Cardiovascular 1/2 Flashcards

1
Q
A

Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

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2
Q
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Answer: colorectal carcinoma.

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3
Q
A

Answer: TSH

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4
Q
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Answer: Stroke volume

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5
Q
A

Answer: Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

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6
Q
A

Answer: AV node

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7
Q
A

Answer: Blocking calcium channels

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8
Q
A

Answer: Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue

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9
Q
A

Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome

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10
Q
A

Answer: Third-degree AV block

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11
Q
A

Answer: They block fast sodium channels

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12
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia

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13
Q
A

Answer: Coxsackievirus

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14
Q
A

Answer: Second-degree AV block (Type II)

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15
Q
A

Answer: Option D

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16
Q
A

Answer: Hypokalaemia

Note the presence of a U wave, with the associated flattened T wave. The merging of the T wave and the U wave is often misinterpreted as a prolonged or wide QRS; don’t fall for this common student trap! Also note the depressed ST segment, especially marked in Lead II. Causes of hypokalaemia include anorexia, chronic alcohol use, gepphagia, alkalosis, and thiazide/loop diuretics (among others).

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17
Q
A

Answer: Atrial Flutter

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18
Q
A

Answer: II, III, and aVF

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19
Q
A

Answer: Irregularly irregular

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20
Q
A

Answer: Left heart failure

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21
Q
A

Answer: Prolongation of the QT interval

Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line (see the image below). Torsade de pointes, often referred to as torsade, is associated with a prolonged QT interval, which may be congenital or acquired. Torsade usually terminates spontaneously but frequently recurs and may degenerate into ventricular fibrillation.

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22
Q
A

Answer: small but sustained inward current of calcium ions

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23
Q
A

Answer: Bundle branch block

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24
Q
A

Answer: First-degree AV block

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25
Q
A

Answer: Sinus bradycardia

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26
Q
A

Answer: Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels

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27
Q
A

Answer: Persistent elevation >1mm in 2 limb leads and elevation > 2mm in 2 contiguous chest leads.

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28
Q
A

Answer: 1st degree AV block

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29
Q
A

Answer: Amiodarone

For a patient with atrial fibrillation who has a normal left ventricular function and no coronary disease, flecainide is preferred. For a patient with atrial fibrillation who has left ventricular dysfunction (left ventricular ejection fraction less than 40%), or coronary disease, amiodarone is preferred as there is no negative inotropic effect.

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30
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular depolarisation, ventricular repolarisation, and atrial repolarisation

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31
Q
A

Answer: Sinus tachycardia

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32
Q
A

Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

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33
Q
A
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34
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

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35
Q
A

Answer: Digoxin

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36
Q
A

Answer: Atrial septal defect

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37
Q
A

Answer: Mitral valve regurgitation

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38
Q
A

Answer: Option A

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39
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation

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40
Q
A

Answer: K+ efflux

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41
Q
A

Answer: Bifascicular block

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42
Q
A

Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

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43
Q
A

Answer: Atrial flutter with variable block

The degree of AV block varies from 2:1 to 4:1

The diagnosis of flutter with variable block could be inferred here from the R-R intervals alone (e.g. if flutter waves were indistinct) — note how the R-R intervals during periods of 4:1 block are approximately double the R-R intervals during 2:1 block.

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44
Q
A

Answer: 2nd degree AV block, Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)

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45
Q
A

Answer: S. viridans

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46
Q
A

Answer: S. aureus

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47
Q
A

Answer: Subendocardial infarct

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48
Q
A

Answer: Atrial flutter with 4:1 block only

Atrial flutter with 4:1 block,

  • There is 4:1 block, resulting in a ventricular rate of 75 bpm.
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49
Q
A

Answer: Lignocaine

Lidocaine is a class IB anti-arrythmic drug that inhibits sodium channels, shortens repolarisation and decreases the QT interval.

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50
Q
A

Answer: Normal sinus rhythm

51
Q
A

Answer: Mitral stenosis

52
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

53
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia

This arrhythmia has such a fast rate that the P waves may not be seen.

Clinical Tip: SVT may be related to caffeine intake, nicotine, stress, or anxiety in healthy adults.

54
Q
A

Answer: Class III, Phase 3

55
Q
A

Answer: I, aVL, V5-6

56
Q
A
57
Q
A

Answer: His-Purkinje system

58
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

59
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

60
Q
A

Answer: Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase

Statins inhibit the hepatic synthesis of cholesterol. They do this by inhibiting HMG CoA reductase, the enzyme responsible for the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis.

61
Q
A
62
Q
A

Answer: Atrial flutter

There is a 2:1 AV block resulting in a ventricular rate of 150 bpm

63
Q
A
64
Q
A

Answer: atria and ventricles

65
Q
A

Answer: Activates PPARs and thus lipoprotein lipase

66
Q
A

Answer: First-degree AV block

PR Interval: Prolonged (>0.20 sec)

67
Q
A

Answer: Coagulative necrosis

68
Q
A

Answer: Phase 2

69
Q
A
70
Q
A

Answer: class IV; phase 2

71
Q
A

Answer: Second-degree AV block (Type I)

72
Q
A

Answer: CK-MB

73
Q
A

Answer: Fibrosis

74
Q
A

Answer: Systolic dysfunction

75
Q
A

Answer: Diastolic dysfunction

76
Q
A

Answer: Verapamil

Blocks L-type, voltage-gated, Ca2+ channels which are important in the action potential plateau and in particular affects action potential propagation in the SA and AV nodes. Shows use-dependence so is more active in tachyarrythmias. Decreases automaticity and slows AV conduction.

77
Q
A

Answer: Subendocardial ischaemia

Widespread subendocardial ischaemia due to LMCA occlusion

78
Q
A

Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

79
Q
A

Answer: Right coronary artery

80
Q
A
81
Q
A

Answer: Old inferior MI

82
Q
A

Answer: Second-degree AV block (Type I)

83
Q
A

Answer: Coagulative necrosis with interstitial infiltration of neutrophils

84
Q
A

Answer: Old inferior MI with first-degree heart block

85
Q
A

Answer: Phase 3

86
Q
A

Answer: class III; phase 3

87
Q
A

Answer: First-degree AV block

PR Interval: Prolonged (>0.20 sec)

88
Q
A

Answer: class II; phase 4

89
Q
A

Answer: Spironolactone

90
Q
A

Answer: 3rd heart sound

91
Q
A

Answer: Atrial systole

92
Q
A

Answer: Macrophage influx

93
Q
A
94
Q
A
95
Q
A

Answer: None of the above

96
Q
A
97
Q
A
98
Q
A

Answer: ECG changes in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6

99
Q
A

Answer: Mitral regurgitation

100
Q
A

Answer: Sinus tachycardia

101
Q
A

Answer: Rapid filling

102
Q
A

Answer: ST segment elevation with Q wave formation in the precordial leads (V1-6) ± the high lateral leads (I and aVL).

103
Q
A

Answer: 1. Funny Na+ channels are open, 2. Transient Ca2+ (T-type) channels open, 3. Long-lasting Ca2+ (L-type) channels open, 4. Opening of K+ channels and closing of Ca2+ (L-type) channels.

Note that the funny channels are called thus as they let sodium into the cell, but also let potassium out of the cell. This mixed permeability allows for a slow, but automatic, depolarisation of the cardiac pacemaker cell.

104
Q
A

Answer: Rhythm 1 and 4

Heart rhythms associated with cardiac arrest are divided into two groups: shockable rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VF/pVT)) and non-shockable rhythms (asystole and pulseless electrical activity (PEA)). The main difference in the treatment of these two groups is the need for attempted defibrillation in patients with VF/pVT.

105
Q
A
106
Q
A

Answer: Excess afterload

107
Q
A

Answer: LAD

108
Q
A

Answer: Aortic regurgitation

109
Q
A

Answer: Mitral regurgitation

110
Q
A

Answer: Severe aortic regurgitation is shorter in duration compared with mild aortic regurgitation.

111
Q
A

Answer: Ischaemia

112
Q
A

Answer: Splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions

113
Q
A

Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

114
Q
A

Answer: Aortic stenosis

115
Q
A

Answer: Diastasis

116
Q
A

Answer: Third-degree AV block

117
Q
A

Answer: Clopidogrel

118
Q
A

Answer: chronic obstructive airway disease

119
Q
A

Answer: Coagulative necrosis

120
Q
A

Answer: Posterior infarct

121
Q
A
122
Q
A

Answer: Option B

123
Q
A

Answer: Pericarditis

Patients presenting with acute pericarditis demonstrate diffuse ST segment elevation in all leads except aVR and V1 (see above).

124
Q
A

Answer: Tunica adventitia