Cardiology 2/2 Flashcards

1
Q
A

Answer: Option C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A

Answer: Decreased heart rate and contractility of the myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A

Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

Answer: Staphyloccous aureus

The presentation of acute infective endocarditis depends on the virulence of the pathogen. Virulent organisms (s. aureus, beta-haemolytic streptococci, pneumococci) attack previously normal cardiac valves and present with a high fever, produce embolic abscesses, and rapidly destroy cardiac structures. Non-virulent organisms (s. viridans, enterococci, coagulase negative staphylococci) tend to produce a more indolent illness, with a low grade fever, and little destruction of cardiac structures.

Staphyloccous aureus is the most common cause of acute infective endocarditis in IV drug users.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A

Answer: S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

Answer: QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

Answer: Osler’s nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A

Answer: Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

Answer: ECG changes in leads II, III, and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A

Answer: Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A

Answer: Blanching, non-painful erythematous lesions on palms of hands and soles of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A

Answer: Mitral stenosis

An opening snap is a high-pitched sound that occurs in mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A

Answer: Phase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A

Answer: 0-8 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A

Answer: A patient in congestive heart failure secondary to systolic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A

Answer: Phase 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A

Answer: Hyperkalemia: peaked T waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

Answer: Point B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

Answer: Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A

Answer: Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A

Answer: S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A

Answer: Mitral stenosis

Malar flush is a plum-red discolouration of the high cheeks, classically associated with mitral stenosis. It occurs secondary to CO2 retention and its vasodilatory effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

Answer: BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A

Answer: Aortic stenosis

During ventricular ejection, LVP (left ventricular pressure) exceeds AP (aortic pressure), as indicated by the grey area, i.e. the pressure gradient generated by stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A

Answer: right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A

Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A

Answer: 1-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A

Answer: class I; phase 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A

Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A

Answer: Point A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
A

Answer: Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

Answer: Aschoff body

36
Q

Which of the following waveforms describes what you will hear when auscultating a patient with MITRAL STENOSIS?

A

Answer: Waveform E

37
Q

Which of the following waveforms describes what you will hear when auscultating a patient with AORTIC REGURGITATION?

A

Answer: Waveform D

Note that depending on the source, aortic regurgitation can also be described as a mid-diastolic murmur continuing into late diastole (contrary to the pan-diastolic murmur illustrated).

38
Q
A

Answer: Aortic regurgitation

39
Q

Which of the following waveforms describes what you will hear when auscultating a patient with PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS?

A

Answer: Waveform F

40
Q

What heart sound is associated with mitral regurgitation?

A

This is an example of a pan-systolic murmur, commonly associated with mitral regurgitation.

The first and second heart sounds are normal. A mid-frequency rectangular murmur occurs during the entirety of systole.

41
Q

Which of the following waveforms describes what you will hear when auscultating a patient with AORTIC STENOSIS?

A

Answer: Waveform B

42
Q
A

Answer: Hypokalemia: U waves

43
Q
A

Answer: Mitral valve

44
Q
A

Answer: Swollen, red, and painful lesions found on the hands and feet

45
Q
A

Answer: Sinus rhythm, low volume, slow rising

46
Q
A

Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

47
Q
A

Answer: Hypercalcemia: shortened QT interval

48
Q
  • A) A normal person whose stroke volume increases as preload increases
  • B) A patient in congestive heart failure secondary to diastolic dysfunction
  • C) A patient in congestive heart failure secondary to systolic dysfunction
  • D) A patient in congestive heart failure treated pharmacologically with a positive inotrope
  • E) A patient with normal left ventricular function who is receiving intravenous dobutamine (an inotropic agent that directly stimulates β₁ receptors)
A

= E) A patient with normal left ventricular function who is receiving intravenous dobutamine (an inotropic agent that directly stimulates β₁ receptors)

If an individual with normal cardiac contractility is administered a positive inotropic agent (such as dobutamine), the contractility will increase without the need for increased preload.

49
Q
A

Answer: Point C

50
Q
A

Answer: Polyarthritis, carditis, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, chorea

51
Q

Which of the following waveforms describes what you will hear when auscultating a patient with MITRAL REGURGITATION?

A

Answer: Waveform C

52
Q
A

Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

53
Q
A

Answer: Aortic stenosis

54
Q
A

Answer: Infective endocarditis

Roth spots are retinal haemorrhages with small clear centres, and occur due to microembolisation of thrombi from infective endocarditis.

55
Q
A

Answer: Fibrinous pericarditis

56
Q
A

Answer: Prosthetic heart valve

57
Q
A

Answer: S3

58
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

59
Q
A

Answer: Posterior MI

60
Q
A

Answer: NYHA II

61
Q
A

Answer: Aortic valve regurgitation

62
Q
A

Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm

Portable chest radiograph taken in ICU reveals a bulge at the cardiac apex.

63
Q
A

Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

64
Q
A

Answer: Contraction band necrosis due an excess of Ca2+

65
Q
A

Answer: It is a recognised presenting feature of pulmonary embolism

66
Q
A

Answer: One large 5mm x 5mm box on an ECG paper represents 0.2 seconds time and 0.5 mV amplitude.

67
Q
A

Answer: Less than 24 hours

There are no nuclei in the slide, therefore we can suspect coagulative necrosis has occurred; this form of necrosis takes approx. 24 hours to manifest.

Also, there are no neutrophils present, therefore the time from infarction is less than 24 hours.

68
Q
A

Answer: Acute ischaemia

Inferior leads (II, III, and aVF) show T wave inversion due to acute ischaemia

69
Q
A

Answer: 20 mmHg; 10 mmHg

70
Q
A

Answer: two of the major criteria, or one major criterion plus two minor criteria, are present along with evidence of Group A streptococcus infection

71
Q

A 78 year old male with a history of recurrent syncope undergoes surgery for aortic valve disease. A hard, markedly deformed valve is observed, and shown in the image.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Answer: Calcific aortic stenosis

72
Q
A

Answer: Pulmonary, aortic, bicuspid, tricuspid

73
Q
A

Answer: Months

A pseudoaneurysm may occur in the first 3-14 days following an infarct, however a true ventricular aneurysm can occur from day 14 onwards, up to months following the event.

74
Q
A

Answer: 1-3 days

This is an image of pericarditis, which is seen from day 1 to 3.

75
Q
A

Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

76
Q

Einthoven’s triangle is a schematic representation of three limb leads used in electrocardiography. Which option depicts the correct Einthoven’s triangle?

A

Answer: Option A

77
Q
A

Answer: Right Bundle Branch Block (RBBB)

78
Q
A

Answer: Calcification

79
Q
A

Answer: Months

Type I collagen (i.e. fibrous scarring) is seen in this image; thus the time from the infarction is months.

80
Q
A

Answer: S. bovis

81
Q
A

Answer: Coxsackie viruses

82
Q
A

Answer: Coagulative necrosis

83
Q
A

Answer: Rheumatic heart disease

84
Q
A

Answer: 1-3 days

85
Q
A

Answer: 4-7 days

86
Q
A

Answer: Cardiac tamponade

Front chest x-ray demonstrates marked enlargement of the cardiac outline. This was due to pericardial effusion and is a good example of the water bottle sign. This refers to the shape of the cardiac silhouette on erect frontal chest x-rays in patients who have a very large pericardial effusion.