Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Zero to finals > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

difference between ischaemia and infraction

A

ischaemia= reduced tissue supply
infarction= death of tissue due to reduced blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what tool is use to identify stroke in an acute medical setting

A

ROSIER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how are TIAs mx

A

start 300mg aspirin daily

refer to a specialist TIA clinic within 24 hrs (within 7 days if it was more than 7 days ago)

diffusion weighted MRI scan to image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how are TIAs imaged

A

diffusion weighted MRI scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is aspirin given in suspected stroke

A

300 mg daily for 2 weeks

start after haemorrhage excluded by CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is blood pressure managed in a stroke

A

blood pressure is not lowered in ischaemic stroke

blood pressure is agressively lowered in haemorrhagic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

alteplase moa

A

tissue plasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in what time frame of presentation is thrombectomy done for stroke

A

within 4.5 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when is thrombectomy indicated in stroke

A

complete block of the posterior or anterior circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what 2 conditions are screened for when someone has a IA or stroke

A

carotid artery stenosis
AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

secondary prevention of stroke

A

ABCD
atorvastatin 20-80mg
blood pressure control
clopidogrel 75mg daily
diabetes control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what dose of statin is given in secondary prevention of stroke and when

A

20-80mg atorvastatin
not immediately delay by 48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is given for secondary preventation of stroke/TIA when clopidogrel cant be given

A

aspirin plus dipyrimadole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

blood vessel implicated in extradural haemorrhage

A

middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

blood vessels implicated in subdural haemorrhage

A

bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is CT reliable for imaging in an SAH

A

first 6 hrs
after this its less reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how many hrs after CT head should lumbar puncture be done in SAH

A

after 12 hrs (to allow for build up of bilirubin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what medication is given after SAH to prevent vasospasm

A

nimodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what part of the nervous system does multiple sclerosis affect

A

central
specifically oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

symptoms of optic neuritis

A

unilateral loss of vision
enlarged blind spot (central scotoma)
opthalmoplegia
red desaturation (impaired colour vision)
relative afferent pupillary defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is RAPD

A

when the pupillary light reflex is reduced when shining a light into the affected eye, but the consensual reflex in the affected when shining a light into the normal eye is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

causes of optic neuritis

A

MS
sarcoidosis
SLE
measles/mumps
lyme disease
syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

optic neuritis mx

A

high dose steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is intranuclear opthalmoplegia

A

a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (connects the cranial nerve nuclei that control eye movements)

there is impaired adduction in the affected eye and nystagmus in the contralateral eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what eye movement abnormality is seen in intranuclear opthalmoplegia

A

inability to adduct the affected eye and nystagmus on abduction in the other eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lhermittes sign

A

electric shock like pain down the spine when flexing the neck- occurs due to demyelination in the spine in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

2 types of ataxia

A

sensory
cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what sign is positive in sensory ataxia

A

rombergs

29
Q

a lesion in what spinal column causes sensory ataxia

A

dorsal column

30
Q

lumbar puncture results in MS

A

may find oligoclonal bands

31
Q

what is progressive bulbar palsy

A

a type of motor neurone disease that primarily affects the muscles of talking and swallowing

32
Q

what medication can be given in MS to slow progression

A

riluzole

33
Q

what is affected in MND

A

upper and lower motor neurones

34
Q

triad of parkinsons disease

A

resting tremor
bradykinesia
rigidity

35
Q

tremor in parkinsons disease

A

unilateral
pill rolling
worse when distracted/nit using the hand

36
Q

what is rigidity

A

resistance to the passive movement of a joint

37
Q

how does alcohol affect a benign essential tremor

A

improves with alcohol

38
Q

what are the 4 parkinsons plus syndromes

A

multiple system atrophy
progressive supranuclear palsy
dementia with lewy bodies
corticobasal degeneration

39
Q

main side effect of levodopa

A

dyskinesia

this could be dystonia, athetosis or chorea

40
Q

what can be given with levodopa to reduce dyskinesia sx

A

amantadine

41
Q

what are COMT inhibitors

A

they reduce the metabolisation of levodopa

used in parkinsons

42
Q

prolonged use of dopamine agonists can cause

A

pulmonary fibrosis

43
Q

monoamine oxidase b inhibitors moa

A

reduce the breakdown of dopamine, serotonin adrenaline

used in parkinsons

44
Q

dopamine agonist examples

A

bromocriptine
cabergoline

45
Q

COMT inhibitors example

A

entacapone

46
Q

monoamine oxidase b inhibitors

A

selegiline
rasagiline

47
Q

medications for benign essential tremor

A

propanolol

48
Q

describe a benign essential tremor

A

a bilateral symmetrical tremor
worse on intentional movement
better with alcohol
worse with caffeine, stress, tired
not present when asleep

49
Q

differentials for tremor

A

benign essential tremor
parkinsons
MS
hyperthyroidism
huntingtons chorea
antipsychotics

50
Q

are patients awake and aware in focal seizures

A

awake yes
aware if simple, not aware if complex

51
Q

describe a tonic clonic seizure

A

period of muscle tensing followed by a period of muscle jerking

52
Q

describe a myoclonic seizure

A

sudden brief muscle contractions, patients are awake

53
Q

describe a tonic seizure

A

sudden onset increased muscle tone, may result in a fall

54
Q

describe an atonic seizure

A

sudden loss in muscle tone, often results in a fall

55
Q

what are infantile spasms also known as

A

west syndrome

56
Q

what is found on EEG in infantile spasm

A

hypsarrhythmia

57
Q

seizure medications for men/ non child bearing women

A

sodium valproate first line apart from

lamotrigine/ levitiracetam for focal seizure

ethosuximide for absence seizure

58
Q

seizure medications for women

A

lamotrigine first line apart from

levitiracetam for myoclonic seizure

ethosuximide for absence seizure

59
Q

sodium valproate moa

A

increases GABA

60
Q

benzo options and dosing for status

A

rectal diazepam (10mg)
buccal midazolam (10mg)
IV lorazepam (4mg)

61
Q

status mx

A

2 x benzo
1 x IV infusion (phenytoin/kepra/sodium valp)
GA or phenobarbitol

62
Q

definition of status

A

seizure lasting over 5 mins

multiple seizures without regaining consciousness

63
Q

examples of weak opioids

A

codeine
tramadol

64
Q

examples of strong opioids

A

morphine
oxycodone
fentanyl
buprenorphrine

65
Q

what can be given for chronic primary pain

A

antidepressants

avoid the use of paracetamol, NSAIDs, opiates, anti epileptics

66
Q

treatments for neuropathic pain and how they are given

A

amitriptyline
gabapentin
duloxetine
pregabalin

only use them as monotherapy

67
Q

how do vessels over the optic disc look in papilloedema

A

they will be curved as they are travelling over a raised surface- usually they are flat as they are travelling over a flat surface

68
Q

bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

69
Q
A

Zero to finals (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions