Neurology 1 Flashcards

1
Q
A

Answer: Listeria monocytogenes

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2
Q
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Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

Important gram negative diplococci include N. meningitidis, N. gonorrhoeae, and M. catarrhalis (an important cause of bronchopneumonia in COPD patients).

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3
Q
A

Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

A watershed stroke is a form of ischaemic stroke. They tend to be caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain (e.g. carotid artery stenosis, arrhythmia or heart failure) or a vascular blockage/restriction far upstream of the infarct. This results in an infarct of the border zones between the tissues supplied by the ACA, MCA, and PCA.

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4
Q
A

Answer: Osteoarthritis

A lumbar puncture can still be performed in patients with joint disease, but it can be more challenging due to decreased range of motion in the vertebral joints. Lumbar punctures can be performed under image guidance with the involvement of interventional radiologists.

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5
Q
A

Answer: Acetylcholine receptor antibody

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6
Q
A

Answer: Absence seizures

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7
Q
A

Answer: Trinucleotide repeat expansion

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8
Q
A

Answer: Stylomastoid foramen

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9
Q
A

Answer: Ethosuximide

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10
Q
A

Answer: Cuneate nucleus

The cuneate nucleus, one of the dorsal column nuclei, is a wedge-shaped nucleus in the closed part of the medulla oblongata. It contains cells that give rise to the cuneate tubercle, visible on the posterior aspect of the medulla. It lies laterally to the gracile nucleus and medial to the spinal trigeminal nucleus in the medulla.

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11
Q
A

Answer: Sixth nerve palsy

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12
Q
A

Answer: Fourth nerve palsy

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13
Q
A

Answer: Amygdaloid body

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14
Q
A

Answer: There is no interaction between valproate sodium and oral contraceptive pills

There is no interaction between valproate sodium and oral contraceptive pills. Some antiepileptic drugs, such as phenobarbital, primidone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, and topiramate, are enzyme inducers and have been shown to increase the metabolism of ethinyl estradiol and progestogens. However, valproate sodium does not have this interaction and contraceptive preparations in normal doses can be used in patients taking valproate sodium.

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15
Q
A

Answer: Columns of fornix

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16
Q
A

Answer: HSV

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17
Q
A

Answer: Third nerve palsy

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18
Q
A

Answer: Vestibular nucleus

The vestibular nuclei are the cranial nuclei for the vestibular nerve.

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19
Q
A

Answer: A marked decrease in pulmonary diffusing capacity

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20
Q
A
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21
Q
A

Answer: Midazolam

This patient has status epilepticus (SE), which is traditionally defined as a single seizure or series of seizures lasting 30 minutes or more in which the patient fails to regain consciousness between the seizures. Any seizure lasting more than 5 minutes is unlikely to stop on its own, and treatment should be initiated immediately. The initial care of a patient in SE includes airway assessment, establishing an intravenous line, monitoring hemodynamic status, aggressive supportive care, and assessing and treating any underlying metabolic, toxic, and infectious etiologies.

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22
Q
A

Answer: Video electroencephalography (video EEG)

Video EEG monitoring is the criterion standard for classifying the type of seizure or syndrome or for diagnosing pseudoseizures. This study can be performed to rule out an epileptic etiology with a high degree of confidence if the patient has demonstrable impairment of consciousness during the spell in question, without abnormality on the EEG. Video EEG is also used to characterize the type of seizure and epileptic syndrome to optimize pharmacologic treatment and for presurgical workup.

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23
Q
A

Answer: Obtain an EEG and a neuroimaging study

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24
Q
A

Answer: Obtain a repeat EEG and MRI to help guide decisions on continued use of sodium valproate prior to pregnancy

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25
Q
A

Answer: Spinal trigeminal nucleus

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26
Q
A

Answer: Ethmoid

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27
Q
A

Answer: Prolongs GABA-mediated chloride channel openings

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28
Q
A

Answer: Nucleus ambiguus

The nucleus ambiguus is a group of large motor neurons, situated deep in the medullary reticular formation. The nucleus ambiguus contains the cell bodies of nerves that innervate the muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx which are strongly associated with speech and swallowing. As well as motor neurons, the nucleus ambiguus in its “external formation” contains cholinergic preganglionic parasympathetic neurons for the heart.

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29
Q
A

Answer: Valproic acid

Similar to valproic acid, carbamazepine increases the risk of neural tube defects; however, it does not increase the risk of other malformations.

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30
Q
  • A) Coxsackie virus
  • B) Cryptococcus neoformans
  • C) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
  • D) Staphylococcus aureus
  • E) Streptococcus pneumonia
A

Answer: Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

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31
Q
A

Answer: Decorticate rigidity

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32
Q
A

Answer: Carbamazepine

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33
Q
A

Answer: Partial seizures originating in the temporal lobe

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34
Q
A

Answer: Head trauma

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35
Q
A

Answer: Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

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36
Q
A

Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing

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37
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Midbrain

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38
Q
A

Answer: GABA

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39
Q
A

Answer: The substantia nigra compacta

Dopamine from the substantia nigra compacta excites the direct pathway (via dopamine 1 receptors) and inhibits the indirect pathway (via dopamine 2 receptors) of the basal ganglia; resulting in net excitation of the motor cortex and thusly increased movement.

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40
Q
A

Answer: B12

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41
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Superior Colliculus

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42
Q
A

Answer: Fasciculus gracilis

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43
Q
A

Answer: Parkinson’s disease

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44
Q
A

Answer: Middle cerebral artery

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45
Q
A

Answer: Neurofibromatosis

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46
Q
A

Answer: Right lateral funiculus

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47
Q
A

Answer: Multiple sclerosis

Oligoclonal bands are an important indicator in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis.

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48
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Hippocampus

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49
Q
A

Answer: hypertension with a wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular breathing

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50
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Amygdala

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51
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Hippocampus

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52
Q
A

Answer: Glioblastoma

bilateral glioblastoma (butterfly glioma)

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53
Q
A

Answer: Oculomotor (III)

A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. The eye will be displaced outward “exotropia” and displaced downward “hypotropia”; outward because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) maintains muscle tone in comparison to the paralyzed medial rectus. The eye will be displaced downward, because the superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation).

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54
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Left amygdala

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55
Q
A

Answer: Subfalcine herniation

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56
Q
A

Answer: Posterior spinocerebellar tract

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57
Q
A

Answer: Bleeding diathesis

Absolute contraindications for an LP include anticoagulant therapy, bleeding diathesis, and evidence of localised infection in the lumbar region. Other factors - e.g. signs of raised ICP, immunocompromise, decreased GCS - may also warrant the use of CT first.

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58
Q
A

Answer: 150 mL

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59
Q

What part of the brain is shown here?

A

Posterior Commissure

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60
Q
A

Answer: lateral, median

Cerebrospinal fluid keeps the brain buoyant, protects brain tissue from mechanical injury, prevents ischaemia, allows for homeostatic regulation of substances between cells in the brain, and removes waste products. About 500mL of CSF is produced per day, mostly by the choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles. The CSF moves from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle via the interventricular foramina, then to the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct. It then passes into the subarachnoid space through the median aperture and the two lateral apertures.

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61
Q
A

Answer: vagus (X), away from

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62
Q
A

Answer: Anosmia

63
Q
A

Answer: The glossopharyngeal nerve only

64
Q
A

Answer: Chorda tympani branch of facial nerve only

65
Q
A

Answer: Fourth nerve palsy

66
Q
A

Answer: Its afferent nerve is the optic (CN II) and its efferent nerve is the oculomotor (CN III)

67
Q
A

Answer: Left ophthalmic nerve (branch of trigeminal nerve)

68
Q
A

Answer: Right cerebellum

Right cerebellum is correct. Cerebellar lesions cause a disturbance of equilibrium, muscle tone, and execution of movement. The patient’s symptoms indicate an intention tremor, which is associated with cerebellar damage. Lateral lesions of the cerebellum impair limb movements ipsilateral to the lesion. The patient’s tremor in the right hand and falling to the right suggest that the lesion is in the right side of the cerebellum.

69
Q
A

Answer: Conjugate vertical gaze

Parinaud syndrome is paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to a lesion (e.g. stroke, hydrocephalus, pinealoma) affecting the superior colliculus.

70
Q
A

Answer: Option C

71
Q
A

Answer: Pilocytic Astrocytoma

On imaging, pilocytic astrocytomas typically show a cystic lesion with an attached mural nodule.

72
Q
A

Answer: bradycardia, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, irregular breathing

The Cushing Reflex is a late sign of raised intracranial pressure and typically indicates imminent brain herniation. When the arterial pressure is less than the ICP, the hypothalamus activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in cardiac output, which raises arterial pressure. The increased arterial blood pressure stimulates the baroreceptors in the carotid bodies, which causes bradycardia.

73
Q
A

Answer: Middle cerebral artery

74
Q
A

Answer: Meningioma

On imaging, meningiomas typically present as round masses attached to the dura.

75
Q
A

Answer: Lateral corticospinal tract

76
Q
A

Answer: Lateral reticulospinal tract

77
Q
A

Answer: Oligodendroglioma

Micrograph of an oligodendroglioma showing the characteristic branching, small, chicken wire-like blood vessels and fried egg-like cells, with clear cytoplasm and well-defined cell borders. H&E stain.

78
Q
A

Answer: C7

79
Q
A

Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

80
Q
A

Answer: Vertebral artery

81
Q
A

Answer: Epidural haemorrhage

Epidural haemorrhage is due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery (often by trauma to the temporoparietal bone). It typically shows up on CT scans as a biconcave disk.

82
Q
A

Answer: Pia mater

83
Q
A

Answer: Choroid plexus papilloma

84
Q
A

Answer: Internal carotid artery

85
Q
A

Answer: Schwannoma

Schwannomas often present with tinnitus and loss of hearing as a result of CNVIII involvement.

86
Q
A

Answer: Oculomotor

Oculomotor. Cranial nerves III, VII and X and S3–5 spinal nerves carry parasympathetic fibres.

87
Q
A

Answer: the left substantia nigra

The left basal ganglia and substantia nigra influence the right side of the body.

Parkinson’s disease typically begins unilaterally, however the tremor soon becomes bilateral.

88
Q
A

Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

89
Q
A

Answer: Glioblastoma

On histology, glioblastomas typically show regions of necrosis surrounded by tumour cells and endothelial cell proliferation.

90
Q
A

Answer: Oligodendroglioma

91
Q
A

Answer: Basilar artery

92
Q
A

Answer: S2, S3

93
Q
A

Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

94
Q
A

Answer: Hemangioblastomas

95
Q
A

Answer: Skin; supraspinous ligaments; interspinous ligaments; ligamentum flavum; epidural space; dura; subarachnoid membrane into subarachnoid space

There is no such thing as the intraspinous ligament. The correct ligament is the interspinous ligaments (interspinal ligaments), which are thin membranous ligaments that connect adjoining spinous processes of the vertebra.

96
Q
A

Answer: Vestibulospinal tracts

97
Q
A

Answer: Craniopharyngioma

Presents as a supratentorial mass in a child or young adult; may compress the optic chiasm leading to bitemporal hemianopsia

98
Q
A

Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

99
Q
A

Answer: Anterior white commissure

100
Q
A

Answer: Trisomy 21

Gene for β-APP is present on chromosome 21. Most individuals with Down syndrome (trisomy 21) develop Alzheimer disease by the age of 40 (early-onset).

101
Q
A

Answer: Inhibits action of monoamine transporters

102
Q
A

Answer: Vertebral artery

103
Q
A

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

The facial nerve passes through, but does not innervate, the parotid gland. Within the parotid gland it bifurcates into the temporofacial and cervicofacial divisions, which further subdivide.

104
Q
A

Answer: Tectospinal tract

105
Q
A

Answer: Medial reticulospinal tract

106
Q
A

Answer: Uncal transtentorial herniation

107
Q
A

Answer: Superior cerebellar artery

108
Q
A

Answer: Option 3

109
Q
A

Answer: Occipital lobe

110
Q
A

Answer: Striatum of the basal ganglia

111
Q
A

Answer: Giant cell arteritis

112
Q
A

Answer: Anterior communicating artery

113
Q
A

Answer: Olfactory bulb

114
Q
A

Answer: β-Amyloid (Aβ), Alzheimer’s disease

Alzheimer’s Disease is characterized by the formation of beta-amyloid plaques, as shown here. Senile plaques appear as small collections of dark, irregular, thread-like structures often with a brownish material in the centre. The central core is represented by amyloid and the irregular, beaded linear structures represent abnormal neurites (small dendrites and axons with degenerative changes).

115
Q
A

Answer: Bacterial meningitis

116
Q
A

Answer: Miosis

Opioid intoxication typically produces: miosis, confusion, obtundation, euphoria, central respiratory depression, constipation.

117
Q
A

Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

118
Q
A

Answer: Olfactory tract

119
Q
A

Answer: Corticospinal tract

120
Q
A

Answer: Rubrospinal tract

121
Q
A

Answer: facial nerve

122
Q
A

Answer: Ependymoma

Perivascular pseudorosettes are a characteristic finding on biopsy

123
Q
A

Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles with tau protein

124
Q
A

Answer: Pilocytic Astrocytoma

125
Q

What kind of visual field pathology would a lesion at pin 9 cause?

A

Left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

126
Q
A

Answer: Elevation, extorsion, abduction.

127
Q
A

Answer: ACA

128
Q
A

Answer: Glioblastoma

129
Q
A

Answer: Alpha-synuclein in neuronal cytoplasm

130
Q
A

Answer: Tearing of the cerebral bridging veins

131
Q
A

Answer: Metastases

132
Q
A

Answer: Left medial frontal lobe

133
Q
A

Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - Electromyography

134
Q
A

Answer: Fine touch, vibration, proprioception

135
Q
A

Answer: Subdural haemorrhage

136
Q
A

Answer: maxillary artery; external carotid artery

137
Q
A

Answer: Ependymoma

Aqueductal stenosis is incorrect as it is a congenital disorder.

Ependymomas are malignant tumours of ependymal cells usually seen in children. They most commonly arise in the 4th ventricle and may present with hydrocephalus.

138
Q
  • A) All limbs of the internal capsule
  • B) Anterior limb of the internal capsule
  • C) Genu of the internal capsule
  • D) Posterior limb of the internal capsule
  • E) Thalamus
A

= B) Anterior limb of the internal capsule

In the anterior region, the large striatum is divided into caudate and putamen by the prominent anterior limb.

139
Q
A

Answer: Cluster headache

This headache is most consistent with a type of neurovascular headache called cluster headache. These occur most often in young men; have a characteristic periodicity, or cluster; and cause lacrimation, nasal stuffiness, and sometimes conjunctival inflammation. Migraines tend not to come and go in this manner, are more throbbing, and are more likely to be associated with nausea and vomiting. Sinusitis is usually bilateral with associated fever and purulent discharge. Tension headaches are usually described as bandlike, without lacrimation or nasal congestion

140
Q
A

Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

141
Q
A

Answer: Chorda tympani

The chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve passes forwards through its canaliculus into the middle ear and crosses the medial aspect of the tympanic membrane. It then passes antero-inferiorly in the infratemporal fossa. It distributes taste fibers to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

142
Q
A

Answer: Schwannoma; cranial nerve Vlll

143
Q
A

Answer: Superior orbital fissure

144
Q
A

Answer: Epidural haemorrhage

145
Q
A

Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

146
Q
A

Answer: Propranolol

Propranolol is highly lipid-soluble and so crosses the blood-brain barrier.

147
Q
A

Answer: Epidural haemorrhage

148
Q
A

Answer: Start oral aciclovir ± and oral prednisolone

149
Q
A

Answer: A left frontal meningioma

150
Q
A

Answer: Medulloblastoma

151
Q
A

Answer: Meningioma

152
Q
A

Answer: Lenticulostriate or lateral striate arteries

The lateral or lenticulostriate arteries are small branches that arise at right angles from the middle cerebral artery. They are under high pressure and vulnerable to rupture, typically into the region of the extreme or external capsule, anterior limb of the internal capsule, or striatum.

153
Q
A

Answer: Options D and B

154
Q
A

Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Saccular aneurysms are the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage. They are thin-walled protrusions through areas of cerebral arteries with thin or absent tunica media.