O&G Flashcards

1
Q

Define primary amenorrhoea

A

No periods by age 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics (such as breast development),
or by 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics

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2
Q

Define secondary amenorrhoea

A

Cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses
or
6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea

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3
Q

PCOS features

A
  • Subfertility and infertility
  • Oligomenorrhea and amenorrhoea
  • Hirsutism, acne (due to hyperandrogenism)
  • Obesity
  • Acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance)
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4
Q

What would you expect PCOS bloods to show?

A

Get insulin resistance so high insulin and high LH usually seen. There is overlap with metabolic syndrome.

Raised LH:FSH ratio is a ‘classical’ feature but is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. This is best measured days 1-3 of bleed

Prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated.

Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated - however, if markedly raised consider other causes

Sex hormone-binding globulin will be low - Insulin suppresses hepatic production of SHBG, so get higher levels of free circulating androgens.

gonadotrophins and progesterone

Consider OGTT

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5
Q

What are the Rotterdam criteria?

A

PCOS diagnostic criteria:

Need 2 out of these 3:
1) Oligo/amenorrhoea

2) Clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism - e.g. hirsutism, acne, or elevated levels of total or free testosterone

3) Polycystic ovaries on USS
defined as the presence of 12 or more follicles (measuring 2–9 mm in diameter) in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume (greater than 10 cm3).

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6
Q

PCOS management

A

1) Weight management advice

2) For Hirsutism & Acne: COCP might help (3rd gen) as these have fewer androgenic effects. Co-cyprindiol can also be used - has an anti-androgen action.
If not helping, topical eflornithine can be tried.
Spironolactone, flutamide and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision

3) For infertility: Specialist led - usually clomifene 1st line then metformin or combination

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7
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive
End-organ resistance to testosterone causes genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype.

Features
‘primary amenorrhoea’
little or no axillary and pubic hair
undescended testes causing groin swellings
breast development may occur as a result of the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

Diagnosis
46XY genotype testing

Management
counselling - raise the child as female
bilateral orchidectomy (increased risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes)
oestrogen therapy

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8
Q

Turners syndrome:

A

45,XO or 45,X.

Features:
Short stature
widely spaced nipples
webbed neck
bicuspid aortic valve
coarctation of the aorta
primary amenorrhoea
high-arched palate
gonadotrophin levels will be elevated
horseshoe kidney: the most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome

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9
Q

Define premature ovarian failure
How would you investigate?

A

cessation of menses for 1 year before the age of 40
High FSH (over 20) with no periods in a woman under 40 = ovarian failure

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10
Q

What is Sheehan syndrome?

A

Sheehan syndrome describes hypopituitarism caused by ischemic necrosis due to blood loss and hypovolaemic shock.

Features may include:
agalactorrhoea
amenorrhoea
symptoms of hypothyroidism
symptoms of hypoadrenalism

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11
Q

What is urge incontinence

A
  • AKA Overactive bladder.

-Is due to detrusor overactivity

-The urge to urinate is quickly followed by uncontrollable leakage ranging from a few drops to complete bladder emptying

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12
Q

What is stress incontinence

A

Due to e.g. coughing/sneezing.

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13
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

Incontinence due to bladder outlet obstruction, e.g. due to prostate enlargement

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14
Q

How do you investigate incontinence

A
  • Bladder diary (min 3 days)
  • Vaginal examination - ? prolapse/ ‘Kegel’ exercises
  • urine dipstick and culture
  • urodynamic studies
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15
Q

Management of urge incontinence

A
  • Bladder retraining - min 6 weeks.
  • Medications: antimuscarinics are first-line (oxybutynin, tolterodine or darifenacin).

Immediate release oxybutynin should, be avoided in frail older women.

  • Mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) may be useful if there is concern about anticholinergic side-effects in frail elderly patients
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16
Q

Management of stress incontinence

A

Pelvic floor exercises.

Surgical options: e.g. retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures

Duloxetine (SNRI) may be offered if they decline surgery.

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17
Q

How long is VZV immunoglobulins effective for? ie what time frame does it need to be given in?

A

10 days.
If continuous exposures, this is defined as 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the index case.

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18
Q

What is shingles?

A

Shingles is caused by the reactivation of dormant VZV in dorsal root ganglion.

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19
Q

VZV

1)Risks to mum?

2)Risks to foetus

3) Risk to baby

A

1) - Maternal pneumonitis

2) - Fetal varicella syndrome (if below 20 weeks) - get things such skin scarring, microphthalmia, underdeveloped limbs, microcephaly and learning disabilities

3) Shingles particularly if 3rd trimester.
Severe neonatal varicella if mum develops rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

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20
Q

How to manage chicken pox exposure in pregnancy?

A

If under 20 weeks and mum is not immune then VZIG. If in doubt do urgent blood test for antibodies.

If over 20 weeks can give VZIG OR antivirals. These have to be given 7-14 days after exposure ( more effective).

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21
Q

How to manage actual chicken pox in pregnancy

A

Ask a specialist.

Likely to say if over 20 weeks aciclovir if within 24 hours from rash onset.

If under 20 weeks aciclovir ‘with caution’

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22
Q

What is HELLP syndrome

A

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

Severe form of pre-eclampsia.

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23
Q

Pre-eclampsia definition

A

-New-onset blood pressure ≥ 140/90 after 20 weeks of pregnancy, AND 1 or more of:
-Proteinuria
-Other organ involvement e.g. renal insufficiency (creatinine ≥ 90 umol/L), liver, neurological, haematological, uteroplacental dysfunction

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24
Q

Moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A

-First pregnancy
-Age 40 years or older
-pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
-BMI of 35 or more at first visit
- family history of pre-eclampsia
-multiple pregnancy

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25
Q

High risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A
  • hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
  • CKD
  • autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome
  • type 1 or type 2 diabetes
  • chronic hypertension
26
Q

When would you treat people with risk factors for hypertensive disorders in pregnancy and what with

A

If 1 or more high risk
If 2 or more moderate risk
Aspirin75-150mg from week 12 of pregnancy

27
Q

How long before surgery do you need to stop HRT/ COCP?

A

4 weeks
(VTE risk)

28
Q

What would low gonadotropins and high gonadotropins indicate in relation to amenorrhoea?
What would happen in Turners?

A

low levels = hypothalamic cause

raised levels = ovarian problem (e.g. Premature ovarian failure)

Raised if gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome)

29
Q

A rhesus -ve management

A

Anti D at 28 and 34 weeks

30
Q

4Ts PPH

A

Tone
Trauma
Thrombin
Tissue

31
Q

What do tocolytics do
Examples

A

Suppress uterine contractions
Nifedipine indometjacin

32
Q

PPH management

OECall mum

A
  1. Basics from A->E (warm IVI)
  2. Palpate fundus of uterus
  3. IV oxytocin
  4. Ergometrine (slow IV/IM, C/I if htn)
  5. Carboprost IM (not if asthmatic)
    misoprost S/L
  6. Balloon tamponade
33
Q

What is secondary PPH

A

Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours - 6 weeks. It is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis.

34
Q

Contraindications to HRT

A

Current or past breast cancer
Any oestrogen-sensitive cancer
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Untreated endometrial hyperplasia

35
Q

How do you decrease risk of endometrial ca from HRT

A

Give combined oral or transdermal HRT so that the oestrogen is not left unopposed.

Only need to do this if the woman has a uterus

36
Q

Risk of HRT

A

Increased risk of:
- Breast & endometrial Ca
- stroke
- VTE but only with oral. Topical is ok

37
Q

Non-HRT menopause management options

A

Vasomotor sx: fluoxetine, citalopram or venlafaxine
Self help/CBT
lubricants
Vaginal oestrogen

38
Q

Main indications for HTR

A

Vasomotor sx e.g. hot flushes, headaches, insomnia.

Premature menopause - menopause before 40 - (risk of osteoporosis without HRT).

39
Q

What type of HRT can peri and postmenopausal women have?

A

Monthly - oestrogen daily, progestogen at the end of the cycle for 10–14 days.

OR

3 monthly Oestrogen is taken daily and progestogen is given for 14 days every 13 weeks

40
Q

What type of HRT do postmenopausal women need?

A

continuous combined.
This can be using Mirena for progesterone

41
Q

Ectopic pregnancy Investigation

A

Bhcg, TVUS

42
Q

When can you expectantly manage an ectopic?
What does this mean

A

monitor for 48h and monitor HCG. if rises needs intervention
Can do:
If less than 35mm
No fetal heart beat
hCG <1,000IU/L
Asymptomatic

43
Q

When can you medically manage an ectopic?
How?

A

If less than 35mm
No fetal heart beat
HCG over 1500
No significant pain

Give methotrexate. Pt must attend f/u

44
Q

When would you surgically manage an ectopic?
How?

A

If over 35mm
with Fetal heart beat
May have ruptured
HCG over 5000

Salpingectomy )remove a tube)= first-line for women with no other risk factors for infertility

Salpingotomy (cut a hole in the tube) if risk factors for infertility such as contralateral tube damage.

around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment (methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy)

45
Q

Induction of labour steps

A
  1. Stretch and sweep
  2. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
    also known as dinoprostone
  3. Oral prostaglandin E1
    also known as misoprostol
  4. Maternal oxytocin infusion
  5. Amniotomy (‘breaking of waters’)
  6. Cervical ripening balloon
    passed through the endocervical canal and gently inflated to dilate the cervix
46
Q

Bishop score interpretation.

What scores for what methods of IOL?

A

< 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction

≥ 8 there is a high chance of spontaneous labour, or response to interventions made to induce labour

Bishop less than 6or 6: Vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol

Bishop >6 amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

47
Q

Which contraception can decrease bone mineral density?

A

Depo

48
Q

Most common type of ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular

49
Q

Types of benign tumours

A

Germ cell: Dermoid AKA mature cystic teratomas - most common benign ovarian tumour in woman under 30

Epithelial:
- Serous cystadenoma - most common benign epithelial tumour
- Mucinous cyst adenoma
2nd most common, big, if ruptures may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

Stromal: Fibroma - associated with Meigs (this, asclites and plural effusion).

50
Q

Most common type of ovarian ca

A

Around 90% are epithelial

Specifically, 70-80% are serous carcinomas

51
Q

Indications for external cephalic version

A

Breech at 36 weeks in nullip

Breech at 37 weeks in multip

52
Q

What is the combined test and when is this done?

A

Combined = USS & Blood test
done between 10-14 weeks
Assesses for Downs syndrome, Edwatds and Pataus.

53
Q

What results would suggest Downs syndrome?

A

Thicker nuchal translucency,
High HCG
Low ↓ PAPP-A

54
Q

When would you do quadruple test and what is this?

A

Between 14-20 weeks. Done if you book later than 14 weeks or if a combined test couldn’t get a nuchal translucency.

Only tests for Downs syndrome, not as accurate as combined.

Alpha-fetoprotein - Low
Unconjugated oestriol - Low
HCG - High
Inhibin A - High

55
Q

What happens if combined/quadruple test indicates high risk?

A

NIPT or CVS offered

56
Q

Biggest risk factor for cervical ca

A

many sexual partners
Smoking also RF

57
Q

Risk factors for ovarian ca

A

Things that give you many ovulations e.g. early menarche, late menopause
BRACA 2

58
Q

How long of you need contraception for after a medical management of ectopic.

A

3-6 months - methotrexate = teratogenic.

59
Q

How to treat Fibroids?

A

Pill/IUS
GnRH agonists can decrease size but usually short term option as menopausal SEs
Surgery/uterine artery embolisation/chop it out

60
Q

When do people need 5mg folate?

A

Blood disorders
Obese
NTD hx
Epilepsy meds
Diabetes

61
Q

When to refer for fertility

A

Usually after a year of trying but if woman over 36 consider earlier

62
Q
A