Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exam flashcards > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What two ECG changes can be present in pericarditis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s first line treatment for pericarditis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What ECG change is seen in first degree heart block?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment for a 43-year-old African gentleman with TIIDM?

A

A
A+C
A+C+D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1st, 2nd and 3rd line hypertension drugs for a 65-year-old white man?

A

C
C+ARB
C+ARB+D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1st line options for rate control of AF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1st line options for rate control for AF in a patient with asthma?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In which type of heart block do you get a progressively lengthening PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the first line investigation for intermittent claudication in a calf? (PAD)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What three drugs can be given to treat PAD?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 6 P’s of limb ischaemia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does diaphoretic mean?

A

Sweating heavily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four steps of management of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What ECG changes may occur in hyperkalaemia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What ECG changes may occur in hypokalaemia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common causative organism of infective endocarditis after having root canal surgery?

A

Viridans streptococci (commonly found in oral cavity + other mucous membranes e.g GI and genital tracts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Two most common bacterial causes of infective endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus
Viridans streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gold standard investigation for aortic dissection?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What arrhythmia is a patient with congenital prolonged-QT syndrome at risk of developing?

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What heart block results in a R wave in V1 and a slurred S wave in V6?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if the posterior fascicle of the left bundle branch becomes blocked, what kind of deviation does this result in?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does a PE have the potential to cause a left or right sided bundle branch block?

A

PE makes the right ventricle work harder!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the most common congenital heart defect in trisomy 21?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot results in what four abnormalities?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give four risk factors for tetralogy of fallot?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What bacteria most commonly causes rheumatic fever?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What two types of CCB are there?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give two examples of non-dihydropyridine CCBs and where do they act?

A
28
Q

What’s the most common dihydropyridine CCB and where does it act?

A
29
Q

What type of valve disease is associated with an ejection systolic murmur which radiates to the carotids?

A
30
Q

Initial management for a STEMI?

A

MONA
Note - oxygen only indicated if sats <94%

31
Q

Which leads represent the inferior part of the heart?

A
32
Q

Which leads represent the lateral aspect of the heart?

A
33
Q

Which leads represent the anterior/septal aspect of the heart?

A
34
Q

What blood test can be used to investigate CHF?

A
35
Q

Pharmaceutical management for HF? (without oedema)

A
36
Q

Management for HF? (with oedema)

A
37
Q

ECG changes in third degree heart block?

A
38
Q

what drug can be used in third degree heart block when the bundle of his is affected?

A

atropine

39
Q

What clotting factor does apixaban inhibit?

A
40
Q

What’s the definitive treatment of atrial flutter?

A
41
Q

What drug is used for short term management of atrial flutter? (what can also be offered in the acute setting?)

A
42
Q

What tool is used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with AF?

A

CHA2DS2-VASc

43
Q

What risk factors are worth 2 points in CHA2DS2-VASc?

A
44
Q

What are the risk factors assessed by the CHA2DS2-VASc tool?

A
45
Q

What’s the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

46
Q

What finding on an ECHO would demonstrate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Diastolic ventricular dysfunction

47
Q

Which type of cardiomyopathy leads to a fall in ejection fraction?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

48
Q

What does BNP stand for?

A

“N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide”

49
Q

Findings on a chest X-ray in heart failure?

A

A - Alveolar oedema
B - B lines (Kerley)
C - Cardiomegaly
D - Dilated upper lobe vessels
E - Effusions (pleural)

50
Q

Difference between primary and secondary HTN?

A

primary = no identifiable cause
secondary = identifiable cause

51
Q

Most common cause of secondary HTN in adults?

A

Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)

52
Q

What scoring system can be used to assess a patients risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

QRISK

53
Q

What medication should be offered to those with a score >10% on QRISK?

A

Statins

54
Q

Give three side effects of statins

A
55
Q

Initial pharmaceutical management of PE?

A
56
Q

What score is used to assess the risk of DVT/PE?

A
57
Q

Gold standard investigation for IE?

A

transesophageal ECHO

58
Q

what ECG change is seen in Prinzmetal’s angina?

A
59
Q

What drug type can be offered to someone with Prinzmetal’s angina?

A
60
Q

What inherited condition causes high HDL + LDL?

A

Familial hypercholsterolaemia

61
Q

6A’s of secondary prevention for ACS (i.e to prevent future MIs)

A
62
Q

What score can be used to calculate the risk of bleeding in patients with AF?

A
63
Q

How is mitral stenosis heard on auscultation? (2)

A
64
Q

Good definition of atherosclerosis?

A
  • Accumulation of lipids, macrophages, and smooth muscle cells
  • in the intima of large and medium sized arteries
65
Q

Give 4 factors assessed by Well’s criteria

A
66
Q

What is malar flush a sign of?

A
67
Q

What is Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade?

A

Exam flashcards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions