NEEED TO FINISH Shock & Sepsis Flashcards

1
Q

What is shock?

A

When there is insufficient tissue perfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The pathophysiology of shock may be divided into what 5 aetiological groups?

A

1) septic

2) haemorrhagic

3) neurogenic

4) cardiogenic

5) anaphylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is sepsis?

A

A life-threatening medical emergency, results from a dysregulated host response to infection, leading to systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathophysiology in sepsis?

A

1) Immune cells release large amouns of cytokines (e.g TNF) that active immune system –> systemic inflammation and release of nitrous oxide, causing vasodilation

2) Cytokines increase permeability of vessels –> oedema and reduced intravascular volume. Oedema creates a gap between the blood and the tissues, reducing the amount of oxygen that reaches the tissues.

3) Activation of coagulation system –> deposition of fibrin & formation of thrombi –> compromises organ and tissue perfusion.

4) Formation of blood clots consumes platelets and clotting factors, leading to thrombocytopenia (low platelets) and uncontrolled bleeding (haemorrhage) –> DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can sepsis lead to disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?

A

The formation of blood clots consumes platelets and clotting factors, leading to thrombocytopenia (low platelets) and uncontrolled bleeding (haemorrhage).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can sepsis lead to metabolic acidosis?

A

1) Tissues have an inadequate oxygen supply, leading to anaerobic respiration.

2) Lactate levels rise –> metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are often the most common sources of infection in sepsis?

A

1) Pneumonia: often strep pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, staph. aureus

2) Intra-abdominal: E. coli, Bacteroides species, etc

3) UTIs: frequently caused by E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Proteus species.

4) Skin and soft tissue infections: S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are the major pathogens.

5) Bacteremia e.g. originating from indwelling catheters or other medical devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 2 bacteria are frequently implicated in infections arising from indwelling catheters or other medical devices?

A

1) Staph. epidermidis

2) coagulase-negative staphylococci implicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is septic shock?

A

A more severe form sepsis, technically defined as ‘in which circulatory, cellular, and metabolic abnormalities are associated with a greater risk of mortality than with sepsis alone’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the qSOFA score?

A

A bedside prompt that may identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside the intensive care unit (ICU).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the qSOFA score consist of?

A

1) RR >22/min

2) Altered mentation

3) Systolic blood pressure < 100 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What qSOFA score indicates someone at a heightened risk of mortality (10% risk)?

A

> /= 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Septic shock occurs when the arterial blood pressure drops despite adequate fluid resuscitation, resulting in organ hypoperfusion.

Anaerobic respiration begins, and the serum lactate level rises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What 2 criteria are required to diagnose septic shock?

A

1) low mean arterial pressure (<65 mmHg) despite fluid resuscitation (requiring vasopressors)

2) raised serum lactate (>2 mmol/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of septic shock?

A

1) aggressive treatment with IV fluids

2) escalate to high dependency unit or ICU

3) treatment with vasopressors e.g. noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are vasopressors?

A

Medications that cause vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), increasing systemic vascular resistance and consequently mean arterial pressure (MAP) –> help to improve tissue perfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the sepsis-related (or Sequential) Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) criteria?

A

Can be used to assess the severity of organ dysfunction, most often in the intensive care unit. It takes into account signs of organ dysfunction:

  • Hypoxia
  • Increased oxygen requirements
  • Requiring mechanical ventilation
  • Low platelets (thrombocytopenia)
  • Reduce Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
  • Raised bilirubin
  • Reduce blood pressure
  • Raised creatinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RIsk factors for sepsis?

A

Any condition causing immune dysfunction, frailty or a predisposition to infection is a risk factor for sepsis:

  • Very young or old patients (under 1 or over 75 years)
  • Chronic conditions, such as COPD and diabetes
  • Chemotherapy, immunosuppressants or steroids
  • Surgery, recent trauma or burns
  • Pregnancy and childbirth
  • Indwelling medical devices, such as catheters or central lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) score?

A

Used to help identify acutely unwell patients, including those with sepsis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 6 parameters are measured in the NEWS2 score?

A

1) RR
2) BP
3) O2 sats
4) Temp
5) HR
6) Consciousness level

21
Q

Give some additional signs of infection possibly seen

A

1) Signs of potential sources, such as cellulitis, discharge from a wound, cough or dysuria

2) Reduced urine output

3) Mottled skin

4) Cyanosis

5) Arrhythmias, such as new-onset atrial fibrillation

6) A non-blanching rash can indicate meningococcal septicaemia

22
Q

What is often an early sign of sepsis?

A

Tachypnoea

23
Q

How may elderly present with sepsis?

A

often present with non-specific findings, such as confusion, drowsiness or simply “off legs”

24
Q

How may neutropenic or immunosuppressed patients present with sepsis?

A

may have normal observations despite being life-threateningly unwell

25
Q

Investigations in sepsis?

A

1) Vital signs

2) FBC: for WCC and neutrophils

3) U&Es: for kidney function and AKI

4) LFTs: for liver function and as a possible source of infection

5) CRP

6) Blood glucose

7) Clotting: to assess for DIC

8) Blood cultures: to assess for bacteraemia

9) Blood gas: for lactate, pH and glucose

26
Q

Patients with sepsis should be risk stratified into low, medium and high risk.

Give some examples of ‘high risk’ criteria

A

1) Acute confusional state

2) Responds only to voice or pain/ unresponsive

3) Systolic B.P <= 90 mmHg (or drop >40 from normal)

4) Heart rate > 130 per minute

5) Respiratory rate >= 25 per minute

6) Needs oxygen to keep SpO2 >=92%

7) Not passed urine in last 18 h/ UO < 0.5 ml/kg/hr

8) Lactate >=2 mmol/l

9) Recent chemo

10) Non-blanching rash, mottled/ ashen/ cyanotic

27
Q

How soon should patients with suspected sepsis be treated?

A

Within 1 hour of presentation

28
Q

Management of sepsis - ‘sepsis 6’?

A

B - blood cultures

U - urine output (hourly)

F - IV fluids

A - broad spectrum Abx

L - lactate

O - O2 to maintain oxygen saturation 94-98%

29
Q

What is IV fluid recommendation in sepsis?

A

Bolus of 500ml crystalloid over less than 15 minutes

30
Q

What is neutropenic sepsis?

A

May be defined as a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 10^9 in a patient who is having anticancer treatment and has one of the following:

1) a temperature higher than 38ºC or

2) other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis

31
Q

What is the most common bacteria causing neutropenic sepsis?

Why?

A

Coagulase-negative, Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus epidermidis –> probably due to the use of indwelling lines in patients with cancer

32
Q

Who is neutropenic sepsis more common in?

A

Patients having chemo

33
Q

When does neutropenic sepsis commonly occur after chemo?

A

7-14 days after

34
Q

If it is anticipated that patients are likely to have a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 as a consequence of their treatment, what should they be offered?

A

A fluoroquinolone

35
Q

Management of neutropenic sepsis?

A

1) Start empirical antibiotic therapy immediately.

2) There may be a role for G-CSF in selected patients

36
Q

What Abx is often used in neutropenic sepsis?

A

Piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin)

37
Q

Give some medications that can cause neutropenia?

A

1) chemotherapy

2) methotrexate (for RA)

3) clozapine (for schizophrenia)

4) hydroxychloroquine (for RA)

5) sulfalazine (for RA)

6) carbimazole (for hyperthyroidism)

7) quinine (for malaria)

8) infliximab (a monoclonal antibody used for various autoimmune conditions)

9) rituximab (a monoclonal antibody used for various autoimmune conditions and cancers)

38
Q

What are the 4 major classes of haemorrhagic shock?

A

Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV

39
Q

What does the average adult blood volume comprise?

A

7% of body weight

In 70kg adult, this will equate to 5 litres.

40
Q

Give blood loss for the 4 classes of haemorrhagic shock

A

Class I: <750ml

Class II: 750-1500ml

Class III: 1500ml-2000ml

Class IV: >2000ml

41
Q

What key symptoms are seen in the 4 classes of haemorrhagic shock?

A

Class I: normal

Class II: anxious

Class III: confused

Class IV: lethargic

42
Q

In patients suffering from trauma, the most likely cause of shock is haemorrhage.

However, what else can be the cause or occur concomitantly?

A

1) Tension pneumothorax

2) Spinal cord injury

3) Myocardial contusion

4) Cardiac tamponda

43
Q

In order to generate a palpable femoral pulse, what arterial pressure is required?

A

> 65 mmHg

44
Q

What does neurogenic shock occur most often after?

A

Spinal cord transection (usually at a high level).

This results in interruption of the autonomic nervous system.

45
Q

How does spinal cord injury result in shock?

A

1) There is either decreased sympathetic tone or increased parasympathetic tone

2) The effect is a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance mediated by marked vasodilation.

3) This results in decreased preload which causes decreased cardiac output (Starling’s law)

4) There is decreased peripheral tissue perfusion –> shock

46
Q

Management of neurogenic shock?

A

Vasoconstrictors are used to return vascular tone to normal (in contrast to many other types of peripheral shock).

47
Q

What is the main cause of cardiogenic shock in medical patients?

A

IHD

48
Q

What is the main cause of cardiogenic shock in traumatic patients?

A

Direct myocardial trauma or contusion.

49
Q
A