NSTM Chapter 541, Ship Fuel and Fuel Systems Flashcards

1
Q

F-76 was previously known as ___

A

DFM

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2
Q

The only aviation jet fuel authorized to be carried by fleet oilers and used aboard navy ships

A

JP-5

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3
Q

Handles ship fuel from the time it is received aboard the ship until it is consumed by propulsion and auxiliary equipment

A

Fuel system

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4
Q

Provides fuel to propulsion equipment such as boilers, diesel engines, and gas turbines, as well as to auxiliary equipment

A

Service system

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5
Q

Ships with more than one propulsion space usually have a ___ fuel system

A

Separate

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6
Q

Usually at least ___ service pump and ___ service tanks serve each propulsion service system

A

2

2

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7
Q

How many service tanks are used at one time?

A

One

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8
Q

Takes suction from any storage tank or contaminated oil settling tank and delivers fuel, usually through filtration equipment, to a service tank

A

Fuel transfer pump

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9
Q

Draws contaminated liquid from the tank bottoms and delivers it to a COST

A

Stripping pump

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10
Q

COST

A

Contaminated Oil Settling Tank

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11
Q

___ ships with ____ have no separate stripping systems

A

Gas turbine

Seawater-compensated storage tanks

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12
Q

Most significant hazards of fuel

A

Flammability
Toxicity
Pressure

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13
Q

Enhance ship’s stability and trim by ___

A

Keeping fuel properly distributed among storage tanks
Minimizing the number of partially fill uncompensated tanks, to reduce free surface
Ballasting storage tanks when necessary

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14
Q

Fuel system operations that affect stability include ___

A

Fueling, transferring, ballasting, and deballasting

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15
Q

Onboard provisions for cleaning fuel

A
Storage tank stripping
Transfer system filtration
Service tank stripping
Service tank recirculation
Service system filtration
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16
Q

Service system filtration. Steam ships typically use a ___; diesel engine ships use ___; and gas turbine ships use ____

A

Strainer
Filter attached to the engine
Filter/separator

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17
Q

Remove free water as well as fine particles

A

Filter/separator

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18
Q

Many gas turbine ships have a ___ upstream of the filter/separator

A

Pre-filter

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19
Q

Transferring fuel from one underway ship to another underway ship

A

Fueling at sea

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20
Q

Lowest temperature at which the fuel gives off enough vapor to form a mixture with the air that is capable of being ignited by any ignition source

A

Flashpoint

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21
Q

___ are hazards of fuel below the flashpoint

A

Wicking and mist formation

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22
Q

Lowest temperature at which the fuel will ignite in air without a spark or flame

A

Autoignition temperature

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23
Q

Autoignition temperature is also called ___

A

Autogenous ignition temperature

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24
Q

AIT

A

Autoignition Temperature

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25
Q

AITs as low as ___ have been measured for F-76 and JP-5

A

450F (232C)

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26
Q

Surfaces hotter than ___ generally are required to be insulated to protect personnel

A

125F (52C)

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27
Q

Every effort shall be made to prevent fuel from dripping or spraying onto any hot surface of ___ or higher

A

400F (204C)

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28
Q

When fuel is drawn onto an absorbent solid material that can be ignited locally

A

Wicking

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29
Q

Fuel soaked clothing can be a hazard for ___

A

Days

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30
Q

How shipboard fuel fires start

A

Fuel leaks
Fuel spray
Fuel accumulation

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31
Q

Any unintended release of fuel

A

Fuel leak

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32
Q

Most dangerous kind of fuel leak

A

Fuel spray

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33
Q

How to prevent shipboard fuel fires

A

Separation

Good maintenance

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34
Q

Basic principle of preventing shipboard fuel fires

A

Keep fuel and ignition sources away from each other

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35
Q

When looking for fuel sprays, pay particular attention to ___

A

Piping and joints near hot surfaces

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36
Q

Do not paint nonferrous and corrosion resistant steel piping and valves in ____ areas

A

Nonbilge

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37
Q

Inspections of fuel tanks for leakage should include ___

A

Manhole covers and external sounding tubes

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38
Q

Soft patches on fuel piping shall be reported by ___

A

Departure From Specifications (DFS) request

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39
Q

When assembling fuel system joints, always use ___

A

New gaskets

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40
Q

The presence of fuels in the bilge can be detected by ___

A

Spreading a thin coat of water indicating paste on one side of a metal rod, and fuel indicating paste on the other side

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41
Q

Pump oily waste from bilges using the ___

A

Oily waste transfer system

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42
Q

Do not light off boilers, diesel engines, or gas turbines when oily waste is ___

A

In the bilges or on nearby deck plates

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43
Q

When boilers are secured and will not be lit off within ___, drain fuel from the torch pots

A

24 hours

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44
Q

The lighting-off torch pot shall be ___ in front of each boiler

A

Welded or bolted to a structural member of the deckplating

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45
Q

Fuel on deck place is a ___ hazard

A

Fire and slipping

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46
Q

Detect flammable gases and vapors

A

Combustible gas indicators

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47
Q

Fuel tanks are considered ___

A

IDLH

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48
Q

No person shall enter a tank known or suspected to contain fuel or fuel vapors at any time without first having received permission to enter such a tank from the ___

A

CO

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49
Q

Before granting permission to enter a tank that may contain fuel or fuel vapors, the CO shall ___

A

Ensure safety precautions and instructions in NSTM Chapter 074, Volume 3 are carried out and that personnel supervising the entry are familiar with these instructions and precautions

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50
Q

Make no repairs involving hot work near fuel tanks and piping without a ___

A

Hot work permit

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51
Q

Avoid using ___ lights near fuel tanks or during repairs in engineering spaces that have not been declared gas free

A

Portable electric

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52
Q

When portable electric lights must be used near fuel tanks or during repairs in engineering spaces that have not been declared gas free, fit them with ___

A

Explosion proof enclosures and heavy wire guards, and test them for complete insulation

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53
Q

Required for sounding tubes that terminate in hazardous areas

A

Sounding tube floating-ball check valves

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54
Q

Prevents fuel from spilling from the sounding tube if the tank is overfilled while the sounding tube is open

A

Sounding tube floating-ball check valves

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55
Q

Required for flanged connections in locations identified in NSTM Chapter 505

A

Flange spray shields

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56
Q

Prevent fires caused by poor joint assembly, gasket failure, or improper torquing of fasteners

A

Flange spray shields

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57
Q

Capture any fuel spray from the joint and cause it to drip or dribble to a safe location instead of spraying onto nearby hot surfaces

A

Flange spray shields

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58
Q

Emergency cutout valves are required for ___

A

Casualty control

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59
Q

Provide various ways to quickly shut off the fuel flow in the service system, either locally or outside the space

A

Emergency cutout valves

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60
Q

Required for motor-driven fuel service pumps

A

Service pump remote shutdown pushbuttons

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61
Q

Service pump remote shutdown pushbuttons are located ___

A

Outside the space for casualty control

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62
Q

Required for all service system strainer, filter/separator, and pre-filter covers

A

Integral cover fuel spray deflectors

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63
Q

Direct any fuel that leaks past the cover gasket or o-ring downward, where it is less likely to strike a hot surface

A

Integral cover fuel spray deflectors

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64
Q

All sampling and vent connections inside the ship shall discharge ___

A

Downward into a funnel

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65
Q

Sampling and vent connection funnels shall direct the fuel to ___

A

Oily water drain collecting system

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66
Q

__ shall be provided over any hot surfaces under the sampling and vent connection funnels

A

Spray shields

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67
Q

Provided at all sampling connections

A

Sampling connection cutout valves

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68
Q

Boiler front connections have been provided with ___

A

Two cutout valves in series

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69
Q

Fuel sampling connections shall not have ___

A

End caps

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70
Q

Why should fuel sampling connections not have end caps?

A

Pressure can build under the end cap if the sample valve leaks, causing a momentary fuel spray when the cap is removed

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71
Q

___ shall replace old-style rubber lined butterfly valves in fuel systems whenever possible

A

High-performance butterfly valves

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72
Q

Provided in air escapes of fuel tanks to retard flashback if the system is accidentally exposed to an ignition source

A

Vent/flash screens

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73
Q

____ has replaced the Firesafe F/O Strainer (FSFOS) for purposes of simplicity

A

Hellan Simplex Strainer

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74
Q

___ Strainer is equipped with a hand wheel that allows the operator to turn the integral basket element against a stationary scraper blade in order to remove accumulated sediment on the exterior of the strainer basket element. The sediment is then flushed to a drain line

A

Hellan Simplex

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75
Q

Hold fuel as it is loaded onto the ship, before it is cleaned for use by propulsion and auxiliary equipment

A

Fuel storage tanks

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76
Q

The three kinds of fuel storage tanks differ in the way ___

A

Seawater ballasting is related to fuel storage and ship stability

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77
Q

Three kinds of fuel storage tanks

A

Separate fuel tanks and ballast tanks
Fuel or ballast tanks
Seawater-compensated fuel tanks

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78
Q

Incorrect handling of the fuel also affects operating fuel economy if storage distribution causes ___

A

Drag in excess of intended trim

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79
Q

__ is responsible for the ship’s loading and ballasting

A

Damage Control Officer

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80
Q

Fuel storage and ballasting methods apply only to fuel ___, never introduce seawater into fuel ___

A

Storage tanks

Service tanks

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81
Q

Rated capacity of a fuel storage tank that is not sea-water compensated is ___

A

95% of its total capacity

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82
Q

The remaining 5% in a fuel storage tank rated capacity is reserved to ___

A

Allow the fuel to expand

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83
Q

Do not fill uncompensated fuel tanks, not designated as an overflow tank, to more than ___ of capacity in port or at sea

A

95%

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84
Q

Do not fill uncompensated overflow tanks above ___ of capacity at sea, or ___ in port

A

95%

80%

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85
Q

In this system fuel storage tanks and seawater ballast tanks are completely separate

A

Separate fuel tanks and ballast tanks

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86
Q

Ballast seawater form separate ballast tanks that never contain fuel can be discharged within ___ because the ballast seawater ___

A

Prohibited zones

Contains no fuel

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87
Q

Primarily separate fuel and ballast system, but if the fuel load falls below a certain point and additional ballast is required, designated fuel tanks may be ballasted with seawater

A

Modified clean ballast system

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88
Q

This system has no separate seawater ballast tanks

A

Fuel or ballast tanks

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89
Q

In a fuel or ballast tank system, the ballast seawater is introduced by the ___ through separate tailpipes and is removed by the ___

A

Firemain

Main drain eductors and the stripping pumps

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90
Q

Never ballast a fuel tank until ___

A

It is completely empty of fuel

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91
Q

Ballast seawater in a fuel tank is considered ___

A

Oily waste

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92
Q

To avoid drawing silt or other contaminants into the tank, do not utilize ___ as ballast seawater in any fuel tank

A

Harbor water

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93
Q

Ballasted fuel tanks whose tops are above the transfer system manifold have a ____ between the tank bulkhead isolation valve and the manifold

A

Pipeline sample connection

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94
Q

If seawater is detected in the fuel transfer system, take samples from the sample connections at all ballasted tanks. If any sample contains seawater, then ____

A

The isolation valve at that tank is probably leaking

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95
Q

____ fuel storage tanks are always completely full of liquid

A

Seawater-compensated

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96
Q

Ballast seawater enters tanks as fuel is removed, and is displaced overboard as fuel is added

A

Seawater compensated fuel storage tanks

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97
Q

The fuel and the seawater tend to remain separate because of ___

A

Differing specific gravities

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98
Q

The types of fuels used onboard naval vessels are ___ than seawater

A

Lighter

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99
Q

Storage tanks are connected in ___

A

Banks

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100
Q

In an tank bank, the transfer system is connected to the top of the ___

A

First tank

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101
Q

The first tank in the bank is called the ___

A

Receiving tank

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102
Q

The ___ of each tank in the bank is connected to the ___ of the next tank through a ____

A

Bottom
Top
Sluice pipe

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103
Q

The bottom of the last tank in the bank is connected to the top of the ____

A

Expansion tank

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104
Q

The overflow piping runs from the bottom of the ____ up to ___

A

Expansion tank

Overboard discharge connection and an overflow

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105
Q

The ____ in the overflow piping keeps the liquid in the storage tanks under pressure

A

Seawater standing

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106
Q

On ships with stripping tanks, personnel shall check ____ prior to filling

A

Stripping tank sight glass

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107
Q

The transfer system draws fuel from ___

A

The top of the receiving tank

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108
Q

___ is discharged when fuel is added to a tank bank

A

Seawater

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109
Q

Butterfly valves with holes drilled through the disc. In the closed position these valves limit the flow of fuel into each tank to approximately 400 gal/min

A

Inport refueling valves

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110
Q

Do not use ___ to blow seawater from compensated tanks

A

Air pressure

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111
Q

In a tank bank, pump out the ___ first, because it is always ____

A

Expansion tank

Higher than the other tanks

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112
Q

Fill the last fuel tank in a compensated tank bank to only ___ when in port and ___ when at sea

A

80%

95%

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113
Q

Tanks that overflow directly overboard shall have __

A

High level alarms

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114
Q

Avoid refueling or transferring fuel at ___

A

Night

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115
Q

Purifier pumps have a ___ flow capacity than transfer pumps

A

Lower

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116
Q

Use the ___ pump for transfer between storage tanks and for defueling

A

Transfer

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117
Q

Use the ____ pump for transfer from a storage tank to a service tank

A

Purifier

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118
Q

Smaller ships have a deck connection designed for a __ hose, capable of passing ____

A

2-1/2 inch

200 to 250 gpm

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119
Q

To minimize system resistance and thus maximize filling rate, align the transfer system to ___

A

Fill as many tanks at once as possible

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120
Q

As each tank approaches full ___

A

Throttle the flow into the tank

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121
Q

___ each tank before fueling

A

Check the level

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122
Q

Check tanks by ____ rather than with ___

A

Sounding

TLIs

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123
Q

When the tank is first being filled, take soundings every ___

A

3 or 4 minutes

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124
Q

After the tank reaches ____, take soundings continuously until full

A

3/4 full

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125
Q

____ after each sounding to minimize the fuel vapors entering the space and to prevent a fuel spill if the tank overflows

A

Replace the sounding tube cap

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126
Q

Reasons to consolidate fuel

A

Move weight for list and trim
Reduce free surface
Speed up fueling

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127
Q

On ships with seawater-compensated tanks, remove the fuel ___

A

Evenly

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128
Q

Do what to the tanks before transferring fuel

A

Sample and strip

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129
Q

Some transfers between uncompensated tanks can be accomplished by gravity if ___

A

The liquid level of the supply tank is higher than the liquid level of the receiving tank

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130
Q

If the ship has multiple transfer pumps, use the pump ___

A

Closest to the supply tank to minimize suction requirements

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131
Q

Before starting the transfer pump, perform ___

A

System operational integrity test

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132
Q

Steam ships have strainers in their ___

A

Service tank fill lines

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133
Q

Ships with purifiers have ____ upstream of the purifiers to reduce the viscosity of F-76 for optimum purifier operation and to prevent fuel from ___

A

Fuel heaters

Waxing

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134
Q

Because of JP-5’s overall characteristically lower viscosity and freeze point (cloud point for F-76) at any given temperature compared to F-76, it is not necessary to ___ JP-5

A

Heat

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135
Q

If heating is not required, route the fuel through a ____

A

Heater bypass valve

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136
Q

Heater installations include ___

A

High-temperature alarms and relief valves

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137
Q

Fill service tanks as soon as ___

A

Suction has been switched to the standby service tank

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138
Q

Do not fill a service tank that is ___

A

Being used to supply fuel to the service system

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139
Q

Conduct all transfer operations according to the ship’s ___

A

EOSS procedures

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140
Q

This test provides a quick check on system alignment, to verify that fuel is not being delivered to an unintended destination

A

System preoperational integrity test

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141
Q

Run this test during the startup of transfer operations for ships with strainers or filters

A

System preoperational integrity test

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142
Q

Do not accomplish the system preoperation integrity test with alignments that pass fuel through ____, because ____

A

Purifiers

The high back pressure will impede the proper fuel flow through the purifier

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143
Q

Primary purpose of the system preoperational integrity test

A

Detect misalignments

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144
Q

The system is correctly aligned if the pressure ___

A

Approaches its rated maximum

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145
Q

If the pump discharge pressure never approaches its rated maximum, even with the receiving tank inlet valve closed, then three possibilities are ___

A

Unintended open valve
Pump relief valve that has failed in the open position
Major system leak

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146
Q

If system flow cannot be established within ___ after the pump is started, stop the pump

A

1 minute

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147
Q

If the strainer was cleaned since the last time is was pressurized, the strainer shall be ___ before the system preoperational integrity test is completed

A

Pressure tested for leaks

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148
Q

Stop the pump when the service tank is ___ full

A

95%

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149
Q

Log the differential pressure readings across the filter/separator in the ___

A

Fuel transfer log

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150
Q

The transfer system is aligned to recirculate fuel back to the suction side of the transfer/purifier pump via a three-way inlet valve to allow the purifier and heater to ___

A

Reach steady-state operation

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151
Q

If the purifier fails to start, allow it to ___ before trying to restart it

A

Coast to a complete stop

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152
Q

To avoid overheating, ___ before power is applied or steam is admitted to the heater

A

Fuel must be flowing through the heater

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153
Q

The bowl of the self-cleaning purifier is periodically cleaned by a ___

A

Shoot cycle

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154
Q

In a shoot cycle, the diverter valve upstream of the purifer redirects fuel flow ____ instead of into the purifier, and the purifier ____

A

Back to the pump suction

Discharges solid contaminants from the bowl

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155
Q

All fuel vents and drains are directed to the ___

A

Oily water drain collecting system

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156
Q

Vents often terminate at ___

A

Drip pans

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157
Q

Provides fuel from the service tanks to the ship’s propulsion and other equipment

A

Fuel service system

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158
Q

EOSS

A

Engineering Operational Sequencing System

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159
Q

Fueling operations shall always be conducted according to the ___

A

Ship’s EOSS procedures

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160
Q

Piping arrangements for returning unneeded fuel to the service tanks depends on whether ___

A

Pumps are motor driven or turbine driven

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161
Q

If the service pumps are driven by motors, a ___ controls the amount of fuel returned to the service tank on suction

A

Pressure regulating valve

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162
Q

The pressure regulating valve in a motor driven service pump is called ___

A

Unloading valve

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163
Q

Maintains a constant pressure downstream of the pump

A

Unloading valve

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164
Q

Fuel must be returned to the service tank because motor-driven service pumps move a ___

A

Constant flow

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165
Q

If the service pumps are turbine-driven, the ___ adjusts pump speed to maintain a constant fuel discharge pressure

A

Turbine constant-pressure governor

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166
Q

Use the online tank until it is ___ full, then put the standby tank online

A

50%

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167
Q

Before putting a service tank online

A

Test the fuel

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168
Q

When the service tank in use is changed, fill the new standby tank ___

A

As soon as possible

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169
Q

Stops fuel flow into the system from the service tank

A

Service tank suction cutout valves

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170
Q

Surest way to stop a leak anywhere in the system

A

Close or trip the service tank suction emergency cut out valve

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171
Q

Steam ship service pumps are driven by either __

A

Steam turbines or electric motors

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172
Q

How many pumps are provided in each space on a steam ship?

A

2

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173
Q

Service pump turbine governors adjust steam flow to maintain a ___

A

Constant fuel pressure downstream of the pump

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174
Q

If the main service pumps are turbine driven, an ___ is usually included

A

Electric inport service pump of lower flow capacity

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175
Q

___ is intended to supply fuel to a boiler while inport or for lighting off the first boiler in a space

A

Inport pump

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176
Q

___ are used to clean the fuel in steam ship service systems

A

Simplex or duplex filters

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177
Q

___ configuration allows for switching flow from a dirty basket to a clean basket, without interrupting the flow of fuel to the boiler

A

Duplex

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178
Q

Utilize a simplistic design using a hand wheel to rotate the basket element against a stationary scraper blade to remove accumulated sediment contaminants

A

Simplex strainer

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179
Q

Discharge pressures from motor driven service pumps are controlled by the ___

A

Unloading valve

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180
Q

Discharge pressures from turbine driven service pumps are controlled by the ____

A

Turbine constant pressure governor

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181
Q

The turbine constant pressure governor senses ___

A

Pressure in the fuel line downstream of the pump

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182
Q

Service pump discharge pressures are typically ___

A

350 lb/1in² to 430 lb/in²

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183
Q

Pressure in the boiler manifold is controlled by the ___

A

Boiler fuel control valve

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184
Q

Pressure in the boiler fuel manifold is always ___ to the service pump discharge pressure

A

Less than or equal

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185
Q

Many diesel engine return lines include coolers that cool the fuel to approximately ___

A

110F (43C)

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186
Q

Excessively warm fuel will ___

A

Not cool the injectors effectively and could begin vaporizing in the engine fuel system before reaching the injectors

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187
Q

Engines with no coolers in the return lines have ___

A

Sufficiently long lines and large service tanks to prevent fuel from becoming too warm

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188
Q

If an engine has to be serviced while other engines in the space are operating, ___

A

Isolate the fuel lines to and from the engine being maintained

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189
Q

Service tanks are located so that fuel pump inlets are ___

A

Flooded when the tanks are full

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190
Q

If the diesel engine is for an emergency generator, the engine systems should be aligned for ___

A

Automatic starting

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191
Q

In gas turbine ship service systems, the pumps act as ____

A

Booster pumps

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192
Q

Gas turbines have their own attached fuel pumps that ___

A

Increase the fuel pressure to that needed for the combustors

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193
Q

Service pump discharge pressures in a gas turbine are typically ___

A

55 psig

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194
Q

Overall coordination and control for gas turbines emanates from the ___

A

Central control station

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195
Q

Start the service pump at ___

A

Slow speed

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196
Q

The ___ fills the service tanks

A

Transfer system

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197
Q

The service tanks are considered part of the ___ system

A

Service

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198
Q

In an emergency, service pumps on steam and gas turbine ships can take suction directly from the ___, usually through the ___

A

Storage tanks

Transfer system main

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199
Q

The connection to the transfer system for drawing fuel directly from storage tanks is usually ___

A

Locked closed

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200
Q

Removes water and sediment from the bottoms of fuel tanks

A

Fuel stripping system

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201
Q

Contaminated fuel in tanks or service system piping is usually stripped to the ____

A

Contaminated oil settling tank

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202
Q

Lowest tailpipes in a tank

A

Stripping tailpipes

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203
Q

Stripping tailpipes are ___ from the lowest point in the tank

A

3/4”

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204
Q

In configurations where two-speed dual purpose, transfer/stripping pumps are used, a ____ is installed on the tank bottom directly beneath the tailpipe terminus

A

Doubler plate

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205
Q

Two reasons to pump contaminated fuel to the COST

A

Avoiding pollution

Reclaiming fuel

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206
Q

Leave contaminated fuel in the COST for ___

A

As long as possible

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207
Q

Keep bilge fluid or any other fluid that may contain ____ other than the ship’s fuel from entering the COST

A

Hydrocarbons

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208
Q

___ storage tanks do not a low-point stripping tailpipes

A

Seawater-compensated

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209
Q

The pressure boundary of an operating fuel system shall not be broken except for ___

A

Extraordinary situations

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210
Q

The ___ permission is usually required for single-valve isolation of a pressurized fuel system

A

COs

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211
Q

If the pressure boundary of the system has been opened and then closed, a ___ is often required on the affected portion of the system

A

Hydrostatic test

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212
Q

Verifies that the system is not leaking and is capable of holding and maintaining pressure

A

Hydrostatic test

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213
Q

When conducting a hydrostatic test on a fuel system, be prepared to ___

A

Fight a bravo fire

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214
Q

Tightness test option for a reduced energy system is for systems operating at ___

A

200 psig or less and 200*F or less

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215
Q

If possible, perform the operational pressure test when the space is at ___

A

Cold iron

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216
Q

___ piping systems may require more flushing than stainless or copper-nickel systems

A

Carbon steel

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217
Q

___ will be used as the flushing fluid

A

F-76 or JP-5

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218
Q

If system pumps are to be used to circulate the flushing fluid, install __ to protect the pumps

A

Temporary suction strainers

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219
Q

During flushing, periodically ___ the system piping, especially near welded joints, by ___

A

Vibrate

Striking it with a wooden mallet or equivalent means

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220
Q

Flush the system for a minimum of ___ or until ___

A

24 hours

The muslin or nylon bags in the strainers show no appreciable contamination for two consecutive hours

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221
Q

When flushing is completed, transfer the flushing fluid to ___ or ___

A

COST

Empty storage tank

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222
Q

The flushing fluid shall discharge into the tank through a strainer having ___ openings

A

4-mil

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223
Q

Flushing is generally not required for ____

A

Stripping systems

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224
Q

Fuel systems take suction from tanks and discharge into tanks through ___

A

Tailpipes

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225
Q

Fuel tanks are coated to ___

A

Prevent corrosion

226
Q

Provides an escape path for fuel so the tank does not rupture if it is overfilled

A

Overflow pipe

227
Q

Thanks that overflow directly overboard have ____

A

High-level alarms

228
Q

Overflow tanks have overflow pipes that ___

A

Discharge overboard

229
Q

When overflow pipes from individual tanks are combined, a ___ is installed in the line from each tank

A

Check valve

230
Q

Overflow pipes that discharge overboard have check valves to prevent ___

A

Water from entering the tanks through the overflow line

231
Q

This tank overflow configuration contains no valves, is calculated to a specific pipe size, and routed to a height such that the static pressure head will force fuel into all fuel tanks of a particular group before overflowing

A

Standpipe

232
Q

Run from the topmost points of fuel tanks to the weather decks

A

Vent pipes

233
Q

Allow air to exit and enter as non-compensated tanks are filled and emptied, and as fuel expands and contracts with temperature changes

A

Vent pipes

234
Q

The vent/flash screen in vent pipes have an inner ___ and an outer wire screen of either ___ or ___ mesh

A

40-mesh wire screen
1/4”
1/2”

235
Q

___ vent/air escape screens after painting has been done near the vent/air escape terminal

A

Inspect

236
Q

Compensated tanks have valve vent connections on top of each tank, for the purpose of ___

A

Releasing trapped air while tanks are filling with water following tank cleaning

237
Q

Used for determining fuel or water level and for taking fuel samples

A

Sounding tubes

238
Q

Sounding tubes are not installed in ___ tanks because the tanks are ____

A

Compensated

Under pressure

239
Q

___ inch holes are drilled through fuel tank sounding tubes approximately every ___ along the length, to ensure ___

A

1/2”
6”
Samples taken from the sounding tube are representative of the fuel in the tank

240
Q

Sounding tubes are closed by ___

A

A cap that screws onto the top of the tube

241
Q

___ are installed at the terminals of sounding tubes that terminate below the full-load water line and serve tanks having at least one boundary exposed to the sea

A

Gate valves

242
Q

Floating ball check valves are required in F-76, JP-5, and oily waste sounding tubes that terminate in the following locations ___

A
  • Main and aux machinery spaces
  • Spaces containing diesel-driven or turbine driven generators or pumps, oil-fired boilers, or incinerators
  • Spaces dedicated to electrical or electronic equipment
  • Spaces with carpeted decks
243
Q

Tanks do not require sounding tube floating ball check valves if the tank is filled only through a ___ and the highest point of the tank overflow is ___

A

Funnel drain

Below the top of the sounding tube

244
Q

Floating ball check valves are not required in living spaces or passageways without ___

A

Carpeted decks

245
Q

Determining the level of liquid in a tank by using a sounding tube

A

Sounding the tank

246
Q

The level of liquid on a sounding tape can be more easily determined by ___

A

Applying a thin coast of fuel-indicating paste

247
Q

If no fuel indicating paste is available, a thin coat of ___ can be used as well

A

Lubricating oil

248
Q

Another way to determine fuel level is to drill holes ___ about every ___ along the length of the sounding tape

A

1/8” or smaller

Inch

249
Q

After determining the fuel level by sounding the tank, the volume of fuel can be calculated from the ____

A

Ship’s tank sounding tables

250
Q

Show the volume or weight of fuel in tanks

A

TLI systems

251
Q

Three basic types of remote reading, level indicating systems are used in fuel tanks

A

Static head type and two electric types
Magnetic float sensing techniques
Sounding tube pulse radar

252
Q

Magnetic float level-indicating systems in tanks that overflow directly overboard have ___

A

Integral high-level alarms

253
Q

The high-level alarms sound when the tank has reached between ___ of its total capacity

A

95 - 98%

254
Q

The alarm point is intended to provide about a ___ minute warning that the tank will overflow unless tank filling is stopped immediately

A

2

255
Q

___ warns operators that suction will soon be lost but gives them adequate time to switch to the other service tank

A

Low-level alarms

256
Q

Service tanks are normally drawn down only to ___ of capacity

A

50%

257
Q

In compensated tanks the magnetic float is designed to float in ___ but sink in ___, so it floats at the ___

A

Seawater
Fuel
Fuel/water interface

258
Q

In a compensated tank the operation of the transmitter is ___

A

Reversed

259
Q

Tank level indicators in compensated fuel tanks and fuel tanks that can be ballasted are coated with ___

A

Epoxy

260
Q

The epoxy coating prevents the indicator from ___

A

Fouling

261
Q

Keep cutout valves on direct reading sight glasses ___ except when ___ to prevent ____

A

Closed
Taking readings
Fuel leakage if the sight glass is broken

262
Q

Vertical glass tube outside of a fuel tank that is piped into the tank at the top and bottom

A

Direct reading sight glass

263
Q

___ is required at each tank cautioning personnel to keep the sight glass cutout valves ____

A

Instruction plate

Closed except when taking readings

264
Q

The magnet in the float raises small flags outside of the pipe to indicate the fuel level

A

Indirect reading sight glass

265
Q

Determines where the fuel/water interface is in the COST

A

Cleavage indicating system

266
Q

Hand pump takes suction from different heights in the tank to a sight glass to visually determine whether it is fuel or water in the COST

A

Cleavage indicating system

267
Q

Always use a ___ when reinstalling a tank access cover

A

New gasket

268
Q

Gaskets for fuel tank access covers shall be ___ thick and shall be of the material specified in SAE-AMS-C-6183, Class 1, Grade C

A

3/16” thick

269
Q

Make sure all gasket sealing surfaces are ___

A

Clean and undamaged

270
Q

If there is doubt about the condition of the sealing surface, use ____ to verify that the gasket is making contact over its entire surface

A

Bluing compound

271
Q

After the tank cover is installed, the compressed gasket should be between ____ thick

A

0.13 and 0.15 inch

272
Q

If the gap is accessible check the gasket compression by ___

A

Inserting a feeler gauge between the tank cover and the tank

273
Q

When practical, ___ the tank after a new cover has been installed

A

Air-test

274
Q

When refilling a tank after a new cover has been installed, ___

A

Watch the tank access cover for leaks and maintain direct communication with someone who can stop the refilling process

275
Q

Most shipboard fuel system pipe is ___

A

Carbon steel

276
Q

___ fuel piping in bilges historically has corroded severely

A

Carbon steel

277
Q

Pipe wall thickness is evaluated using ___

A

Ultrasonic testing (UT)

278
Q

Temporary pipe repairs require an ___

A

Approved Departure from Specifications (DFS)

279
Q

Flange shields and flange shield materials received from the stock system have a ___ on one side, which faces ___

A

Rubberized coating

Outward

280
Q

When replacement sections of pipe are made in a shore-based facility, they shall be ___ before being installed

A

Blasted and painted in the shop

281
Q

Copper-nickel or stainless steel piping may be installed in existing fuel systems if the following conditions are met ____

A
  • The new material will only run between the tanks or existing flanges that are high enough to avoid bilge water, no material transitions in the bilge.
  • All components in the new line will be replaced with galvanically compatible components, to prevent galvanic corrosion of steel components
282
Q

___ piping is not used in bilge areas of steam ships nor in tanks that may contain seawater

A

Stainless steel

283
Q

____ piping is used in some ships to replace piping in the bilge areas of the ship, since it is more resistant to seawater corrosion

A

Copper-nickel

284
Q

Installing short pieces of copper-nickel or stainless steel in a carbon steel piping system in the bilge can lead to ___

A

Severe galvanic corrosion

285
Q

Consider replacing a large run of pipe if ___

A
Wall thickness below minimum for welding
Multiple failures
Several relatively thin spots
Excessive corrosion
Close to ignition sources
286
Q

___ can cause problems by allowing fuel to enter or leave tanks that are supposed to be isolated

A

Valve leak-by

287
Q

Wafer style 90 degree movement valve which serves as an authorized replacement valve for bother rubber lined butterfly and high performance butterfly valves

A

Triple offset torque seated valves (TOTS)

288
Q

Most unintended trips of quick-closing valves are caused by ___

A

The cables being too tight

289
Q

The best solution to avoid unintended trips is to replace cable actuating systems with ___

A

Linear actuators

290
Q

Most fuel system pumps are ___ pumps. The most common kinds are ___

A

Rotary positive displacement

Screw pumps and sliding vane pumps

291
Q

Do not allow a PD pump to run against a dead-headed system for more than ___

A

1 minute

292
Q

___ are usually the only kind of fuel filtration used on steam ships

A

Strainers

293
Q

If a strainer is installed on the suction side of the pump, the holes should be ___ or larger

A

1/32”

294
Q

Transfer system strainer baskets usually have ___ openings

A

4-mil (0.004-inch)

295
Q

Steam ship service systems require ____ baskets to provide filtration fine enough to allow boiler fuel controls and atomizers to operate properly

A

24-mesh (0.03 inch openings)

296
Q

___ strainers are used for propulsion boilers; ___ strainers are used for auxiliary equipment that is operated intermittently

A

Duplex

Simplex

297
Q

The inline and cone-type strainers are only authorized for ____

A

System cleanup at shipyards

298
Q

Fuel system strainer baskets are usually made of ___

A

Monel or stainless steel

299
Q

Most fuel system strainers flow is __

A

Inside to outside

300
Q

The ___ off-line basket can be cleaned without opening the housing

A

Firesafe Fuel Oil Strainer (FSFOS)

301
Q

FSFOS

A

Firesafe Fuel Oil Strainer

302
Q

All strainers should have a ___ or ___ pressure gauge

A

Duplex

Differential

303
Q

The maximum allowable pressure drop for transfer system strainers can be found by ___

A

Adding 20% of the rated discharge pressure of the transfer pump to the pressure of the strainer when clean

304
Q

When the pressure drop through a FSFOS exceeds ___, switch baskets and backflush

A

10 lb/in^2

305
Q

If backflushing does not reduce the pressure drop to ___, or below, open and inspect the compartment the next time the strainer is secured

A

6 lb/in^2

306
Q

To clean a strainer basket ___

A

Soak it in a solvent such as P-D-680 Type III and lightly scrub with a nonmetallic brush

307
Q

Before performing maintenance on an FSFOS ___

A

Isolate, drain, and vent

308
Q

The simplex fuel oil service strainer operates on the ___

A

Peripheral inflow method particle retention

309
Q

The simplex fuel oil service strainer flow is ___

A

Outside to inside

310
Q

The drain valve assemble in the simplex fuel oil service strainer has an elbow at the inlet and a special ball having a hole diameter, which ranges from ___ to ____

A

1.00 ID

.062 ID

311
Q

After start up procedures have been completed and the fuel oil system is operating, monitor the differential pressure gauges, the pressure drop should be less than ___

A

10 psi

312
Q

Flushing the strainer requires rotating the external hand wheel ___ and opening the strainer drain valve ___

A

2 complete revolutions

1/4 turn

313
Q

If simplex filter separators are installed in a gas turbine ship, then ___

A

Two units are installed in parallel

314
Q

Designed to remove solids and water from fuel

A

Filter/separators

315
Q

Filter/separators can be either ___

A

Class 1 or class 2

316
Q

Class 1 filter/separator units have ___

A

Automatic water drains, manual controls are also provided

317
Q

Class 2 filter/separator units have ___

A

Only manual controls for water drain

318
Q

Maintain a filter/separator log for ___

A

Unit hours of operation, element replacement dates, and differential pressure

319
Q

Coalescer elements shall be kept ___ to prevent drying out and loss of effectiveness

A

Submerged

320
Q

Replace coalescer elements when the filter/separator has been drained and remains empty for ___

A

7 days or longer

321
Q

At the installation site, ___ shall visually inspect each coalescer element for physical damage and defects before reinstalling it in the filter separator housings

A

Senior petty officer or above

322
Q

If the coalescer element does not pass inspection ____

A

Return all failed elements to the supply point in their original packaging, and submit a product quality deficiency report (PQDR)

323
Q

All coalescer elements in the filter/separator should be from ___

A

The same manufacturer

324
Q

When ordering filter/separator elements use ____, not ___

A

NSN on the Allowance Parts List (APL)

Manufacturer’s part number

325
Q

The 20-inch coalescer elements used in F-76 fuel system filter/separators and the 20-inch coalescer elements used in some JP-5 systems filter/separator are ___

A

Not identical

326
Q

Use a ___ when installing the pre-filter compartment cover

A

New cover O-ring gasket

327
Q

All gas turbine ships and most diesel ships use a ___ to remove water and solid contaminants from fuel in the transfer system

A

Centrifugal purifier

328
Q

The purifier is essentially a ___

A

Motor-driven centrifuge

329
Q

Separates contaminated fuel into its three major components due to the difference in their relative densities

A

Purifier

330
Q

The bowl assembly and disk stack rotational axis in the purifier is ___

A

Vertical

331
Q

In a purifier the ___ separate the contaminated fuel into thin layers, reducing the distance solids must travel for separation

A

Disks

332
Q

The purifier is capable of removing water from a contaminated mixture which is up to ___ water

A

50%

333
Q

The purifier is capable of processing 100% of water for a period of ___, without any water discharge from the fuel discharge port

A

5 minutes

334
Q

___ is admitted to the purifier bowl to establish a priming seal

A

Water

335
Q

Fuel enters the purifier in the ___ of the assembly

A

Bottom

336
Q

Centrifugal separation of fuel and water requires a controlled, properly positioned, ____

A

Fuel/water interface

337
Q

The fuel/water interface in the purifier is located ___

A

Beyond the outer edge of the disk stack and extends from the bottom of the bowl to the outer edge of the top disk

338
Q

Installed to control the location of the fuel/water interface

A

Gravity ring

339
Q

If the gravity ring is too large, the interface moves towards the ___

A

Outer portion of the bowl

340
Q

If the gravity ring puts the interface to far to the outer edge of the purifier bowl, it results in ___

A

Better solids removal, but less efficient water removal, increases the likelihood of loss of the water seal

341
Q

Loss of the water seal in the purifier

A

Breakover

342
Q

The centrifugal purifier can only remove contaminants that are heavier than ___

A

Both fuel and water

343
Q

Be sure the ___ is sufficiently slack or emptied before starting the purifier. If it is overfilled it may flow back into the ___

A

Purifier drain tank

Purifier gear housing

344
Q

If the purifier does not come up to operating speed within ___ after starting, shut it down and determine the cause

A

12 minutes

345
Q

Do not attempt to restart the purifier within ___ after rotation wind-down

A

1/2 hour

346
Q

The source of Naval Distillate Fuel and other petroleum-derived products is ___

A

Crude oil

347
Q

By distilling crude oil, the various components that make up the crude can be separated according to their ____

A

Boiling points

348
Q

The main fractions separated during crude distillation, in order of increasing boiling points are ____

A
Fuel gas (essentially methane and ethane)
LPG gas (propane and butane)
Naphtha (gasoline blends)
Gas oils (jet and diesel fuel stock)
Residuum
349
Q

Distillate fuels can be divided into three categories

A

Turbine jet fuels
Middle distillate (diesel) fuels
Heating oils

350
Q

Turbine jet fuels can be divided further into two types

A

Gasoline-type fuels

Kerosene-type fuels

351
Q

Gasoline-type jet fuels are characterized by ___

A

Low pour points and high flammability

352
Q

Kerosene-type fuels have ___ freezing points and are ___ flammable than gasoline-type fuels

A

Higher

Less

353
Q

The only kerosene-type jet fuel permitted onboard naval ships is ___

A

JP-5

354
Q

___ fuels are blended from higher boiling stocks than jet fuels, it is the primary fuel used in all naval shipboard power plants

A

Middle Distillate (Diesel) Fuels

355
Q

Pour point of F-76

A

21F (-6C) maximum

356
Q

F-75 is an acceptable substitute fuel for ___ in all naval shipboard power plants

A

F-76

357
Q

F-75 has a pour point of ___

A

0F (-18C)

358
Q

Naval Distillate Lower Pour Point

A

F-75

359
Q

Knowing the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity or specific gravity, of the fuel is essential for ___

A

Load distribution purposes and for a number of calculations

360
Q

The specific gravity of a fuel is the ratio of the weight of a given volume of the fuel to the weight of an equal volume of water at ____

A

60F (15.6C)

361
Q

Both API gravity and specific gravity are determined using an instrument called a ___

A

Hydrometer

362
Q

API

A

American Petroleum Institute

363
Q

The quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of fuel

A

Calorific or heating value

364
Q

Units commonly used for calorific or heating value

A

Btu per pound or gallon of fuel

365
Q

In the US, calorific values are quantified as the ___

A

Higher Heating Value (HHV)

366
Q

By laboratory testing, the heating value of fuel can be accurately determined using a sophisticated test apparatus called a ___

A

Bomb calorimeter

367
Q

A known quantity of fuel and oxygen is ignited in a steel vessel under pressure, and the heating value is computed using the temperature rise measured during the reaction

A

Bomb calorimeter

368
Q

HHV

A

Higher Heating Value

369
Q

HHV (Btu/lb) = ___

A

17601 + (API @ 60F)

370
Q

In Europe heating values are often quantified as the ___

A

Lower Heating Value (LHV)

371
Q

LHVs are approximately ___ lower than HHVs for the same fuel

A

1100 Btu/lb

372
Q

Fuel is usually purchased by ___

A

Volume

373
Q

Most engineering calculations of heating value are based on ___

A

Weight

374
Q

Fluid’s resistance to flow

A

Viscosity

375
Q

Viscosity is expressed in ___ terms

A

Kinematic or absolute

376
Q

The most commonly used units of viscosity are the ___ for kinematic and ___ for absolute

A

Centistoke (cSt)

Centipoise (cp)

377
Q

The preferred unit of viscosity for fuel testing is the ___

A

Centistoke

378
Q

Kinematic viscosity (cSt) = ____

A

Absolute viscosity (cp) / Specific gravity

379
Q

The most accurate means for determining viscosity is the ___ technique

A

Kinematic

380
Q

Viscosity is determined by measuring the time in seconds required for a given quantity of liquid to flow through a calibrated capillary tube at the test temperature

A

Kinematic technique

381
Q

When plotted on ASTM viscosity/temperature paper, the viscosity of normal fluid will typically follow a ____

A

Straight line

382
Q

As petroleum fuels are cooled, the larger paraffin molecules present in the fuel begin to ___

A

Bond together to form wax

383
Q

That temperature at which this aggregation of molecules becomes apparent as a visible clouding or haze in the sample

A

Cloud point

384
Q

The temperature at which the fuel will no longer flow

A

Pour point

385
Q

Both the cloud point and the pour point indicate the amount of ___ present in the fuel

A

Long-chain paraffin

386
Q

The cloud point for middle distillate fuels is usually about ___ higher than the pour point

A

10F (5C)

387
Q

If the fuel temperature is below the cloud point temperature, ___ may occur

A

Filter separator element clogging

388
Q

The lowest temperature at which sufficient vapor is present above the surface of the test liquid to be ignited by a test flame under controlled conditions

A

Flashpoint

389
Q

__ can be used to indicate the flammability of a fuel for storage and for safety purposes

A

Flashpoint

390
Q

Measure of the ignition quality of middle distillate fuels

A

Cetane number

391
Q

__ is analogous to octane number in gasoline

A

Cetane number

392
Q

In the laboratory environment the ___ is determined by comparing the ignition quality of the test fuel in a standard test engine to that of cetane

A

Cetane number

393
Q

Cetane number and index is not a requirement for ___

A

Gas turbines or boilers

394
Q

More easily measured and calculated cetane value

A

Cetane index

395
Q

Cetane index is based on ___

A

API gravity and midpoint boiling range

396
Q

During the combustion process, sulfur-containing compounds in the fuel may be ___

A

Converted to sulfur dioxide and in the presence of water, corrosive sulfuric acids form

397
Q

Sulfur causes ___ in diesel engines and can cause ___ in gas turbines

A

Top ring wear

Hot corrosion of blades/vanes

398
Q

Sulfur content affects the ___ of the fuel

A

Calorific value

399
Q

The calorific value of the fuel ___ as the amount of sulfur in the fuel increases

A

Decreases

400
Q

The measure of the amount of noncombustible (or inorganic) material present in the fuel

A

Ash content

401
Q

Before combustion, ash can lead to ___ of atomizers, as well as ___ in diesel engine injector pumps

A

Erosion and plugging

Wear and seizure

402
Q

As middle distillate fuels age, they may ___ through the formation of ____

A

Darken

Oxygen-catalyzed sludge

403
Q

Dark middle distillate products may indicate products with reduced ___

A

Storage stability

404
Q

Good quality fuel will appear to be ___

A

Clear and bright

405
Q

Absence of visible particulate matter in the sample

A

Clear

406
Q

Absence of visible suspended water in the sample

A

Bright

407
Q

As the amount of suspended water in the fuel increases, the sample becomes ___

A

Hazy or cloudy

408
Q

The amount of residue present after fuel has been subjected to thermal decomposition

A

Carbon residue

409
Q

Carbon residue is significant with respect to ___

A

Coking tendencies

410
Q

The ability of a fuel to separate adequately from water

A

Demulsification

411
Q

Demulsification is a property that affects ___

A

Fuel handling equipment, specifically filter/separators

412
Q

Demulsification is not measured for ___

A

Commercial fuels

413
Q

The amount of particulates existing at the time of testing

A

Particulate contamination

414
Q

Particulate contamination can result in ___

A

Filter separator element clogging

415
Q

The resistance that a fuel has to the formation of degradation products when stored in ambient temperatures

A

Storage stability

416
Q

Fuel degradation can result in ___

A

Rapid filter separator element clogging

417
Q

F-76 fuel is tested for storage stability and must pass a predictive test to prove that it will remain stable for a time period of greater than ___

A

24 months

418
Q

Trace metals such as ___ are measured as part of the F-76 specification requirement

A

Sodium, potassium, vanadium, lead, and calcium

419
Q

High levels or combinations of trace metals can cause ____

A

Deposits and severe hot spot corrosion and sulfidation of blades and vanes in gas turbines

420
Q

A fuel that may be used in place of another product for extended periods of time without technical advice

A

Acceptable substitute fuels

421
Q

Commercial MGO-PD must be used within __ of lifting the fuel

A

6 weeks

422
Q

Products containing residual fuel are unacceptable for use in ___

A

Shipboard power plants

423
Q

The method used to purchase MGO-PD at commercial ports under the DESC contracted bunker fuel program

A

SEA Card Program

424
Q

SEA Card

A

Ships’ Bunkers’ Easy Acquisition Card

425
Q

Fuel purchases not using SEA Card must be procured as ___

A

An open market purchase

426
Q

All fuel accepted onboard must meet the requirement of ___ minimum flash point

A

140*F

427
Q

A fuel that may be used in an emergency only, in place of another product, after local exploration of the adequacy of the product, using locally available technical manuals and personnel

A

Emergency substitute fuels

428
Q

An emergency substitute fuel shall not be taken onboard ship until a representative sample has been tested for ___

A

BS&W, density, and flashpoint

429
Q

The mixing of emergency substitute fuels with acceptable bunkerings is ___

A

Not recommended

430
Q

Emergency substitute fuels shall have a sulfur content of less or equal to ___

A

1.0% wt%

431
Q

Any emergency substitute fuel taken onboard must be used ___

A

Immediately

432
Q

If the supplier replies that the product meets all MGO-PD requirements, ___

A

No further analysis is required

433
Q

The next quality reference after MGO-PD requirements

A

ISO 8217-2005, Grade DMA

434
Q

The higher the specific gravity, the ___ it is for the purifier to separate fuel and water

A

Harder

435
Q

The extent of the impacts due to poor fuel quality will depend on ___

A

How much fuel is burned, over what timeframe, and the exact quality of the fuel being burned

436
Q

DMX flashpoint

A

43C (109F)

437
Q

___ will contain some amount of residual fuel

A

DMB or DMC

438
Q

DMB has residual fuel from ___

A

Transportation

439
Q

DMC has residual fuel from ___

A

Purposely blending in up to 10-15% residual fuel oil

440
Q

Fuel is delivered to customers under ___

A

Direct government supervision

441
Q

The DLA contract for direct delivery of fuels from a contractor’s facility requires a ___

A

Quality control program

442
Q

DLA contract for direct delivery QA program is less extensive than that at government operated facilities, in that the fuel is verified for specification compliance before issue, but the ___ is not witnessed

A

Individual bunker delivery

443
Q

A commercial supplier not under government contract is not required to maintain or establish a ___

A

Specific QA program

444
Q

Whenever direct procurement of fuel for a commercial supplier not under government contract is required, ___ is responsible for the quantity and quality of the fuel accepted

A

The ship

445
Q

Fuel source precedence

A
  • Navy-owned stocks
  • DLA, DFSP
  • NATO storage
  • Government contract and contract bulletin using -SEA Card
  • Commercial suppliers not under government contract (local purchase)
446
Q

Quantities received shall be determined on the basis of ___ or, when refueling at sea, by means of ____

A

Shore tank gauges

Measurements taken on the issuing ship

447
Q

Fuel in tanks during fueling is measured by either a ___ or a ___

A

Tank gauge

Graduated sounding rod

448
Q

Top sounding tapes may also be used in ___

A

Appropriate tank tables are available

449
Q

The receiving ship is not required to test the quality of fuel received before receipt from ___

A

Navy-owned stocks

450
Q

During receipt of Navy-owned stocks, fuel will be sampled at the deck connection to monitor for ___

A

Water and sediment

451
Q

A fuel analysis of API gravity, flashpoint, and water and sediment content will be furnished by the Navy supply source to ___

A

The CO of the ship receiving replenishment

452
Q

The responsibility for the quality of the product received from an oiler remains with ___ until ___

A

The transferring ship

The receiving ship accepts the product

453
Q

The oiler will be responsible for ___ any product losses resulting from the customer refusal to accept the product

A

Surveying

454
Q

DLA-owned bulk fuels are stored in __

A

DFSPs

455
Q

The procedures for determining the quality, quantity, and acceptability of F-76 and acceptable substitute fuels from DLA stocks are ___

A

The same as those for receiving fuel from a Navy source

456
Q

The procedures for determining the quantity, quality, and acceptability of emergency substitute fuels from DLA stocks are ___

A

The same a those for receiving fuel from a commercial supplier not under government contract

457
Q

The procedures for determining the quantity, quality, and acceptability of fuel from NATO storage are ___

A

The same as those for receiving fuel from a Navy source

458
Q

Types of fuel sampling

A

All-levels sample
Bottom sample
Line sample
Sounding sample

459
Q

Sample obtained by submerging a closed thief sampler to a point as near as possible the drawing off level, then opening the sampler and raising it at such a rate that it is nearly full as it emerges from the fuel

A

All-levels sample

460
Q

Taken on the bottom surface of the tank at its lowest point. Usually obtained to check for water, sludge, scale, and other contaminants

A

Bottom sample

461
Q

Sample obtained from a designated location within the fuel system while the fuel is flowing

A

Line sample

462
Q

Sample obtained by using a sounding tape and water-indicating paste to determine the water level within the tank

A

Sounding sample

463
Q

During receipt of F-76, samples shall be drawn at the filling connection to ensure it is clean, at a minimum of ___ shall be tested for BS&W

A

One sample at the beginning, one in the middle, and one at the end

464
Q

During fueling F-76 visual samples shall be taken every ___

A

15 minutes

465
Q

If visual samples meet the ___ criteria, then BS&W is not required

A

Clear and bright

466
Q

If a sample indicates the presence of free water, ___

A

The delivery shall be discontinued until the cause can be found and corrected

467
Q

Acceptance or rejection of fuel delivered to the ship shall be based on either ___ or ___ sample taken from the supplying tanks

A

All-levels

Average

468
Q

In all cases, the sample container shall be ___ before use

A

Thoroughly cleaned

469
Q

Every fuel thief can be used in properly installed ___ sounding tubes

A

1 1/2”

470
Q

The ___ fuel thief should meet the needs of most applications

A

120-ml

471
Q

The 132-ml fuel thief may be used where ___ is required

A

A larger sample volume is required

472
Q

Use the 60-ml fuel thief where sounding tubes are installed with any bend radius less than ___

A

10’

473
Q

Before purchasing a fuel thief, ship’s force should ensure that the selected fuel thief will be able to ___

A

Travel the full length of the sounding tube

474
Q

The fuel thief contain a ___ hole at the top of the plunger assembly to which a lifting cord can be attached

A

1/8”

475
Q

Contains a chemical dye that changes color when in contact with water

A

Water-indicating paste

476
Q

Water-indicating paste contains ___ compounds. Avoid prolonged contact with skin

A

Organic amine

477
Q

In the presence of water, the water-indicating paste will change from ___ to ___

A

White-yellow

red

478
Q

The seawater conductivity meter determines if fuel is ___

A

Contaminated by fresh or saltwater

479
Q

Before using the seawater conductivity meter rinse the tip of the seawater tester with ___

A

Distilled or de-ionized water

480
Q

What size is the beaker supplied with the seawater conductivity meter?

A

50 ml

481
Q

Seawater conductivity meter. Last LED signal color? Audible signal? For distilled or de-ionized water (0.05% salt or less)

A

Green

No

482
Q

Seawater conductivity meter. Last LED signal color? Audible signal? For brackish water, low (0.25% salt or less)

A

Yellow

No

483
Q

Seawater conductivity meter. Last LED signal color? Audible signal? For brackish water, high (1.5% salt or less)

A

Orange

No

484
Q

Seawater conductivity meter. Last LED signal color? Audible signal? For seawater (3.8% salt)

A

Red

Yes

485
Q

Sounding tubes required ___ in a tank to obtain a representative sample

A

Perforations throughout their length

486
Q

More frequent fuel tank testing is often required during ___

A

Wartime operations

487
Q

If the test for water level in the storage tank indicates ____ no further testing is required

A

No water or a level of water lower than the lowest known tank suction level, generally 1-inch or less

488
Q

If the water indicating paste indicates a water level ____, the tank shall be stripped

A

Higher than the lowest known tank suction level or 3-inches

489
Q

After stripping the storage tanks ____

A

Test the fuel by the BS&W test

490
Q

If the sample exceeds ____ BS&W, strip the tank again

A

0.1%

491
Q

Testing and stripping shall continue until the BS&W level falls below ___, or water level is ___

A

0.1%

1-inch or less

492
Q

The BS&W test is ___ restrictive than the visual clear and bright test

A

Less

493
Q

For steam boiler ships, the fuel service tanks shall be tested within ___ before being placed online

A

One hour

494
Q

For diesel engine and gas turbine ships, the fuel service tanks shall be tested within ___ before being place online

A

8 hours

495
Q

The intent of fuel service tank testing is to ____

A

Take a sample from the bottom of the tank to ensure fuel quality

496
Q

Using the installed sampling connection on the tank or an external sounding tube for samples, must be flushed a minimum of ___, prior to taking the sample

A

12 ounces

497
Q

Using the installed sampling connection on the tank or an external sounding tube for samples, can only be used if the sampling pipe terminus has been extended to within ___ of the tank bottom

A

3 inches

498
Q

Once a clear and bright sample has been obtained, whether to resample prior to putting the tank in use should be based on ___

A

Good engineering judgment that considers time elapsed and past experience with tank cleanliness

499
Q

Whenever the testing of a fuel storage tank or service tank indicated excessive contamination, use the tank stripping pump to take suction from the tank through the low-suction tailpipe long enough to draw off approximately ___

A

150 to 300 gallons

500
Q

Discharge stripped fuel to the ___

A

COST

501
Q

If the designated fuel settling tank is too small, consider using ___ to receive the stripping effluent

A

A slack fuel storage tank

502
Q

The overboard discharge of fuel is ___

A

Not allowed

503
Q

Service tank recirculation provides a means of ___

A

Continuously reducing the amount of solid contamination in the fuel

504
Q

An increase in the pre-filter or coalesce element usage rate or a filter/separator discharge fuel sample exceeding ___ sediment also indicates the need to recirculate fuel

A

2.64 mg/L

505
Q

Shipboard fuel testing has three purposes

A
  • Establish the level of contamination present in the fuel
  • Ensure that the fuel can be stored safely onboard ship
  • Establish the density of the fuel for weight distribution and heating value purposes
506
Q

The shipboard tests that may be used to establish fuel contamination levels are

A
  • Clear and bright test
  • Bottom sediment and water test (BS&W)
  • Free water detector (FWD)
  • Contaminated fuel detector (CFD)
  • Combined fuel detector test (CCFD)
  • In-line fuel quality sensors
507
Q

API/Specific gravity can be determined by ___

A

Hydrometer testing

508
Q

Absence of visible particulate matter

A

Clear

509
Q

Absence of suspended water droplets

A

Bright

510
Q

If the sample does not appear bright after 5 minutes, sample should be warmed ___ or to a minimum of ___, whichever is greater, in a water bath

A

25F (14C)

60F (15.6C)

511
Q

Provides a quantitative measurement of the level of water and sediment present in the fuel

A

BS&W test

512
Q

When conducting the BS&W test, shake the sample vigorously for ___ to ensure ___

A

30 seconds

Homogeneous distribution of contaminants

513
Q

The fuel temperature at the time of the BS&W test shall be at least ___

A

60F (15.6C)

514
Q

The BS&W test spins at ____ for ___

A

1500 rpm

15 min

515
Q

Cover the corks for the BS&W test in ___ so that they can be used again

A

Thin plastic film

516
Q

Set the time for the BS&W test for an additional ___ to allow the centrifuge to attain required speed

A

One minute

517
Q

Each centrifuge tube in the BS&W test contains ___ of the sample

A

100 mL

518
Q

Place the two tubes containing the sample on ___ of the centrifuge in the BS&W test

A

Opposite sides

519
Q

The reading in the BS&W test are a ____

A

Direct percentage of water and sediment

520
Q

To determine the BS&W of the fuel, ___ the readings from the two centrifuge tubes and ___

A

Add the readings

Divide by two

521
Q

Free Water Detector test procedure was formerly called ___

A

AEL MK II

522
Q

Portable instrument designed to quantitatively detect free or mechanically suspended water in aviation distillate fuels such as JP-5

A

Free Water Detector

523
Q

This unit consists of a view box with an ultra-violet light source, a standard card indicating 0, 5, 10, and 20 ppm water contamination, and detector pads through which the fuel sample is passed for later comparison under the ultraviolet light

A

Free Water Detector

524
Q

The FWD method employs a water-sensitive indicator dye ____, which is embedded in the detector pads

A

Sodium fluorescein

525
Q

The FWD is capable of reliably detecting the water contamination levels in the range of ___

A

0-20 ppm range

526
Q

Contaminated Fuel Detector test was formerly called ____

A

AEL MK III

527
Q

Used to determine the level of solid contamination in aircraft distillate fuels such as JP-5

A

Contaminated Fuel Detector test (CFD)

528
Q

This unit consists of a fuel sample container, a fuel filtration system, and a light transmission system

A

CFD test

529
Q

In this test a volume of fuel is filtered through a Millipore filter paper; any solid particles are retained on the paper, then the filtered fuel is passed through a second filter paper, which is used to indicate fuel coloration, via a beam of light being passed through, and measured

A

CFD test

530
Q

Allow the CFD test unit to warm up for ___

A

3 to 5 minutes

531
Q

Combines the functions of the FWD and CFD test kits

A

Combined Contaminated Fuel Detector (CCFD)

532
Q

Two flashpoint test procedures

A

Pensky-Martens

NAVIFLASH

533
Q

Flashpoint test procedures allow for the determination of the fuel flashpoint according to ___

A

ASTM D 93

534
Q

Both flash point test procedures ___

A

Heat fuel in a closed cup at a specified rate until a flash is detected

535
Q

A flash is detected by ___

A

Visibly or by sensing pressure build-up

536
Q

The Pensky-Martens method uses an ___

A

Open flame which is periodically dipped into the test chamber

537
Q

The NAVIFLASH method used an ___

A

Electric spark and pressure transducer

538
Q

JP-5 flashpoint results obtained via NAVIFLASH testing average ___ lower than those obtained for the same fuel via the PMCC test method

A

2 to 4 degrees F (1 to 2 degrees C)

539
Q

When a discrepancy exists between the results of the NAVIFLASH method and the PMCC method, the ___ test results shall be used to determine fuel acceptability

A

PMCC

540
Q

Where ships receive JP-5 while underway and shipboard NAVIFLASH testing shows a flashpoint below the 140*F, ___ from the supplying ship shall suffice

A

Documentation indicating that the fuel load out quality report meets the 140*F flashpoint requirement

541
Q

In the PMCC method the flame should be ___ in diameter

A

5/32” (4mm)

542
Q

In the PMCC method apply heat so that the temperature of the sample rises at a rate of ___

A

10F (6C) per minute

543
Q

In the PMCC method, the stirrer should be at a rate of ___

A

90 to 120 rpm

544
Q

In the PMCC method, apply the test flame when the temperature approaches ___, and thereafter at every ____

A

30F (17C) below the expected flash point

2F (1C)

545
Q

In the PMCC method, allow the flame to remain in the chamber for approximately ___

A

1 second

546
Q

In the PMCC method, the sample stirring method should be ___ when applying the test flame

A

Disengaged

547
Q

Run calibration programs on the NAVIFLASH if tester is not used within ___

A

30 days

548
Q

___ is used for calibration in the NAVIFLASH

A

N-Dodecane fluid

549
Q

Load distribution calculations require knowledge of ___, as do a number of engineering calculations such as estimating heating value

A

Fuel gravity

550
Q

In the NAVIFLASH method, shall be performed in duplicate using separate samples, agreement should be within ___

A

±5°F

551
Q

In the NAVIFLASH method, if measured flashpoint is greater or equal to 140°F, ___ light will flash and the screen will display ____ message

A

Green

ACCEPT FUEL

552
Q

In the NAVIFLASH method, if measured flashpoint is less than 140°F, ____ light will flash and the screen will display ___ message

A

Red

REJECT FUEL

553
Q

In the API/specific gravity test the glass cylinder shall be filled ____

A

2/3 full

554
Q

In the API/specific gravity test the fuel temperature should be ___

A

Approximately the same as the surrounding air

555
Q

In the API/specific gravity test, ensure that the hydrometer does not ___

A

Touch the sides of the cylinder

556
Q

In the API/specific gravity test, when the hydrometer comes to rest, read the point at which the ___

A

Surface of the liquid meets the scale on the hydrometer

557
Q

After testing the API/specific gravity, find the API gravity at ___

A

60°F (15.6°C)

558
Q

Real-time instrument that detects free water and sediment in fuel

A

In-line fuel quality sensor

559
Q

This sensor continuously emits a laser beam directed across the fuel stream. Contaminates in the fuel scatter the laser beam, and the angle and intensity of the scattered light correlates to the type and concentration of contaminants

A

In-line fuel quality sensor

560
Q

The results from the In-line fuel quality sensor are displayed in ___

A

mg/L for solids

ppm for water