Cardio

Question 1

What two ECG changes can be present in pericarditis?

Answer 1

Question 2

What’s first line treatment for pericarditis?

Answer 2

Question 3

What ECG change is seen in first degree heart block?

Answer 3

Question 4

1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment for a 43-year-old African gentleman with TIIDM?

Answer 4

A
A+C
A+C+D

Question 5

1st, 2nd and 3rd line hypertension drugs for a 65-year-old white man?

Answer 5

C
C+ARB
C+ARB+D

Question 6

1st line options for rate control of AF?

Answer 6

Question 7

1st line options for rate control for AF in a patient with asthma?

Answer 7

Question 8

In which type of heart block do you get a progressively lengthening PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS?

Answer 8

Question 9

What’s the first line investigation for intermittent claudication in a calf? (PAD)

Answer 9

Question 10

What three drugs can be given to treat PAD?

Answer 10

Question 11

What are the 6 P’s of limb ischaemia?

Answer 11

Question 12

What does diaphoretic mean?

Answer 12

Sweating heavily

Question 13

What are the four steps of management of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT?

Answer 13

Question 14

What ECG changes may occur in hyperkalaemia?

Answer 14

Question 15

What ECG changes may occur in hypokalaemia?

Answer 15

Question 16

Most common causative organism of infective endocarditis after having root canal surgery?

Answer 16

Viridans streptococci (commonly found in oral cavity + other mucous membranes e.g GI and genital tracts)

Question 17

Two most common bacterial causes of infective endocarditis?

Answer 17

Staph aureus
Viridans streptococci

Question 18

Gold standard investigation for aortic dissection?

Answer 18

Question 19

What arrhythmia is a patient with congenital prolonged-QT syndrome at risk of developing?

Answer 19

Torsades de pointes

Question 20

What heart block results in a R wave in V1 and a slurred S wave in V6?

Answer 20

Question 21

if the posterior fascicle of the left bundle branch becomes blocked, what kind of deviation does this result in?

Answer 21

Question 22

Does a PE have the potential to cause a left or right sided bundle branch block?

Answer 22

PE makes the right ventricle work harder!

Question 23

What’s the most common congenital heart defect in trisomy 21?

Answer 23

Question 23

Tetralogy of Fallot results in what four abnormalities?

Answer 23

Question 24

Give four risk factors for tetralogy of fallot?

Answer 24

Question 25

What bacteria most commonly causes rheumatic fever?

Answer 25

Question 26

What two types of CCB are there?

Answer 26

Question 27

Give two examples of non-dihydropyridine CCBs and where do they act?

Answer 27

Question 28

What's the most common dihydropyridine CCB and where does it act?

Answer 28

Question 29

What type of valve disease is associated with an ejection systolic murmur which radiates to the carotids?

Answer 29

Question 30

Initial management for a STEMI?

Answer 30

MONA Note - oxygen only indicated if sats <94%

Question 31

Which leads represent the inferior part of the heart?

Answer 31

Question 32

Which leads represent the lateral aspect of the heart?

Answer 32

Question 33

Which leads represent the anterior/septal aspect of the heart?

Answer 33

Question 34

What blood test can be used to investigate CHF?

Answer 34

Question 35

Pharmaceutical management for HF? (without oedema)

Answer 35

Question 36

Management for HF? (with oedema)

Answer 36

Question 37

ECG changes in third degree heart block?

Answer 37

Question 38

what drug can be used in third degree heart block when the bundle of his is affected?

Answer 38

atropine

Question 39

What clotting factor does apixaban inhibit?

Answer 39

Question 40

What's the definitive treatment of atrial flutter?

Answer 40

Question 41

What drug is used for short term management of atrial flutter? (what can also be offered in the acute setting?)

Answer 41

Question 42

What tool is used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with AF?

Answer 42

CHA2DS2-VASc

Question 43

What risk factors are worth 2 points in CHA2DS2-VASc?

Answer 43

Question 44

What are the risk factors assessed by the CHA2DS2-VASc tool?

Answer 44

Question 45

What's the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

Answer 45

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 46

What finding on an ECHO would demonstrate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Answer 46

Diastolic ventricular dysfunction

Question 47

Which type of cardiomyopathy leads to a fall in ejection fraction?

Answer 47

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Question 48

What does BNP stand for?

Answer 48

"N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide"

Question 49

Findings on a chest X-ray in heart failure?

Answer 49

A - Alveolar oedema B - B lines (Kerley) C - Cardiomegaly D - Dilated upper lobe vessels E - Effusions (pleural)

Question 50

Difference between primary and secondary HTN?

Answer 50

primary = no identifiable cause secondary = identifiable cause

Question 51

Most common cause of secondary HTN in adults?

Answer 51

Conn's syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)

Question 52

What scoring system can be used to assess a patients risk of cardiovascular disease?

Answer 52

QRISK

Question 53

What medication should be offered to those with a score >10% on QRISK?

Answer 53

Statins

Question 54

Give three side effects of statins

Answer 54

Question 55

Initial pharmaceutical management of PE?

Answer 55

Question 56

What score is used to assess the risk of DVT/PE?

Answer 56

Question 57

Gold standard investigation for IE?

Answer 57

transesophageal ECHO

Question 58

what ECG change is seen in Prinzmetal's angina?

Answer 58

Question 59

What drug type can be offered to someone with Prinzmetal's angina?

Answer 59

Question 60

What inherited condition causes high HDL + LDL?

Answer 60

Familial hypercholsterolaemia

Question 61

6A's of secondary prevention for ACS (i.e to prevent future MIs)

Answer 61

Question 62

What score can be used to calculate the risk of bleeding in patients with AF?

Answer 62

Question 63

How is mitral stenosis heard on auscultation? (2)

Answer 63

Question 64

Good definition of atherosclerosis?

Answer 64

- Accumulation of lipids, macrophages, and smooth muscle cells - in the intima of large and medium sized arteries

Question 65

Give 4 factors assessed by Well's criteria

Answer 65

Question 66

What is malar flush a sign of?

Answer 66

Question 67

What is Beck's triad of cardiac tamponade?

Answer 67