Neuro 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three routes of botulism infection

A

food borne
wound
infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Meningoencephalitis in HIv+ pts

A

cryptococcus neoformans.
latex agglutination detects polysaccharide capsule
round budding yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AE of Thioridazine

A

Low potency typical anti-psychotic

retinal deposits that resemble retinitis pigmentosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AE of Chlorpromazine

A

Low potency typical anti-psychotic

corneal deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AE of Haloperidol

A

High potency typical anti-psychotic

extrapyramidal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AE of Ziprasidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

prolonged QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AE of Olanzapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AE of Clozapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

agranulocytosis and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MOA of buspirone

A

selective agonist of the 5HT1A receptor
only used for GAD, not panic disorder or specific phobias
takes up to two weeks to start working, can’t be used as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which patients is buspirone especially useful in?

A

History of abuse of anti-anxiety drugs

minimal hypnotic effects, so less likely to be abused compared to benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Functions of CN IX

A

somatomotor: stylopharyngeus
Parasympathetic: inferior salivatory nucleus -> otic ganglion-> parotid gland secretion
general sensory: inner surface of tympanic membrane, Eustachian tube, posterior 1/3 of tongue, tonsiliar region, and upper pharynx, carotid body, and carotid sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common cause and location of lacunar infarcts

A

cause: hypertensive arteriosclerosis of small penetrating arterioles
location: basal ganglia, pons, internal capsule, deep white matter of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is lithium excreted? What does that mean for it’s therapeutic window?

A

In the kidneys just like sodium
Means that renal injury, toxins and drugs that lead to increased proximal tubular absorption of sodium (thiazide diuretics, NSAIDS, ACE inhibitors) increase risk of toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you acutely reduce blood lithium levels?

A

Hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine
Can cause aplastic anemia and is a P450 inducer
Anti-epileptic and mood stabalizer (increases stability of inactive Na voltage gated channels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What effect of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be permenant

A

memory loss and confabulation

17
Q

Major difference between serotonin syndrome and neuroepileptic syndrome

A

serotonin syndrome: myoclonus

NMS: presence of rigidity

18
Q

Presentation of NMS

A
  1. hyperthermia
  2. extreme generalized rigidity
  3. autonomic instability
  4. altered mental status
19
Q

What drugs are used to decreased mortality in NMS

A

bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

Direct muscle relaxant (dantrolene)

20
Q

Cause of weight gain, dry skin, hair loss, and constipation while on lithium therapy

A

lithium induced hypothyroidism

Lithium can also cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

21
Q

What brith defects can be caused by lithium

A

fetal cardiac malformations, esp Ebsteins anomaly of the tricuspid valve.

22
Q

AE of Risperidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

symptoms of hyperprolactinemia: galactorrhea and amenorrhea

23
Q

Microscopic findings in prion diseases

A

vacuoles in gray matter with no inflammatory changes

24
Q

Where does CN V3 exit the skull? What muscles does it innervate?

A

foramen ovale

innervates muscles of mastication

25
Q

Difference between neostigmine/edrophonium and physostigmine

A

physostigmine can cross BBB and decrease block cholinesterase in the CNS, while neostigmine/edrophonium cannot cross into CNS

26
Q

Difference in findings between hydrocephalus and hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A

In ex vacuo, there is no increased pressure

27
Q

capillary hemangioblastomas in retina/cerebellum
congenital cysts/neoplasms in kidney, liver, and pancreas
increased risk for bilateral renal cell carcinoma

A

von Hippel Lindau

28
Q

Neurofibromas
optic nerve gliomas
Lisch nodules
cafe-au-lait spots

A

NF-1

29
Q

bilateral acoustic neurommas and multiple meningiomas

A

NF-2

30
Q
cutaneous facial angiomas
leptomeningial angiomas
mental retardation
seizures
hemiplegia
skull radiopacities
A

Sturge-Weber

31
Q

cutaneous angiofibromas (adeonoma sebaceum)
visceral cysts
other hamartomas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

32
Q

congenital telangiectasias

epistaxis, GI bleeding, hematuria

A

Osler-Weber-Redu

33
Q

What are the four first generation anti-histamines

A

hydroxyzine, promethazine, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine

34
Q

What antibiotic is given for suspected listeria monocytogenes infection?

A

ampicillin