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Command Preparation > COAS Technical > Flashcards

COAS Technical Flashcards

1
Q

What are the memory items and their actions?

A 
"Windshear TOGA"
"Pull up TOGA"
"Unreliable speed"
"TCAS I have control"
"Emergency descent"
"Loss of braking"
"Stall I have control"
"Stall TOGA 15"
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2
Q

What are the aircraft protections in normal law? (5)

A

Load factor protection: +2.5G to -1.0G clean, +2.0G to +0G other config.

Pitch attitude protection: +30 to -15, +25 in CONF FULL.

Angle of attack protection: Vls, “SPEED x3”, Alpha prot, Alpha floor, Alpha Max.

High speed protection: Nose up demand exceeding Vmo.

Bank angle protection: Max 67 degrees, back pressure required above 33 degrees (40 in high speed protection, 45 in angle of attack protection). Roll rate up to 15deg/s.

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3
Q

What are the speeds along the speed tape in normal law from top to bottom? What about alternate law?

A 
Normal law:
Vmax (Vmo/Mmo)
Vls
Valpha prot
Valpha max

Alternate law:
Vmax (Vmo/Mmo)
Vls
Vsw

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4
Q

What is the easyJet fuel policy?

A

To carry the minimum amount of fuel required to efficiently and safely complete the flight. Required segments for fuel are; taxi, trip, contigency, alternate, final reserve, extra and additional.

OMA 8.1.7.1

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5
Q

Discuss alternate aerodrome planning: required minimas during planning?

A

CAT II/III available? CAT I minima required
LTS CAT I available? CAT I minima required
CAT I available? NPA minima required
NPA available? NPA MDA+200ft, RVR+1000m required
Circling available? Circling minima required

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6
Q

What is the stable approach criteria?

A

Aircraft in landing config
Aircraft on correct vertical/lateral path
Vapp +10/-5knots
AOB less than 15 degrees

(Circling by 400ft, including within 30 degrees of track)

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7
Q

What are the commanders responsibilities?

A

OMA 1.4.1 (regulatory) and 1.4.2 (company)

Examples 1.4.1: be responsible for the safety of all crew members, passengers, and cargo. Have authority to give all commands and disembark any person. Refuse inadmissible passengers. Ensure all checklists and operations are followed. FDRs and CVRs not disabled.

Examples 1.4.2: ensure flight deck door is closed and locked when engines running, ensure all reasonable steps are taken to keep passengers secure in their seats, increase safety margins when necessary, uniform standard are maintained.

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8
Q

Draw the hydraulic system

A

Green on the left, blue in the centre, yellow on the right.

Pressures at the top, PTU (across G+Y) below that, RAT on B, G and Y engine driven pumps, B electric pump, fire valves on G and Y systems.

Finally, reservoir shows normal filling level at the top and low level warning at the bottom.

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9
Q

What flight deck lights are available in EMER ELEC config?

A

Emergency cockpit lighting, dome light on FO side, captains panel lights

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10
Q

What are the enroute alternate and take off alternate distances?

A

Enroute A319 is 380nm, A320/321 is 400nm
Takeoff all variants is 320nm

Based on 60 minute flight one engine only

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11
Q

What is the APU and ENG fuel burn per hour?

A

APU 2kg/min
ENG 40kg/min

(Remember 100nm diversion is around 25 minutes, 1000kg)

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12
Q

What are the aircraft limitations for flaps, gear, tire speed, cockpit windows, and window wipers?

A 
Flaps 1 230kt (All slightly different for A321)
Flaps 1+F 215kt
Flaps 2 200kt
Flaps 3 185kt
Flaps FULL 177kt

VLE 280kt
VLO ext 250kt
VLO ret 220kt

Tire speed 195 kt
Window open 200kt
Wipers 230kt

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13
Q

How did you prepare for the COAS?

A

OMDF
This question bank!
Develop failure management strategy
Discuss situations/experiences with captains

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14
Q

How would you fly a circling approach?

A
  • 100ft above MDA push to level off
  • TRK/FPA proceed to downwind by
  • 45 degrees off for 30 seconds from wings level
  • Fly downwind, abeam threshold 3s/100ft
  • Turn base at 25deg AOB and CONF FULL
  • AP disconnected by final descent (500ft latest)
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15
Q

Draw the electrical system in normal configuration

A

Generator 1 supplies AC BUS 1, generator 2 supplies AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1 also supplies AC ESS BUS and TR 1. AC BUS 2 supplies TR 2. TRs then supply DC BUS 1 and 2 respectively. DC BUS 1 also supplies DC BAT BUS and DC ESS BUS. Batteries disconnected from DC BAT BUS when charged.

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16
Q

What systems are required for flight in RVSM? Where would you find this?

A

2 ADRs
2 DMCs
2 PFD functions (for altitude indication)
1 FCU channel (for altitude target selection and OP CLB/DES)
1 autopilot function
1 FWC (for altitude alert)
1 transponder

FCOM PRO SPO 50 RVSM

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17
Q

Which systems are required for an RNAV approach? Where would you find this?

A 
2 IRS
2 FCU channels
2 NDs (PFD/ND switch can be used)
1 PFD (on PF side)
1 FD
1 FMGC
1 MCDU
1 GPS

FCOM PRO SPO 51 PBN or
OMB 2.3.18.3.2 Approach with Final App Guidance

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18
Q

Discuss LVPs and your considerations

A
  • Talk through approach, what happens when?
  • Approach ban?
  • When would you go around?
  • Taxiing? OETA/OETD?
  • Difference between LVOs and LVPs?
  • Minimum RVRs required?
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19
Q

Discuss a dual hydraulic failure and your considerations

A

Why has the system failed? Overheat condition may disappear, loss of bleed pressure may still work at lower levels.

Can the system be re-enabled? Either through the PTU, yellow electric pump, RAT?

All dual hydraulic failures have max speed 320kts, and will involve gravity gear extension (including B+Y to protect G) and slats/flaps locked/slow. Landing distance may be affected. Handling may be affected. Alternate law only with loss of G (G+B and G+Y failure).

B+Y: normal law, G/G, slats/flaps slow

G+B: handling problem, alt law, G/G, slats jammed/flaps slow

G+Y: stopping problem, alt law, G/G, slats slow/flaps jammed

QRH has a summary to talk you through the key points!

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20
Q

What causes the red autoland light to illuminate?

A 
Loss of both APs
Excessive beam deviation (1/4 dot LOC and 1 dot GS)
Loss of GS or LOC
Discrepancy between RAs of over 15ft
FMGS detects long flare*
FMGS untimely flare*

*if installed

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21
Q

What can we do if RVR is missing?

A

We can convert reported meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV using the table in OMA 8.1.3.4 (not for take off or when RVR is less than 800m after conversion)

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22
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

When required visibility is not sufficient, we may proceed to 1000ft AGL when the MDA is below this. If it is above this, we may not proceed beyond the FAF.

If the visibility drops after this point, you may continue.

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23
Q

Discuss Flight Time Limitations

A

Use OMA Chapter 7 for rules and block/duty limits etc.

Use OPS RISK FRMS Procedures Manual for Appendix I Maximum Daily FDP Limits

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24
Q

Briefly, what is your understanding of commanders discretion?

A

Commander only chooses whether to use it, judging crew alertness after discussion, maximum is 2 hours. Use OPS RISK FRMS Procedures Manual Appendix B

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25
Q

How many types of commanders discretion are there? What are they?

A

5…

Reduce/increase rest period
Reduce/increase FDP
Extend cumulative duty limits

Also 1 commanders authority to…

Exceed FRM roster rules

26
Q

What ages are adults defined as? What about children? Infants?

A

Adults 12 and above, children 2-11 years old, infants under 2

Age 14 to fly alone

OMA 8.1.8.1.2
Ground Handling Manual 3.8.2

27
Q

What is an ABP?

A

Able Bodied Person

“Over the age of 16 years and be both physically and mentally fit”

CSPM 3.13

28
Q

Why do you want to be a captain?

A 
To contribute to the success of the company
To make best use of my potential
To set the positivity and tone for the day 
To lead
To inspire others
To take responsibility for the operation
To reward the shareholders
To maintain the excellent safety record
29
Q

What does easyJet expect of you as a captain?

A

OMA 1.4.2 Company Responsibilities

To lead the team effectively
To fly the aircraft efficiently
To use CAMP-K during operation
To maintain safety
To increase safety margins as necessary
Ensure all reasonable steps are taken to protect crew, passengers, and cargo
30
Q

How does destination minima required differ from alternate minima?

A

Destination weather must be above that required for the expected instrument approach. If it isn’t: two alternates are required (also if no weather available or performance is an issue).

Alternate weather must be “one better” than the expected approach minima (e.g. CAT 1 requires NPA minima) see OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

31
Q

How would you need to add fuel in the case of 2 alternates?

A

Fuel for one alternate will be loaded, the additional fuel required is listed in the OFP. Add this on. If your current alternate is unusable, you must add fuel for a suitable alternate.

32
Q

How many RVRs are required on an airfield for CAT 3B? What about CAT 3A?

A

QRH SI

CAT 3B: At least one RVR value to be available on the aerodrome
CAT 3A: On runways with 2 or more RVR assessment units, one many be inop

33
Q

What is the minimum RVR for takeoff? What about in terms of lights?

A

125m, or 6 consecutive lights spaced at 15m (90m, as 35m is lost under cockpit)

34
Q

What is the difference between LAND ASAP RED and AMBER?

A

RED land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made (time-critical)

AMBER consider landing at the nearest suitable airport

35
Q

Can we do single engine taxi on a cold aircraft?

A

Yes, 5 minutes idle power required before take off though

(Cold aircraft is when the aircraft has been shut down for more than 6 hours)

OMB 2.1

36
Q

What is the battery test on preliminary cockpit prep?

A

Batteries to ON if above 25.5V (ensures a charge of 50%), if not use GPU to charge them.

When both ON, check them, by selecting them both OFF with ELEC SD page open, to see that current reduces to less than 60A within 10 seconds after selecting them back ON

37
Q

When is a landing assured?

A

“If, in the judgement of the Commander, the landing could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities (e.g. CAT II/III to CAT I)”

OMB 8.3.7.1.3

38
Q

What is the clean aircraft concept?

A

OMA 8.2.4.1

“The commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the aeroplane before takeoff, except as permitted by the manufacturer.”

39
Q

What are the exceptions to the clean aircraft concept?

A

A coating of frost up to 3mm thick is permitted on wing lower services, in the area cold soaked by fuel.

Thin hoarfrost is allowed on the fuselage, radome, and engine cowl. Surface features must be distinguishable.

WIH 3.2

40
Q

When should you not tanker fuel?

A

When performance restricted if possible, or when planning to land on contaminated runway, or at the commanders discretion

41
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the flaps?

A

Green and Yellow

42
Q

Why is the maximum bank angle 67 degrees in normal law?

A

Because this is the maximum bank angle that can be reached with back pressure required whilst staying within load factor protection (+2.5G to -1.0G clean)

43
Q

Discuss Alpha Floor

A

Autothrust function which activates TOGA at some point slower than Valpha prot. It activates even if ATHR off, but not if ATHR inop. A.FLOOR displays whilst in alpha floor, TOGA LK displays when out of alpha floor. Press instinctive ATHR disconnect pb to remove TOGA LK.

44
Q

Discuss Alpha Lock

A

Alpha Lock inhibits slat retraction at low speeds or high angles of attack, below 148kt or above 8.5 degrees. A.LOCK displays on E/WD. This is removed when both alpha and speed return to normal values. This is normal at heavy weights.

45
Q

What is different in alternate law to normal law?

A
  • Less protections (only load factor protection remains, high speed stability and low speed stability available, both can be overriden)
  • Amber XXs on PFD indicate loss of pitch protection and bank protection (no bank limit and 30deg/s roll rate)
  • Max speed 320kt
  • Aircraft can be stalled
  • Direct law with AP off and Gear Down
  • Slow speed tape shows VLS and Vsw
46
Q

When do you go-around on a low vis approach?

A

QRH

  • At 1000ft if RVR not sufficient (approach ban)
  • At 1000ft if ECAM actions and new DH not complete
  • At minima if not visual
  • Any downgrade below 1000ft
  • Red autoland light below 200ft (why does this light up?)
47
Q

Talk through what happens at different heights on an autoland from 1000ft down

A 
700ft RA, data from the FMGS is frozen
400ft RA, FCU is frozen
350ft RA, LAND FMA
200ft, autoland light active
100ft, alert height
48
Q

What happens if both DC BUS 1 + 2 fail?

A
  • Only AP1 available
  • CAT 3 SINGLE only
  • Blower and extract to OVRD
  • Check baro ref
  • Landing distance considerations
  • Slats/flaps slow
  • No lavatory or APU fire detection
  • No urgency other than fuel considerations
49
Q

Draw the fuel return/recirculation system

A

Fuel from fuel tank flows to LP shutoff valve, then to LP pump. A cold flow is sent back to the wing tank via the fuel return valve. Some cold fuel is sent to the HP pump, via the fuel/oil heat exchanger and a filter. A bypass valve after the HP pump allows some fuel to be used for the IDG oil cooler.

After this, the fuel takes two paths. One path passes through the Fuel Metering Valve (FMV) then through the HP shutoff valve, the fuel flow sensor, and to the fuel nozzles. Another path goes through a wash filter and to the Servo/Fuel Heater and subsequently to the servos.

Critically, the fuel must cool the IDG via the fuel/oil heat exchanger. If not, IDG overheat, considerations of loss of generator.

The LP and HP fuel shutoff valves are controlled by the engine master switches, the FIRE PB control only the LP fuel shutoff valve.

FCOM 70-40

50
Q

Which electrical system supplies and controls the fuel pumps in each tank?

A

Number 1 pump is powered by AC BUS 1 and controlled by DC BUS 1

Number 2 pump is powered by AC BUS 2 and controlled by DC BUS 2

51
Q

What are the APU limitations for:

  • APU bleed air with 2 packs?
  • APU bleed air with 1 pack?
  • Battery only restart limit?
  • Operation and restart ceiling?
  • APU electrical power?
A
  • APU bleed air with 2 packs: 15,000ft
  • APU bleed air with 1 pack: 22,500ft
  • Battery only restart limit: 25,000ft
  • Operation and restart ceiling: 39,000ft
  • APU electrical power: 39,000ft
52
Q

What does selecting the ENG MASTER to OFF do?

A

Directly commands closing of the LP and HP fuel shut off valves for that engines fuel system. It also closes the fuel return valve and opens the bypass valve.

53
Q

What are the challenges to becoming commander? How will you overcome these?

A

System Knowledge: revise and learn
Decision Making: use all available resources
Underconfident FOs: encourage and assist
Overconfident FOs: assert authority
Challenging airports: prepare and have a plan B
Challenging weather: brief FO/CC/pax, have plan B
Fatigue: use FRMS and self-monitor

54
Q

Which documents must be carried on board in paper?

A

Certificate of Airworthiness
Airworthiness Review Certificate
Certificate of Registration

OMA 8.1.12.1

55
Q

What separation is required on takeoff and on landing?

A

Takeoff
2/3 minutes behind a heavy
3/4 minutes behind an A380
(Lower time only if departing from same place on runway)

Landing
3 miles behind a medium
4 miles behind an upper medium (757)
5 miles behind a heavy
7 miles behind an A380

OMA 8.3.9.2

56
Q

What happens if you get an RVR failure on takeoff? What about on landing?

A

Takeoff? Use 6 lights for 125m (includes cockpit design)

Landing? Check QRH for required equipment dependant on CAT of approach

57
Q

What firefighting equipment do we have onboard?

A 
Crash axe
Water bottles
Metal cannisters
Fire extinguisher (in cockpit by FO)
Smoke hood (in cockpit by FO)
Gloves
Automatic fire extinguisher in waste bin

Use CSPM 3.23 Fire and FCOM 25-20

58
Q

When do you need to consult the MEL?

A

Prior to dispatch… before the aircraft first “moves under it’s own power for the purpose of taking off”. Can also be used after this to determine aircraft capability and whether engineers are required on landing.

Quote from MEL Definitions

59
Q

When can you defer a defect?

A

All ADDs (Acceptable Deferred Defects) shall be cleared prior to the next flight whenever possible.

If this isn’t possible, then the MEL must be used, or if not included there, an engineer must sign it off to say it is not an airworthiness item.

Usually an engineer will defer a defect, but commander can do this too if no engineer is available. Inform MOC and follow their advice.

OMA 8.1.11.10

60
Q

What colour security seals are used for what? Where would you find this information?

A

At turnaround and nightstops:

  • All bars and canisters to be green sealed
  • Dry stores do not need to be sealed
  • No High Value seals are to be applied to the Boutique trolley
  • All fresh food remains unsealed

Final flight:

  • All bars and canisters to be yellow sealed
  • Boutique trolly and duty free must be sealed with yellow and high security seals
  • All dry stores trolleys must be sealed with pink pull through seals
  • All fresh food remains unsealed

So… green on turnaround and yellow at end of day!

See Cabin Standards Manual or ask crew!

Command Preparation (31 decks)

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