Neuro-ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

A lesion in diencephalon will present with which nystagmus type?
● A. See-saw
● B. Convergence
● C. Retractorius
● D. Downbeat
● E. Upbeat

A

A. See-saw

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2
Q

Brun’s nystagmus is associated with lesion in which of the following?
● A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
● B. Lateral longitudinal fasciculus
● C. Pontomedullary junction
● D. Midbrain tegmentum
● E. Medulla

A

C. Pontomedullary junction

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3
Q

Low degree of papilledema with elevation of nasal margin, 360-degree disk swelling (circumferential halo) but no obscuration of major vessels on fundoscopy characterize which modified Frisen grade papilledema?
● A. Grade I
● B. Grade II
● C. Grade III
● D. Grade IV
● E. Grade V

A

B. Grade II

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4
Q

Homonymous superior quadrantanopsia in the contralateral visual field (“pie in the sky” deficit) is caused by lesion of which of the following?
● A. Optic tract
● B. Optic chiasma
● C. Meyer’s loop
● D. Optic radiation
● E. Occipital cortex

A

C. Meyer’s loop

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5
Q

Aneurysm of which of the following most commonly
presents with third nerve palsy?
● A. A comm
● B. P comm
● C. ACA
● D. MCA trifurcation
● E. DACA

A

B. P comm

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a part of complete Horner syndrome?
● A. Miosis
● B. Ptosis
● C. Enophthalmos
● D. Hyperemia of internal ear
● E. Anhidrosis of half of face

A

D. Hyperemia of internal ear

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia in young adults?
● A. Ocular tuberculosis
● B. Herpes zoster
● C. Congenital
● D. Multiple sclerosis
● E. Horner syndrome

A

D. Multiple sclerosis

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of pupil-sparing oculomotor palsy?
● A. Uncal herniation
● B. Diabetic neuropathy
● C. Atherosclerosis
● D. Giant cell arteritis
● E. Myasthenia gravis

A

A. Uncal herniation

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9
Q

Which of the following nerves is not involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome?
● A. III
● B. IV
● C. V1
● D. V2
● E. VI

A

D. V2

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10
Q

Mastoiditis with involvement of petrous apex presenting with classic triad of abducens palsy, retro-orbital pain, and draining ear is which of the following?
● A. Raeder’s neuralgia
● B. Tolosa Hunt syndrome
● C. Gradenigo’s syndrome
● D. Orbital apex syndrome
● E. Inferior orbital fissure syndrome

A

C. Gradenigo’s syndrome

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11
Q

Nystagmus is involuntary rhythmic oscillations of the eyes, usually conjugate, most common form of which is jerk nystagmus in which the direction of the nystagmus is defined by the direction of the fast component. A patient with structural lesion in the posterior fossa at the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation type 1, basilar impression, basilar impression, or syringobulbia has which type of nystagmus?
● A. Upbeat nystagmus
● B. Vestibular nystagmus
● C. Downbeat nystagmus
● D. See-saw nystagmus
● E. Convergence nystagmus

A

C. Downbeat nystagmus

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12
Q

Papilledema also known as choked optic is optic disk swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP is transmitted through the subarachnoid space of the optic nerve sheath to the region of the optic disk which causes axoplasmic stasis and papilledema. How long it typically takes to
develop papilledema after development of a sustained rise in ICP?
● A. 6 to 24 hours
● B. > 6 hours
● C. 12 to 24 hours
● D. 24 to 48 hours
● E. 48 to 72 hours

A

D. 24 to 48 hours

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13
Q

Papilledema can cause posterior globe flattening or elevation of the optic nerve head and dilatation of the optic nerve sheath (optic nerve sheath hydrops) which can be demonstrated on MRI or CT brain. Following statements regarding modified Frisen scale for papilledema on fundoscopic examination are correct except?
● A. Grade 0 is normal optic disk with minimal swelling of nasal margin, nerve fiber layer is clear, vessels are not obscured, and cup is also not obscured
● B. Grade 1 is minimal papilledema with 230-degree C-shaped swelling of nasal superior and inferior borders with normal temporal margin, and cup, if present, is maintained
● C. Grade 2 is low degree of papilledema with elevation of nasal margin, 360-degree disk swelling, and obscuration of major vessel starting from margins of disk
● D. Grade 3 is moderate degree of papilledema with elevation of entire disk, 360-degree disk swelling, obscuration of greater than or equal to 1 segment of major blood vessel at disk margin, and cup may be obscured
● E. Grade 4 is marked degree of papilledema with nerve fiber layer opaque, 360-degree disk swelling. Vessels obscured at disk margin, not completely obscured at disk surface

A

C. Grade 2 is low degree of papilledema with elevation of nasal margin, 360-degree disk swelling, and obscuration of major vessel starting from margins of disk

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14
Q

Which of the following is not an etiology of unilateral papilledema?
● A. Compressive lesions like intraorbital meningiomas, optic nerve sheath schwannoma, or optic nerve glioma
● B. Local inflammatory disorders
● C. Foster Kennedy syndrome
● D. Demyelinating disease such as multiple sclerosis
● E. Elevated ICP due to frontal lobe glioma

A

E. Elevated ICP due to frontal lobe glioma

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15
Q

The normal eye can detect stimuli as far as 60 degrees superiorly, 70 degrees inferiorly, 60 degrees nasally, and 100 degrees temporally. Confrontational method is a bed side test to
detect any gross peripheral field defect while Humphrey visual field, octopus perimeters, and Goldmann perimetry are more accurate in detecting visual field defect. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
● A. Optic nerve and knee of Wilbrand injury on one side will cause junctional scotoma of ipsilateral eye (monocular blindness) while superior temporal quadrantanopsia of the same side eye
● B. Injury to optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia
● C. Injury to right optic nerve or optic radiation causes left homonymous hemianopia with macular splitting of the left visual field
● D. Injury to right Meyer’s loop causes homonymous left superior quadrantanopsia with macular sparing of left visual field
● E. Partial lesion of right optic radiation or visual cortex causes left homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing of left visual field

A

A. Optic nerve and knee of Wilbrand injury on one side will cause junctional scotoma of ipsilateral eye (monocular blindness) while superior temporal quadrantanopsia of the same side eye

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16
Q

Macular splitting can occur both in lesions anterior and posterior to lateral geniculate body (LGB) while macular sparing tends to occur in lesions posterior to LGB. Homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing usually occurs with the lesion of the optic radiation or infarcts of the primary visual cortex.
What is the reason for macular sparing in lesions posterior to LGB?
● A. Input from macula is spread over large portion of optic radiation or primary visual cortex
● B. In some cases the occipital pole receives dual blood supply
● C. Occipital pole receives anomalous blood supply from the MCA
● D. Macula is resistant to lesion in this area
● E. A, B, and C

A

E. A, B, and C

17
Q

A patient presents with ipsilateral central scotoma and contralateral superior temporal quadrantanopsia. This condition is
also called as anterior chiasmal syndrome. This injury occurs due to which of the following?
● A. Lesion causing this deficit is close to anterior chiasma
● B. Ipsilateral optic nerve injury
● C. Damage to decussating knee of Wilbrand fibers
● D. All of the above
● E. Damage to only optic nerve close to chiasma

A

D. All of the above

18
Q

Pupillodilator muscle fibers are sympathetically innervated and are arranged radially in iris while pupilloconstrictor muscles are parasympathetically innervated and are arranged as sphincter in the iris. Which statement is incorrect regarding the path of sympathetic fibers for pupilodilator muscles?
● A. First-order neuron arises in the anteromedial hypothalamus and descends uncrossed in the lateral tegmentum of the midbrain, pons, medulla, and the cervical spinal cord
● B. Second-order neurons arise from intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord from C8 to T1 (ciliospinal center of Budge-Waller) which are preganglionic fibers. These exit at T1 and ascend in sympathetic chain
● C. Third-order neurons arise from superior cervical ganglion also known as postganglionic and ascend with common carotid artery
● D. Postganglionic fibers follow ICA through carotid canal, carotid sinus where they follow the 6th nerve and accompany V1 into orbit, then these enter ciliary ganglion and supply pupilodilator muscle
● E. Some fibers travel with ophthalmic artery to supply lacrimal gland and Muller’s muscle

A

A. First-order neuron arises in the anteromedial hypothalamus and descends uncrossed in the lateral tegmentum of the midbrain, pons, medulla, and the cervical spinal cord

19
Q

Pupillary light reflex involves cranial nerves 2, 3, neurons in Edinger-Westphal nucleus, and pretectal nuclear complex. Which of the following is true regarding pupillary light reflex?
● A. Cranial nerve 2 acts as afferent pathway
● B. Cranial nerve 2 fibers of light reflex lead to pretectal nuclear complex of superior colliculus without synapsing in the lateral geniculate body
● C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus is a parasympathetic motor nuclei
● D. Efferent is carried by the 3rd nerve
● E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

20
Q

Light near dissociation is pupillary constriction of convergence but absence of light response. This condition can occur with syphilis, Parinaud’s syndrome, oculomotor neuropathy, or Adie’s pupil. What is this condition called?
● A. Argyll Robertson pupil
● B. Marcus Gunn pupil
● C. Swinging flashlight pupil
● D. Anisocoria
● E. None of the above

A

A. Argyll Robertson pupil