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Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What type of headache typically occurs on one side of the head and pounding or throbbing in nature?

A

Migraine without aura

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2
Q

Other than paracetamol/NSAIDS, what drug can be used to treat migraine?

A

sumatriptan 50mg
(first line as paracetamol can lead to medication overuse headaches)

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3
Q

What two investigations can you use to investigate meningitis by lying the patient down?

A
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4
Q

A patient has meningitis caused by neisseria mengitidis and has reduced GCS + fever. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Meningococcal septicaemia

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5
Q

GP / hospital antibiotics to give for meningitis?

A
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6
Q

If a patient with meningitis is immunocompromised/over 55 years what antibiotic should you consider?

A

Amoxicillin

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7
Q

Give four cardinal signs of Parkinson’s?

A
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8
Q

How does dopamine stimulate movement?

A

Dopamine inhibits the indirect pathway and excites the direct pathway within the basal ganglia.

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9
Q

What four types of drugs can be given in Parkinson’s?

A
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10
Q

What is co-benyldopa made up of?

A

levodopa + benserazide

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11
Q

Give 3 symptoms specific to a MCA stroke patient.

A
  • Contralateral loss of motor skills + sensation in upper limbs
  • Contralateral face drop
  • Hemianopia
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12
Q

Give five red flag symptoms associated with headaches.

A
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13
Q

What drug can be given to reduce intracranial pressure?

A
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14
Q

What three signs/symptoms make up Cushing’s triad?

A
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15
Q

Give five differences between upper and lower motor neurone lesions.

A
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16
Q

L5 radiculopathy and common peroneal nerve damage both result in foot drop and toe extensor weakness. What differentiates them?

A

Common peroneal damage = ankle EVERSION affected
L5 radiculopathy = ankle INVERSION affected

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17
Q

Damage to the deep peroneal nerve results in loss of sensation where?
(deep peroneal = branch of the common peroneal)

A

First dorsal webspace

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18
Q

What group of muscles do you expect wastage of with claw hand?

A

Hypothenar muscles (flexors in forearm also supplied by ulnar but you’d see less wastage in these)

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19
Q

What’s the ulnar paradox?

A

“closer to the paw, the worse the claw”
- more distal damage of the ulnar nerve leads to a great exaggeration of claw hand.

(ulnar nerve supplies the medial aspect of flexor digitorum profundus, and damage leads to damage in flexion - less flexion power in medial digits = less claw hand)

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20
Q

First line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A
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21
Q

What’s the medical term for a nosebleed?

A

Epistaxis

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22
Q

Medical term for coughing up blood?

A

Haemoptysis

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23
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis commonly presents with what shaped nose? Why does this happen?

A

Saddle shaped nose
Due to perforation of the septum

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24
Q

Which antibody can be tested for to investigate potential granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

c-ANCA

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25
Q

Four drugs that can be used for prophylaxis of migraines?

A
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26
Q

What scan is not routinely used to diagnose dementia?

A

CT (MRI produces clearer images of soft tissue and doesn’t expose patient to radiation)

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27
Q

What’s the medical term for a fever?

A

pyrexia

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28
Q

Which type of dementia exhibits a stepwise deterioration pattern?

A
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29
Q

What are the signs of fronto-temporal dementia?

A
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30
Q

What are the signs of Lewy Body dementia?

A
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31
Q

Give four signs of Alzheimer’s dementia

A
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32
Q

What’s the medical term for speech difficulties?

A

Dysarthria

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33
Q

What’s the medical term for swallowing difficulties?

A

Dysphagia

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34
Q

Huntington’s disease displays anticipation. What is anticipation?

A
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35
Q

What gene on which chromosome is mutated in Huntington’s?

A
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36
Q

What does ACA stroke cause?

A

Contralateral lower limb weakness

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37
Q

In which meningeal space is CSF contained?

A
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38
Q

Which type of haemorrhage is caused by a berry aneurysm bursting? What does it look like on CT?

A
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39
Q

What two things is a subarachnoid haemorrhage associated with?

A
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40
Q

What’s the source of subdural haemorrhages and what does it look like on CT?

A
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41
Q

What artery usually causes an epidural haemorrhage? How does it appear on CT?

A
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42
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Autoimmune condition
  • AChR antibodies
  • Attack acetylcholine receptors on post-synaptic membranes.
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43
Q

What disease is myasthenia gravis linked with?

A
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44
Q

What cells are affected by MS?

A
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45
Q

Four disease patterns of MS?

A
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46
Q

Two diagnostic tests for MS?

A
  • MRI (1st line)
  • LP (“oligoclonal bands” can be detected - bands of immunoglobulins)
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47
Q

Most common presenting complaint of MS?

A

unilateral optic neuritis

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48
Q

What symptoms are typical with frontal lobe focal seizures? (2)

A
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49
Q

What symptoms are typical with temporal lobe focal seizures? (2)

A
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50
Q

What symptoms are typical with parietal lobe focal seizures? (2)

A
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51
Q

What symptoms are typical with occipital lobe focal seizures? (2)

A
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52
Q

What’s the difference between simple and complex seizures?

A
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53
Q

What cranial nerves are affected in bulbar palsy?

A
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54
Q

How do you distinguish pseudobulbar palsy from bulbar palsy?

A
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55
Q

Symptoms of cerebellar damage?

A
56
Q

When are LPs contraindicated?

A
  • infected skin over the puncture site
  • increased ICP from any space-occupying lesion (mass, abscess), can cause coning
  • trauma or mass in lumbar vertebrae.
57
Q

Which muscles are supplied by the radial nerve?

A
58
Q

Muscles supplied by the median nerve?

A
59
Q

What does damage to the axillary nerve cause?

A
60
Q

Bells palsy affects what cranial nerve?

A

CN VII - Facial nerve

61
Q

What are found on a temporal artery biopsy in giant cell arteritis?

A

Multinucleated giant cells

62
Q

What three things are used to diagnose giant cell arteritis?

A
63
Q

What’s the major complication that a person with giant cell arteritis is at risk of?

A

Blindness

64
Q

Deficiency in which vitamin can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
65
Q

Three symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
66
Q

Two symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A
67
Q

What is Uhthoff’s phenomena?

A
  • transient worsening of neurological symptoms related to a demyelinating disorder (such as multiple sclerosis)
  • when the body becomes overheated in hot weather, exercise, fever, saunas, or hot tubs.
68
Q

What virus causes infectious mononucleosis and what neurological condition is this associated with?

A
  • EBV
  • MS (infection causes a 32x increased risk)
69
Q

What two features would you see in the LP fluid in viral meningitis?

A
70
Q

What happens to glucose levels of the CSF in bacterial meningitis?

A

CSF is cloudy and CSF glucose is low due to bacteria using it up

71
Q

What’s the cause of Horner’s syndrome and what are the three symptoms of it?

A
72
Q

What type of lung tumour can cause Horner’s?

A

Pancoast tumour of the apex of lung.

73
Q

What does Brown-Sequard syndrome cause?

A
  • Contralateral loss of pain and temperature 2 levels below lesion
  • Ipsilateral loss of motor skills and proprioception + vibration sensation at level of the lesions
74
Q

When can mannitol be given in a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • reduced GCS
  • focal neurological signs
    (indicate a raised ICP)
75
Q

What drug is given to all patients with a SAH and what does it do?

A

Nimodipine = CCB - prevents vasospasm and therefore brain ischaemia

76
Q

MC cause of GBS?

A
77
Q

Which headaches have an association with family history and have a daily occurrence pattern?

A
78
Q

Good description of MS presentation?

A

Neurological symptoms disseminated in time and space

79
Q

Three main differences between myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A
80
Q

What drug can combat Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A
81
Q

Lesions to which cranial nerve causes “down and out’?

A
82
Q

Which nerve palsy would cause this?

A

Abducens

83
Q

What nerve palsy would cause an eye to rotate inwards and upwards?

A

Trochlear (controls superior oblique which helps to move eye down and out)

84
Q

What urinary symptom can be present in Parkinson’s?

A

Urinary urgency (think of David running to the loo)

85
Q

What drug can be used against MND?

A

Riluzole

86
Q

Three classic features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A
  • weakness in lower legs
  • distal muscle wasting (inverted champagne bottle)
  • pes cavus
87
Q

A 20 year old female has a tonic-clonic seizure, what is first line treatment?

A

Lamotrigene

88
Q

What two tests can be used to test for Carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
89
Q

In myasthenia gravis, are muscurinic or nicotinic ACh receptors targeted?

A

Nicotinic

90
Q

What’s the mnemonic for remembering which reflexes are supplied by which vertebrae?

A

S1-S2 tie my shoe
L3-L4 kick the door
C5-C6 pick up sticks
C7-C8 shut the gate

91
Q

What does compression of C6 nerve cause?

A
  • Pain in forearm
  • Elbow flexion weakness
92
Q

What does compression of C7 nerve cause?

A
  • Pain in hand
  • Elbow extension weakness
93
Q

Where would you get pain with an L2-L3 nerve compression?

A
  • Upper leg interior
  • Upper leg anterior
94
Q

Compression of which nerve vertebrae would cause bladder and bowel dysfunction?

A

S4

95
Q

What’s the mnemonic for remembering which reflexes are supplied by which vertebrae?

A

S1-S2 tie my shoe
L3-L4 kick the door
C5-C6 pick up sticks
C7-C8 shut the gate

96
Q

How does myasthenia gravis present?

A
  • muscle weakness (especially in face)
  • diplopia + ptosis
  • improves w rest
97
Q

What test can be done to assess a patient’s proprioception?

A
98
Q

What test can be done to assess vestibulocochlear pathology?

A
99
Q

Give two causes of cauda equina syndrome other than a tumour.

A
100
Q

Give five symptoms of cauda equina syndrome.

A
101
Q

MC trigger of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
102
Q

Damage to which nerve causes wrist drop?

A

Radial nerve

103
Q

Damage to which nerve causes wrist drop?

A

Radial nerve

104
Q

Give a differential of meningitis

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

105
Q

Give three bacteria that can cause meningitis.

A
106
Q

What is a non-blanching rash a sign of in meningitis?

A

DIC caused by meningococcal meningitis

107
Q

Difference in WBC in CSF in meningitis between bacterial and viral?

A

Bacterial = neutrophilia
Viral = Lymphocytosis

108
Q

What’s the pathophysiology behind a pancoast tumour of the apex of the lung causing Horner’s syndrome?

A

Tumour presses on:
- Intercostal nerves
- Brachial plexus
- Sympathetic chain (causing Horner’s

109
Q

What drug is given for prophylactic treatment in meningitis?

A
110
Q

What’s the most common causative bacteria of meningitis in pregnant women?

A
111
Q

What’s the technical term for a patient having blood vision and a feeling of a curtain coming down over their vision.

A
112
Q

Acute management for a cluster headache?

A
113
Q

Prophylactic treatment for cluster headaches?

A
114
Q

Definition of encephalitis?

A
115
Q

MC cause of encepahilits?

A
116
Q

Diagnosis method for encephalitis?

A
117
Q

Treatment of encephalitis?

A
118
Q

What treatment is given to manage Alzheimer’s? Give two examples of the type of drug.

A
119
Q

Give two acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used to treat myasthenia gravis.

A
120
Q

Management of Guillain Barre?

A
121
Q

Give 4 presenting symptoms of Guillain Barre

A
122
Q

Give a test that can be used to help diagnose Guillain Barre

A
123
Q

What cranial nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?

A
124
Q

Do you get forehead sparing in Bell’s palsy?

A
125
Q

Do you get forehead sparing in UMN or LMN lesions?

A
126
Q

Management after a TIA?

A

Antiplatelet
e.g aspirin or clopidogrel

127
Q

Inheritance of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A
128
Q

What scoring system is used to assess the risk of stroke after a TIA?

A

(>4 = referral to specialist)

129
Q

What are the categories and values for ABCD2?

A
130
Q

Two differentials for generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

A
  • Syncope
  • Non-epileptic seizure
131
Q

What neurotransmitter supplies sympathetic innervation to the skin?

A

Acetylcholine

132
Q

Two causes of asterixis?

A
133
Q

Diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis?

A
134
Q

What tract carries pain and temperature sensation from 2 levels below where it enters the spinal cord?

A

Spinothalamic

135
Q

What’s the diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

McDonald criteria. 2 or more neurological attacks disseminated in time and space.

Exam flashcards (14 decks)

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