Temporary fluctuations of less than 1 hour and in total less than half the period indicated

144
Q

What is the difference between a fuel alternate and a commercial alternate?

A

Fuel alternate if diversion unlikely, commercial alternate if likelihood of diversion

OMB 5.2.8

145
Q

You’re in the hold, and have committed to your destination. When is the latest, fuel wise, you would leave the hold?

A

Using the FMGC, minimum fuel is enough to fly approach and still land with final reserve fuel (around 1T). You can use your alternate fuel if you have committed. You are now MINIMUM FUEL. Consider: fuel for another go without having to go MAYDAY.

OMA 8.3.8.2

146
Q

Are VFR flights allowed?

A

No, except when authorised by the Duty Pilot

OMA 8.3.2

147
Q

What types of radar do ATC use?

A

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR): principal radar employed by ATC for control of the aircraft

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR): to assist in aircraft identification and establish level/altitude of aircraft through the transponder

OMA 8.3.2.1.3

148
Q

Who is the Director of Flight Operations (DFO) (interim)?

A

Daniele Grassini

149
Q

What is the minimum age for children to travel alone (as an unaccompanied minor)?

A

Children under 16 cannot travel unless they are accompanied by an adult over the age of 16 who takes full responsibility for them

OMA 8.2.2.5

Command Preparation (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions