Cardio Flashcards
What two ECG changes can be present in pericarditis?
What’s first line treatment for pericarditis?
What ECG change is seen in first degree heart block?
1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment for a 43-year-old African gentleman with TIIDM?
A
A+C
A+C+D
1st, 2nd and 3rd line hypertension drugs for a 65-year-old white man?
C
C+ARB
C+ARB+D
1st line options for rate control of AF?
1st line options for rate control for AF in a patient with asthma?
In which type of heart block do you get a progressively lengthening PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS?
What’s the first line investigation for intermittent claudication in a calf? (PAD)
What three drugs can be given to treat PAD?
What are the 6 P’s of limb ischaemia?
What does diaphoretic mean?
Sweating heavily
What are the four steps of management of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT?
What ECG changes may occur in hyperkalaemia?
What ECG changes may occur in hypokalaemia?
Most common causative organism of infective endocarditis after having root canal surgery?
Viridans streptococci (commonly found in oral cavity + other mucous membranes e.g GI and genital tracts)
Two most common bacterial causes of infective endocarditis?
Staph aureus
Viridans streptococci
Gold standard investigation for aortic dissection?
What arrhythmia is a patient with congenital prolonged-QT syndrome at risk of developing?
Torsades de pointes
What heart block results in a R wave in V1 and a slurred S wave in V6?
if the posterior fascicle of the left bundle branch becomes blocked, what kind of deviation does this result in?
Does a PE have the potential to cause a left or right sided bundle branch block?
PE makes the right ventricle work harder!
What’s the most common congenital heart defect in trisomy 21?
Tetralogy of Fallot results in what four abnormalities?
Give four risk factors for tetralogy of fallot?
What bacteria most commonly causes rheumatic fever?
What two types of CCB are there?
Give two examples of non-dihydropyridine CCBs and where do they act?
What’s the most common dihydropyridine CCB and where does it act?
What type of valve disease is associated with an ejection systolic murmur which radiates to the carotids?
Initial management for a STEMI?
MONA
Note - oxygen only indicated if sats <94%
Which leads represent the inferior part of the heart?
Which leads represent the lateral aspect of the heart?
Which leads represent the anterior/septal aspect of the heart?
What blood test can be used to investigate CHF?
Pharmaceutical management for HF? (without oedema)
Management for HF? (with oedema)
ECG changes in third degree heart block?
what drug can be used in third degree heart block when the bundle of his is affected?
atropine
What clotting factor does apixaban inhibit?
What’s the definitive treatment of atrial flutter?
What drug is used for short term management of atrial flutter? (what can also be offered in the acute setting?)
What tool is used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with AF?
CHA2DS2-VASc
What risk factors are worth 2 points in CHA2DS2-VASc?
What are the risk factors assessed by the CHA2DS2-VASc tool?
What’s the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
What finding on an ECHO would demonstrate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Diastolic ventricular dysfunction
Which type of cardiomyopathy leads to a fall in ejection fraction?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
What does BNP stand for?
“N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide”
Findings on a chest X-ray in heart failure?
A - Alveolar oedema
B - B lines (Kerley)
C - Cardiomegaly
D - Dilated upper lobe vessels
E - Effusions (pleural)
Difference between primary and secondary HTN?
primary = no identifiable cause
secondary = identifiable cause
Most common cause of secondary HTN in adults?
Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)
What scoring system can be used to assess a patients risk of cardiovascular disease?
QRISK
What medication should be offered to those with a score >10% on QRISK?
Statins
Give three side effects of statins
Initial pharmaceutical management of PE?
What score is used to assess the risk of DVT/PE?
Gold standard investigation for IE?
transesophageal ECHO
what ECG change is seen in Prinzmetal’s angina?
What drug type can be offered to someone with Prinzmetal’s angina?
What inherited condition causes high HDL + LDL?
Familial hypercholsterolaemia
6A’s of secondary prevention for ACS (i.e to prevent future MIs)
What score can be used to calculate the risk of bleeding in patients with AF?
How is mitral stenosis heard on auscultation? (2)
Good definition of atherosclerosis?
- Accumulation of lipids, macrophages, and smooth muscle cells
- in the intima of large and medium sized arteries
Give 4 factors assessed by Well’s criteria
What is malar flush a sign of?
What is Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade?
