Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A-Step 1 > ALL THE DRUGS > Flashcards

ALL THE DRUGS Flashcards

1
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Binds to cyclophilins. Complex blocks differentiation and activation of T-cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus preventing production of IL-2 and its receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tacrolimus (FK506)

A

Like cyclosporine; binds to FK binding protein, inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Azathioprine

A

Antimetabolite precursor of 6-mercaptopurine that interferes with the metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

A

Monoclonal Antibody that binds to CD3 on T-cell surface. Blocks cellular interaction with CD3 protein responsible for T-cell signal transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sirolimus

A

Binds to mTOR. Inhibits T-cell proliferation in response to IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mycophenolate motefil

A

inhibits de novo guanine synthesis; block lymphocyte proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

daclizumab

A

mAb with high affinity for IL-2R on activated T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Heparin

A

cofactor for activation of antithrombin III. Decreases thrombin and Xa. Short half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

LMW heparin

A

acts more on Xa, longer half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lepirudin bivalirudin agrotroban

A

directly inhibit thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Warfarin

A

interferes with gamma carboxylation and synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors 2,7,9,10 and anticoagulation factors Protein C, S. Metabolized by cytoP450. Long half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Streptokinase Urokinase tPA(alteplase) anistreplase

A

Aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots. Increases PT, PTT, no change in platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aspirin

A

Acetylates and irreversibly inhibits COX to prevent conversion of AA to TXA2 . Increases BT. No effect on PT, PTT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clopidogrel Ticlopidine

A

inhibit platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking ADP receptors. Inhibit fibrinogen binding by preventing Glycoprotein 2b/3a expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Abciximab

A

mAb that binds to gp2b/3a receptor on activated platelets, preventing aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methotrexate

A

Folic acid analog. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. Decreases dTMP, DNA, protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5-Flurouracil (5-FU)

A

Pyrimidine analog. Activated to 5F-dUMP, which covalently complexes folic acid. This complex inhibits thymidylate synthase leading to decreased dTMP, DNA, and protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP)

A

Purine analog. Decrease de novo purine synthesis. Activated by HGPRTase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

6-thioguanine (6-TG)

A

Same as 6-MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cytarabine

A

Pyrimidine antagonist. Inhibition of DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dactinomycin (Actinomycin D)

A

intercalates in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

doxorubicin (adriamycin) daunorubicin

A

generates free radicals. Noncovalently intercalates in DNA and causes DNA breaks and decreased replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bleomycin

A

G2 phase specific. Induces free radicals which cause breaks in DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Etoposide Teniposide

A

Late S to G2 phase specific. Inhibits DNA topo 2 leading to increased DNA degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cyclophosphamide ifosphamide

A

Covalently X-link DNA at guaning N-7. Require bioactivation by liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nitrosoureas - Carmustine Lomustine Semustine Streptozocin

A

Require bioactivation. Cross BBB into CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Busulfan

A

Alkylates DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vincristine Vinblastine

A

bind to tubulin in M phase and block polymerization of microtubules so that the mitotic spindle can’t form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Paclitaxel

A

hyperstabilize polymerized microtubules in M phase so that mitotic spindle cannot break down (preventing anaphase).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cisplatin Carboplatin

A

Cross links DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

Inhibits Ribonucleotide Reductase - decreases DNA synthesis. S-phase specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tamoxifen Raloxifene

A

SERM - receptor antagonist in breast, agonists in bone; block binding of estrogen to ER+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

mAb against HER-2 (erb-B2). Kills breast cancer that overexpress HER-2, possibly through antibody dependent cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Imatinib (Gleevec)

A

Philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bethanecol

A

Muscarinic Agonist. Activates Bowel and Bladder smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Carbachol

A

Muscarinic Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Muscarinic Agonist. Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, and saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Methacholine

A

Muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Neostigmine

A

increases endogenous Ach; no CNS penetration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

increases endogenous Ach; increases strength; no CNS penetration; long-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Edrophonium

A

increases endogenous Ach; extremely short-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Physostigmine

A

increases endogenous Ach; Crosses BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Echothiophate

A

increases endogenous Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Atropine

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

homatropine tropicamide

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

benztropine

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

scopolamine

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ipratropium

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

oxybutynin glycopyrrolate

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

metscopolamine pirenzepine propanetheline

A

muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hexamethonium

A

nicotinic antagonist (ganglionic blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Epinephrine

A

a1, a2, B1, B2 agonists. Low doses selective for B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Norepinephrine

A

a1, a2 > B1 agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Isoproterenol

A

B1 = B2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dopamine

A

D1 = D2 > B > a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1 > B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Phenylephrine

A

a1 > a2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Metaproterenol albuterol salmeterol terbutaline

A

B2 > B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ritrodine

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Amphetamine

A

releases stored catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ephedrine

A

releases stored catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cocaine

A

catecholamine uptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Clonidine alpha-methyldopa

A

centrally acting a2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible); Phentolamine (reversible)

A

nonselective alpha blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Prazosin Terazosin Doxazosin

A

a1 blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mirtazapine

A

a2 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Propranolol Timolol Nadolol Pindolol

A

nonselective beta blockers (pindolol is partial B Ag at high levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Acebutolol Betaxolol Esmolol Atenolol Metoprolol

A

B1 > B2 blocker; (acetbutolol is a partial B Ag, esmolol is short-acting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Carvedilol Labetalol

A

nonselective alpha and beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Hydralazine

A

increases cGMP which leads to smooth muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Minoxidil

A

potassium channel opener - hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nifedipine Verapamil Diltiazem

A

Block voltage-gated L-type potassium channels of cardiac and smooth muscle and thereby reduce muscle contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Nitroglycerin, Isosorbide dinitrate

A

Vasodilate by releasing NO in smooth muscle, causing increased cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation. Dilate veins»arteries. Decrease preload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Nitroprusside

A

Short acting. Increase cGMP via direct release of NO. Can cause cyanide toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Dopamine D1 receptor agonist-relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Diazoxide

A

Potassuim Channel Opener-hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Nitrates, B-Blockers, Calcium Channel Blockers

A

Nitrates and Nifedipine decrease preload. B-Blockers and Verapamil decrease afterload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Digoxin

A

Direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger antiport. Increases intracellular calcium leading to positive inotropy. Stimulates vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Quinidine Procainamide Disopyramide

A

Na channel blocker. Increases ERP and QT interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Lidocaine Mexilitine Tocainide Phenytoin

A

Na channel blocker. Decrease AP duration. Preferentially affect ishemic or depolarized Purkinje and ventricular tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Flecainide Encainide Propafenone

A

Na channel blocker. No effect on AP duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Propranolol Esmolol Metoprolol Atenolol Timolol

A

B-Blockers. Decrease cAMP, decrease Ca currents. Supress abnormal pacemakers by decreased slope of phase 4. AV node particularly sensitive - increases PR interval. Esmolol is very short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Sotalol Ibutilide Bretylium Dofetilide Amiodarone

A

Block K channels. Increase AP duration, increase ERP. Increases QT interval. Amiodarone has class I, II, III, and IV effects because it alters the lipid membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Verapamil Diltiazem

A

Ca-channel blocker. Primarily affect AV nodal cells. Decreases conduction velocity, increases ERP, increases PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Adenosine

A

Causes K efflux from cell, hyperpolarizing the cell and decreasing intracellular Ca. Very short acting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Potassium

A

Depresses ectopic pacemakers in hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Lovastatin Pravastatin Simvastatin Atorvastatin Rosuvastatin

A

Inhibits cholesterol precursor, mevalonate. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Niacin

A

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduces hepatic VLDL secretion into cirulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cholestyramine Colestipol Colesevelam

A

Bile acid resins. Prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Cholesterol absorption blocker. Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at small intestine brush border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Gemfibrozil Clofibrate Bezafibrate Fenofibrate

A

Upregulate Lipoprotein Lipase, increasing TAG clearance

92
Q

Cimetidine Ranitidine Famotidine Nizatidine

A

Reversible block of histamine H2 receptors leading to decreased H+ (proton) secretion by parietal cells

93
Q

Omeprazole Lansoprazole

A

Proton pump inhibitors. Irreversibly inhibit H/K ATPase in stomach parietal cells

94
Q

Bismuth Sucralafate

A

Bind to ulcer base, providing physical protection and allowing bicarb secretion to reestablish pH gradient in the mucous layer

95
Q

Misoprostol

A

PGE1 analog. Increase production of gastric mucous barrier, decreases acid production

96
Q

Pirenzepine Proprantheline

A

Muscarinic Antagonists. Block M1 receptors on ECL cells (decrease histamine secretion) and M3 receptors on parietal cells (decrease H+ secretion)

97
Q

Aluminum OH

A

Antacid. Affects absorption, bioavailability of other drugs by altering gastric pH or by delaying gastric emptying

98
Q

Magnesium OH

A

Antacid. Affects absorption, bioavailability of other drugs by altering gastric pH or by delaying gastric emptying

99
Q

Calcium Carbonate

A

Antacid. Affects absorption, bioavailability of other drugs by altering gastric pH or by delaying gastric emptying

100
Q

Infliximab

A

mAb to TNF

101
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

combination of slufapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammatory). Activated by colonic bacteria

102
Q

Ondasetron

A

5-HT3 antagonist. Powerful central-acting antiemetic

103
Q

Metoclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonist. Increase resting tone, contractility, LES tone, motility. Does not influence colon transport time

104
Q

Lispro (SA) Aspart (SA) Regular (SA) NPH (IA) Glargine (LA) Detemir (LA)

A

Bind insulin receptor. Liver: increase glucose stored as glycogen. Muscle: increases glycogen and protein synthesis, and potassium uptake. Fat: aids TAG storage

105
Q

Tolbutamide Chlorpropamide

A

1st gen sulfonylureas. Close K channel in B-islet cell membrane, depolarizing cell and triggering insulin release via increased Ca influx

106
Q

Glyburide Glimepiride Glipizide

A

2nd gen sulfonylureas. Close K channel in B-islet cell membrane, depolarizing cell and triggering insulin release via increased Ca influx

107
Q

Metformin

A

Biguanide. Possibly decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glycolysis, decreases serum glucose levels. Insulin sensitizer

108
Q

Pioglitazone Rosiglitazone

A

increase insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue

109
Q

Acarbose Miglitol

A

Inhibit intestinal brush border alpha-glucosidases. Delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose absorption leads to decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

110
Q

Pramlintide

A

decreases glucagon

111
Q

Exenatide

A

GLP-1 mimetic: increases insulin and decreases glucagon release

112
Q

Orlistat

A

alters fat metabolism by inhibiting pancreating lipases

113
Q

Sibutramine

A

Sypmathomimetic serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

114
Q

Propylthiouracil

A

inhibit organification of iodide and coupling of thyroid hormone synthesis. Also decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

115
Q

Methimazole

A

inhibit organification of iodide and coupling of thyroid hormone synthesis

116
Q

Levothyroxine Triiodothyronine

A

thyroxine replacement

117
Q

Demeclocycline

A

ADH antagonist

118
Q

Hydrocortisone Prednisone Triamcinolone Dexamethasone Beclomethasone

A

Glucocorticoids. Decreases the production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

119
Q

Aspirin

A

Irreversibly inhibits COX by covalent bonding, which decreases synthesis of both thromboxane and prostaglandins

120
Q

Ibuprofen Naproxen Indomethacin Ketorolac

A

NSAIDs. Reversibly inhibit COX. Blocks prostaglandin synthesis.

121
Q

Celecoxib

A

Selective COX-2 inhibitor. Reversibly inhibits COX-2, which is found in inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium and mediates inflammation and pain. Spares COX-1 which helps maintain the gastric mucosa.

122
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Reversibly inhibits COX, mostly in CNS. Inactivated peripherally

123
Q

Etidronate Pamidronate Alendronate Risedronate

A

Bisphosphonates. Inhibits osteoclastic activity; reduces both formation and resorption of hydroxyapatite

124
Q

Colchicine

A

Binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation.

125
Q

Probenecid

A

Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT (also inhibits secretion of penicillin)

126
Q

Allopurinol

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase. Decreases conversion of xanthine to uric acid.

127
Q

Etanercept

A

Recombinant form of human TNF receptor that binds TNF

128
Q

Infliximab

A

Anti-TNF antibody

129
Q

Adalimumab

A

Directly binds TNF-a receptor sites

130
Q

Epinephrine

A

alpha agonist. Decreases aqueous humor due to vasoconstiction

131
Q

Brimonidine

A

alpha agonist. Decreases aqueous humor synthesis

132
Q

Timolol Betaxolol Carteolol

A

beta blockers. Decreases aqueous humor secretion

133
Q

acetazolamide

A

decreases aqueous humor secretion due to decreased bicard via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

134
Q

Pilocarpine Carbachol

A

Direct cholinomimetics. Contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork

135
Q

Physostigmine Echothophate

A

Indirect cholinomimetics. Contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork

136
Q

Latanoprost

A

PGF-2a. Increases outflow of aqueous humor

137
Q

Morphine Fentanyl Codeine Heroin Methadone Meperidine

A

Acts as agonists at opioid receptors to modulate synaptic transmission. Opens K channels and closes Ca channels leading to decreased synaptic transmission. Inhibit release of Ach, NE, 5-HT, glutamate, and substance P.

138
Q

Dextromorphan

A

Opioid agonist

139
Q

Loperamide Diphenoxylate

A

Opioid agonist

140
Q

Butorphanol

A

Agonist at kappa receptors. Partial Agonist at mu receptors

141
Q

Tramadol

A

Weak opioid agonist. Inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake

142
Q

Phenytoin

A

Use-dependent blockade of Na channels; Increases refractory period; inhibits glutamate release from excitatory presynaptic neuron

143
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Increases Na channel inactivation (similar to phenytoin

144
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Blocks voltage gated Na channels

145
Q

Gabapentin

A

GABA analog, but primarily works by inhibiting HVA calcium channels

146
Q

Topiramate

A

Blocks Na channels, increases GABA action

147
Q

Phenobarbital Pentobarbital Thiopental Secobarbital

A

Barbituates. Facilitate GABAa action by increasing duration of Cl channel opening, thus decreasing neuron firing

148
Q

Diazepam Lorazepam Chlordiazepoxide Midazolam Alprazolam Triazolam Temezepam Oxazepam

A

Benzodiazepines. Facilitate GABAa action by increasing frequency of Cl channel opening. Decreases REM sleep.

149
Q

Valproic Acid

A

Increases Na channel inactivation, increases GABA concentration

150
Q

Ethosuximide

A

Blocks thalamic T-type Ca channels

151
Q

Tiagabine

A

Inhibits GABA reuptake

152
Q

Vigabatrin

A

Irreversibly inhibits GABA transaminase, increasing GABA

153
Q

Levetiracetam

A

unknown. May modulate GABA and glutamate release

154
Q

Halothane Enflurane Isoflurane Sevoflurane Methoxyflurane Nitrous Oxide

A

Mechanism unknown.

155
Q

Thiopental

A

Barb. High potency, high lipid solubility. Effect terminated by rapid redistribution into tissue and fat.

156
Q

Midazolam

A

Benzo.

157
Q

Ketamine

A

PCP analog. Blocks NMDA receptors.

158
Q

Morphine Fentanyl

A

opiates

159
Q

Propofol

A

Potentiates GABAa.

160
Q

Procaine Cocaine Tetracaine Lidocaine Mepivacaine Bupivacaine

A

Block Na channels by binding to specific receptors on inner portion of channel. Preferentially bind to activated Na channels, so most effective in rapidly firing neurons

161
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Selective for motor nicotinic receptor.

162
Q

Tubocurarine Atracurium Mivacurium Pancuronium Vecuronium Rocuronium

A

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Competes with Ach for receptors

163
Q

Dantrolene

A

Prevents the release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

164
Q

Bromocriptine Pergolide Pramiprexole Ropinirole

A

Agonize dopamine receptors. Pergolide is an ergot and a partial agonist. Ropinirole in a non-ergot. Non-ergots are preferred

165
Q

Amantadine

A

Increases Dopamine release

166
Q

L-dopa/carbidopa

A

Increases dopamine in CNS. L-dopa can cross BBB and is converted by dopa decarboxylase in the CNS to dopamine.

167
Q

Selegiline

A

Selective MAO type B inhibitor, which preferentially metabolizes Dopamine over NE and 5-HT. Prevents pre-synaptic dopamine breakdown

168
Q

Entacapone Tolcapone

A

COMT inhibitors. Prevents post-synaptic L-dopa degradation, thereby increasing dopamine availability

169
Q

Benztropine

A

Antimuscarinic. Curbs excess cholinergic activity

170
Q

Memantine

A

NDMA receptor antagonist; helps prevent excitotoxicity (mediated by Ca)

171
Q

Donepozil Galantamine Rivastigmine

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

172
Q

Reserpine Terbenazine

A

Amine depletors

173
Q

Haloperidol

A

dopamine receptor antagonist

174
Q

Sumatriptan

A

5-HT 1B/1D agonist. Causes vasoconstriction, inhibition of trigeminal activation and vasoactive peptide release.

175
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A

increase presynaptic NE vesicular release (similar to amphetamines)

176
Q

Haloperidol Trifluoperazine Fluphenazine Thioridazine Chlorpromazine

A

Typical antipsychotics. Block D2 receptors. Increase cAMP.

177
Q

Olanzapine Clozapine Quetiapine Risperidone Aripiprazole Ziprasidone

A

Atypical antipsychotics. Block 5-HT2, alpha, H1, and dopamine receptors.

178
Q

Lithium

A

possibly inhibits phosphoinositol cascade

179
Q

Buspirone

A

Stimulates 5-HT-1a receptors

180
Q

Imipramine Amitriptyline Despiramine Nortriptyline Clomimpramine Doxepin Amoxapine

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants. Block reuptake of NE AND serotonin.

181
Q

Fluoxetine Paroxetine Sertraline Citalopram

A

SSRI.

182
Q

Venlafaxine Duloxetine

A

Inhibit serotonin and NE reuptake

183
Q

Phenelzine Tranylcypromine Isocarboxazid Selegiline (selective for MAO-B)

A

inhibits MAO leading to increased levels of amine neurotransmitters

184
Q

Bupropion

A

Atypical antidepressant. Increases NE and dopamine via unknown mechanism.

185
Q

Mirtazapine

A

a2 antagonist increases NE and serotonin release. Potent 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 antagonist

186
Q

Maprotiline

A

Blocks NE reuptake

187
Q

Trazodone

A

Primarily inhibits serotonin reuptake.

188
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretic. Increases tubular fluid osmolarity, producing increased renal flow

189
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbon anhydrase inhibitor. Causes self-limited NaHCO3 diuresis and reduction in total-body HCO3 stores

190
Q

Furosemide

A

Sulfonamide loop diuretic. Inhibits Na/K/2Cl cotransporter of thick ascending limb. Abolishes hypertonicity of medulla, preventing concentration of urine

191
Q

Ethacrynic acid

A

phenoxyacetic acid derivative (not a sulfonamide). Essentially same action as furosemide

192
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Thiazide diuretic. Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in early distal tubule, reducing diluting capacity of the nephron. Decreases Ca excretion

193
Q

Spironolactone Eplerenone

A

Potassium Sparing Diuretics. Competetive aldosterone receptor antagonist in the cortical collecting tubule

194
Q

Triamterene Amiloride

A

Potassium Sparing Diuretic. Block Na channels in the cortical collecting tubule

195
Q

Captopril Enalapril Lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitors. Reduce levels of angiotensin II and prevent inactivation of bradykinin, a potent vasodilator. Increases renin release

196
Q

Leuprolide

A

GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion; antagonist when used in continuos fashion.

197
Q

Testosterone

A

Agonist at androgen receptors

198
Q

Finasteride

A

Antiandrogen. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, decreasing conversion of testosterone to DHT.

199
Q

Flutamide

A

Antiandrogen. Nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor.

200
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Antiandrogen. Inhibits desmolase, inhibiting steroid synthesis

201
Q

Spironolactone

A

Antiandrogen. Inhibits steroid binding

202
Q

Ethinyl estradiol DES Mestranol

A

Bind estrogen receptors

203
Q

Clomiphene

A

SERM. Partial agonis at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus. Prevents normal feedback inhibition and increases release of LH an FSH from pitiutary, which stimulates ovulation.

204
Q

Tamoxifen

A

SERM. Antagonist in breast tissue

205
Q

Raloxifene

A

SERM. Agonist on bone. Reduces resorption of bone

206
Q

Estrogen Progesterone

A

Hormone replacement therapy

207
Q

Anastrozole Exemestane

A

Aromatase inhibitors

208
Q

Progestins

A

Bind progesterone receptors, reduce growth and increase vascularization of endometrium

209
Q

mifepristone (RU-486)

A

competitive inhibitor of progestins at progesterone receptors

210
Q

Dinoprostone

A

PGE2 analog; causes cervical dilation and uterine contraction

211
Q

Ritodrine Terbutaline

A

B2 agonists that relax the uterus;

212
Q

Tamsulosin

A

a1 antagonist; inhibits smooth muscle contration. Selective for a1A,D receptors in prostate

213
Q

Sildenafil Vardenafil

A

inhibit cGMP phosphodiesterase, causing increased cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation in corpus cavernosum, increased blood flow, and penile erection

214
Q

Diphenhydramine Dimenhydrinate Chlorpheniramine

A

1st gen antihistamine. Reversible inhibitors of H1 histamine receptors

215
Q

Loratidine Fexofenadine Desloratadine Cetirizine

A

2nd gen antihistamines. Reversible inhibitors of H1 histamine receptors

216
Q

Guaifenesin

A

expectorant.

217
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

expectorant. Mucolytic - reduces intermolecular disulfide bridges

218
Q

Bosentan

A

Competitively antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors, decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance

219
Q

Isoproterenol

A

nonspecific B-agonist. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (B2).

220
Q

Albuterol

A

B2 agonist. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (B2).

221
Q

Salmeterol

A

B2 agonist. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (B2).

222
Q

Theophylline

A

Methylxanthine. Causes bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, thereby reducing cAMP hydrolysis

223
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist. Competitively blocks muscarinic receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction

224
Q

Cromolyn

A

Prevents release of mediators from mast cells.

225
Q

Beclosmethasone Prednisone

A

corticosteroids. Inhibits the synthesis of virtually all cytokines. Inactivates NF-kB, the transcription factor that induces the production of TNF-a, among other inflammatory agents.

226
Q

Zileuton

A

Antileukotriene. A 5-LOX pathway inhibitor. Blocks conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotrienes

227
Q

Montelukast Zafirlukast

A

Antileukotriene. Blocks leukotriene receptors.

A-Step 1 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions