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Exam flashcards > MSK + Rheum > Flashcards

MSK + Rheum Flashcards

1
Q

Give four examples of small vessel vasculitis

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2
Q

Give three examples of medium vessel vasculitis

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3
Q

Give two examples of large vessel vasculitis

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4
Q

Which types of vasculitis are associated with ANCA?

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5
Q

What does ANCA stand for?

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6
Q

What test can be done for suspected ankylosing spondylitis?

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7
Q

What test can be done to assess the adequacy of blood supply to the legs?

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8
Q

What test can be done to test for weakness of the hip abductors?

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9
Q

What’s the main infective organism in osteomyelitis? (what about in patients with sickle cell anaemia?)

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10
Q

What’s the best imaging technique for diagnosis of osteomyelitis?

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11
Q

How would an osteosarcoma appear on X-ray?

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12
Q

How would a chondrosarcoma appear on X-ray?

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13
Q

How would Ewing’s tumour appear on X-ray?

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14
Q

What’s the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?

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Rhabdomyosarcoma

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15
Q

Three first line treatments for SLE?

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16
Q

Name three complications of SLE.

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17
Q

What joints are typically affected in gout vs pseudogout?

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18
Q

What are the crystals made of in gout vs pseudogout?

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19
Q

What are the shapes and bifringence of the needles on aspiration of joint space in gout vs pseudogout?

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20
Q

What X-ray finding is present in pseudogout?

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21
Q

What can trigger a flare up of gout?

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22
Q

Treatment of gout flare ups?

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23
Q

What drug can be given for prophylaxis of gout?

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24
Q

What type of nodes do you see in osteoarthritis?

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note - Heberden’s is DIP!

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25
Q

What blood tests can be done for rheumatoid arthritis?

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26
Q

What genes are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

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27
Q

Give four DMARDs that can be given for rheumatoid arthritis

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28
Q

What DMARDs could be used in pregnancy for rheumatoid arthritis?

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29
Q

What needs to be prescribed with methotrexate?

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30
Q

Give three complications of rheumatoid arthritis.

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31
Q

What are seen on X-ray scans in osteo vs rheumatoid arthritis?

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32
Q

Which blood test is more specific for RA?

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33
Q

What’s the T-score range for osteopenia?

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34
Q

What scan can be used to investigate osteopenia?

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35
Q

What tool can be used to predict someone’s risk of having a fragility fracture over the next 10 years?

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36
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

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37
Q

What is first line medical treatment for osteoporosis?

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38
Q

Give three examples of bisphosphonates

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39
Q

What are three side effects of bisphosphonates?

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40
Q

Which arthritis is mostly symmetrical, osteo or rheumatoid?

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41
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

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Inhibit osteoclast activity

42
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

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43
Q

Typical presentation of someone with Paget’s disease of bone?

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44
Q

Main treatment for Paget’s disease of bone?

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45
Q

What does c-ANCA and p-ANCA stand for?

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Cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
Perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody

46
Q

Out of the two blood markers for SLE, testing for which is more specific for SLE and which is more sensitive?

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47
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?

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48
Q

What blood results do you see in antiphospholipid syndrome?

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49
Q

Management of antiphospholipid syndrome?

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50
Q

What antibodies are present in antiphospholipid syndrome?

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51
Q

What’s used for primary and secondary thrombotic prophylaxis in antiphospholipid syndrome?

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52
Q

Raised APTT and low platelets - what disease should you think of?

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53
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of fibromyalgia?

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54
Q

How is vitamin D produced in the body?

A
  • Produced from cholesterol
  • in the skin
  • in response to UV radiation
55
Q

How does vitamin D play a role in calcium and phosphate regulation?

A
  • Essential for calcium + phosphate absorption in intestines + kidneys
  • Promotes bone resorption to boost serum calcium
56
Q

What is osteomalacia?

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57
Q

What’s the laboratory investigation for vitamin-D and what level is defined as deficient?

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58
Q

Give three causes of osteomalacia (usually caused by vitamin D deficiency)

A
  • Renal failure (kidneys convert vitamin D into active form)
  • Liver disease (decreased vitamin D activation)
  • Genetics (X-linked defect in PHEX genes leads to hypophosphatemia)
59
Q

What drug is first line treatment for neuropathic pain?

A

Amitryptyline

60
Q

Give three causes of inflammatory joint pain.

A
  • Autoimmune e.g RA or spondyloarthropathies
  • Crystal arthritis
  • Infection
61
Q

Give two causes of non-inflammatory joint pain.

A
  • Degenerative e.g OA
  • Non-degenerative e.g fibromyalgia
62
Q

Give five things that can be seen on the hands of someone with rheumatoid arthritis.

A
63
Q

When sending to the lab what abbreviation can be used for what should be done with the sample?

A

MC&S - Microscopy, culture and sensitivities

64
Q

What classing system is used for grading fractures that occur in children that involve the growth plate?

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65
Q

What sections of long bones do the growth plates divide?

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66
Q

A five year old girl fractures her distal humerus, passing through the growth plate and epiphysis, but sparing the metaphysis. What stage fracture does she have?

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67
Q

Give three things you might prescribe allopurinol for.

A
  • Prophylaxis in gout
  • To prevent kidney stones
  • To treat hyperuricaemia e.g TLS
68
Q

How does allipurinol work to prevent gout/kidney stones?

A
  • Prevents conversion of xanthine to uric acid
  • Lowers plasma uric acid
69
Q

Initial management for giant cell arteritis?

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70
Q

What condition does giant cell arteritis have a strong association with?

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71
Q

What two findings may you find in giant cell arteritis?

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72
Q

What two things is polyarteritis nodosa associated with?

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73
Q

MC cause of reactive arthritis?

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74
Q

Three associations of reactive arthritis?

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75
Q

What are the only two types of arthritis where the DIPJ is affected?

A

Osteo and psoriatic

76
Q

Give three signs of psoriatic arthritis.

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77
Q

Management of osteoarthritis?

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78
Q

MC non-STI cause of reactive arthritis?

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79
Q

What non-blood test can be done for Sjögren’s syndrome?

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80
Q

What antibodies are present in Sjögren’s syndrome? Which is more specific?

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81
Q

Normal neutrophil range?

A

2500-7000 per microlitre

82
Q

Neutrophil count in pseudogout aspiration?

A

Low neutrophil count (normal = 2500-7000 per microlitre)

83
Q

Give two ‘hidden’ spots where psoriasis can be found on the body.

A
  • Behind the ear
  • Inside the ear
  • Nails (onoklysis)
  • Scalp
  • Umbilicus
  • Genitals
  • Soles of feet
84
Q

Give the risk factors for osteomyelitis/septic arthritis.

A
85
Q

How should bisphosphonates be taken

A
  • once weekly
  • on an empty stomach
  • remaining upright for at least 30 minutes afterwards
86
Q

Three main stages of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
87
Q

What’s the technical name for giant cell arteritis / Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Chronic granulomatous large vessel vasculitis

88
Q

What blood marker can be used to monitor disease progression of SLE?

A
89
Q

Give 5 signs of SLE?

A
90
Q

What other disease shares an antibody with antiphospholipid syndrome and what antibody do they share?

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91
Q

What age group is predominantly affected in fibromyalgia?

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92
Q

Give four red flag symptom types for back pain

A
  • Symptoms of CES
  • Symptoms of spinal fracture
  • Symptoms of infection
  • Cancer red flags
93
Q

Treatment of osteomyelitis?

A

Exam flashcards (14 decks)

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