Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Yr 4 - ACC > GI: Acute Abdomen, Upper GI Bleed & Ischaemic Colitis > Flashcards

GI: Acute Abdomen, Upper GI Bleed & Ischaemic Colitis Flashcards

1
Q

Give some hepatobiliary causes & location of acute abdo pain

A

1) Biliary colic: RUQ

2) Acute cholecystitis: RUQ

3) Ascending cholangitis: RUQ

4) Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric, sometimes radiating through to the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cause of biliary colic?

A

Caused by a gallstone getting lodged in the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is biliary colic clasically provoked by?

A

eating a fatty meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is there signs of infection (fever/raised WCC) in biliary colic?

A

No (in contrast to acute cholecystitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the gallbladder secondary to impacted gallstones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is there signs of infection (fever/raised WCC) in acute cholecystitis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

1) asking the patient to take in and hold a deep breath while palpating the right subcostal area.

2) if pain occurs when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner’s hand, Murphy’s sign is positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What condition is Murphy’s sign positive in?

A

Acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ascending cholangitis?

A

Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection of the biliary tree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common predisposing factor for ascending cholangitis?

A

Gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Additional features seen in ascending cholangitis?

A

Charcot’s triad of right upper quadrant pain, fever and jaundice occurs in about 20-50% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

lcohol & gallstaones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give some causes of generalised abdo pain?

A

Peritonitis

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

Intestinal obstruction

Ischaemic colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give some causes of RUQ pain

A

Biliary colic

Acute cholecystitis

Acute cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give some causes of epigastric pain

A

Acute gastritis

Peptic ulcer disease

Pancreatitis

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give some causes of central abdo pain

A

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

Intestinal obstruction

Ischaemic colitis

Early stages of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give some causes of LIF pain

A

Diverticulitis

Ectopic pregnancy

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Ovarian torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give some causes of RIF pain

A

Acute appendicitis

Ectopic pregnancy

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Ovarian torsion

Meckel’s diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give some causes of suprapubic pain

A

Lower urinary tract infection

Acute urinary retention

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give some causes of loin to groin pain

A

Renal colic (kidney stones)

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give some causes of testicular pain

A

Testicular torsion

Epididymo-orchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give an upper GI cause abdo pain

A

peptic ulcer disease: epigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What may there be a history of in peptic ulcer disease?

A

NSAID use or alcohol excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give some lower GI causes & location of abdo pain

A

1) appendicitis: RIF

2) acute diverticulitis: acute diverticulitis

3) intestinal obstruction: central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe pain in appendicitis

A

Pain initial in the central abdomen before localising to the right iliac fossa (RIF).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What other features may be seen in appendicitis?

A

Anorexia is common. Tachycardia, low-grade pyrexia, tenderness in RIF.

Rovsing’s sign: more pain in RIF than LIF when palpating LIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe pain in acute diverticulitis

A

Folicky pain typically in the LLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What other features may be seen in acute diverticulitis?

A

Diarrhoea, sometimes bloody.

Fever, raised inflammatory markers and white cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is there often a history of in intestinal obstruction?

A

History of malignancy (intraluminal obstruction) or previous operations (adhesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some urological causes & locations of abdo pain?

A

1) renal colic: loin pain radiating to groin

2) acute pyelonephritis: loin pain

3) urinary retention: suprapubic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who is urinary retention more common in?

A

Men: especially with history of BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe pain in renal colic

A

Pain is often severe but intermittent. Patient’s are characteristically restless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What should be considered in all women of a reproductive age who present with abdominal pain?

A

All women of a reproductive age who present with abdominal pain should be considered pregnant until proven otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does ectopic pregnancy pain typically present?

A
  • RIF or LIF pain
  • History of amenorrhoea for the past 6-9 weeks
  • Vaginal bleeding may be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some vascular causes & locations of abdo pain?

A

1) Ruptured AAA: Central abdominal pain radiating to the back

2) Mesenteric ischaemia: Central abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do patients with mesenteric ischaemia often have a history of?

A

AF or other CVS disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What metabolic disturbance is often seen in mesenteric ischaemia?

A

A metabolic acidosis is often seen (due to ‘dying’ tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an upper GI bleed?

A

bleeding from the oesophagus, stomach or duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 4 key causes of an upper GI bleed?

A

1) Peptic ulcer (most common)

2) Mallory Weiss tear (a tear of the oesophageal mucosa)

3) Oesophageal varices (2ary to portal hypertension in liver cirrhosis)

4) Stomach cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Clinical features of an upper GI bleed?

A

1) haematemesis (most common)
- often bright red
- can be ‘coffee ground’

2) melena
- typically black and tarry

3) raised urea
- due to the ‘protein meal’ of the blood

4) may have haemodynamic instability from blood loss
- tachycardia
- hypotension

4) symptoms of particular diagnosis e.g.:
- oesophageal varices: stigmata of chronic liver disease e.g. ascites, jaundice, caput medusae
- peptic ulcer disease: epigastric pain & dyspepsia
- stomach cancer: weight loss, epigastric pain, treatment resistant dyspepsia, anaemia, raised platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do Mallory Weiss tears tend to occur after?

A

Heavy vomiting or retching e.g. binge drinking, gastroenteritis, hyperemesis gravidarum (in early prengancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give some oesophageal causes of an upper GI bleed

A

1) oesophageal varices

2) oesophagitis

3) cancer

4) mallory weiss tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a Mallory Weiss tear? What are they typically associated with?

A

A tear or laceration in the distal oesophagus and proximal stomach.

Usually associated with forceful reaching or coughing (or strained defecation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Risk factors for a Mallory Weiss tear?

A

1) alcoholism (40-80%)

2) hiatal hernia: retching increases the potential for mucosal laceration by creating a higher pressure gradient, in these patients

3) bulimia nervosa

4) hyperemesis gravidarum

5) GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does a Mallory Weiss tear typically present?

A

Haematemesis:
- Typically brisk small to moderate volume of bright red blood following a bout of repeated vomiting.

Melena rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is there typically a history of in oesophagitis?

A

GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does oesophagitis causing an upper GI bleed typicallh present?

A

Small volume of fresh blood, often streaking vomit.

Melena rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are oesophageal varices associated with?

A

Portal hypertension (increased portal venous system pressure) due to liver cirrhosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does cancer causing an upper GI bleed typically present?

A
  • Usually small volume of blood, except as a preterminal event with erosion of major vessels.
  • Often associated symptoms of dysphagia and constitutional symptoms such as weight loss.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does liver cirrhosis lead to oesphageal varices?

A

1) Cirrhosis causes backlog of blood through liver

2) This increases pressure in portal vein (that carries blood to liver): portal hypertension

3) Portal hypertension forces blood to seek out other pathways through smaller veins, such as those in the lowest part of the esophagus.

4) These thin-walled veins balloon with the added blood. Sometimes they rupture and bleed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does a GI bleed caused by oesophageal varices typically present?

A

1) haematemesis:
- usually large volume of FRESH blood

2) melena: from swallowed blood

3) often associated with haemodynamic compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What 2 drugs are used in the management of a variceal haemorrhage?

A

1) terlipressin (vasoactive agent)

2) prophylactic IV Abx (quinolones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Management of variceal haemorrhage?

A

1) ABCDE

2) Correct clotting: FFP, vitamin K, platelet transfusions

3) Terlipressin

4) Prophylactic IV Abx e.g. quinolones (have been shown to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis)

5) Endoscopy: endoscopic variceal band ligation

52
Q

When should terlipressin & IV Abx be given in variceal haemorrhage?

A

Prior to endoscopy.

53
Q

What drug is used for the PROPHYLAXIS of variceal haemorrhage?

A

Propanolol: reduced bleeding & mortality

54
Q

What are the 4 main gastric causes of an upper GI bleed?

A

1) gastric ulcer
2) gastric cancer
3) Dieulafoy lesion
4) diffuse erosive gastritis

55
Q

How does an upper GI bleed caused by a gastric ulcer typically present?

A

1) Iron deficiency anaemia: as typically is a small low volume bleed.

2) Erosion into a significant vessel may produce considerable haemorrhage and haematemesis.

56
Q

How does an upper GI bleed caused by a gastric cancer typically present?

A

1) Haematemesis: may be frank haematemesis or altered blood mixed with vomit

2) Prodromal features: dyspepsia, constitutional symptoms

Amount of bleeding variable but erosion of major vessel may produce considerable haemorrhage.

57
Q

What is a Dieulafoy lesion?

A

A developmental vascular malformation of the GI tract. It is an enlarged submucosal blood vessel that bleeds in the absence of any abnormality, such as ulcers or erosions.

58
Q

What are the 2 main duodenal causes of an upper GI bleed?

A

1) duodenal ulcer

2) aorto-enteric fistula

59
Q

Where are duodenal ulcers usually located?

What vessel do they erode?

A

These are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery.

However, ulcers at any site in the duodenum may present with haematemesis, melena and epigastric discomfort.

60
Q

What scoring system is used at the initial presentation in suspected upper GI bleed?

A

Glasgow-Blatchford score

61
Q

what does the Glasgow-Blatchford score estimate?

A

The risk of the patient having an upper GI bleed.

62
Q

What Glasgow-Blatchford score indicates a high risk for an upper GI bleed?

A

Above 0

Consider early discharge in patients with a score of 0.

63
Q

What causes a raised urea in an upper GI bleed?

A

Acid and digestive enzymes break down blood in the upper GI tract –> one of the breakdown products is urea, which is then absorbed in the intestines.

‘Protein meal’.

64
Q

What score is used after endoscopy to estimate the risk of rebleeding and mortality in an upper GI bleed?

A

Rockall score

65
Q

What does the Rockall score indicate?

A

provides a percentage risk of rebleeding and mortality

66
Q

How soon should patients with a suspected upper GI bleed have an endoscopy?

A

within 24 hours

67
Q

How does the management of non-variceal vs variceal bleeding differ?

A

Non-variceal bleeding –> give PPIs (after proven on endoscopy)

Variceal bleeding –> give terlipressin & IV prophylactic Abx (before endoscopy)

68
Q

Initial management of upper GI bleed:

(Mneumonic: ABATED)

A

A - ABCDE approach to immediate resuscitation

B - Bloods

A - Access (ideally 2 x large bore cannula)

T - Transfusions are required

E - Endoscopy (within 24 hours)

D - Drugs (stop anticoagulants and NSAIDs)

69
Q

What should bloods be sent for in an upper GI bleed?

A
  • Haemoglobin (FBC)
  • Urea (U&Es)
  • Coagulation (INR and FBC for platelets)
  • Liver disease (LFTs)
  • Crossmatch 2 units of blood
70
Q

What is the difference between a ‘group and save’ and ‘crossmatch’?

A

‘Group & save’: where the lab checks the patient’s blood group and saves a blood sample to match blood if needed.

‘Crossmatch’: where the lab allocates units of blood, tests that it is compatible, and keeps it ready in the fridge.

71
Q

What transfusion products are given to patients with massive bleeding?

A

Blood, platelets and clotting factors (fresh frozen plasma)

72
Q

When are platelets given in transfusion?

A

Platelets are given in active bleeding plus thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 50)

73
Q

What transfusion product can be given to patients taking warfarin that are actively bleeding?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate

74
Q

What investigation is required to diagnose and treat the source in an upper GI bleed?

A

Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) (endoscopy) i

75
Q

What are some ways in which non-variceal bleeding can be managed?

A

Clips or thermal coagulation.

76
Q

What is often used to treat bleeding oesophageal varices?

A

Variceal band ligation

77
Q

When should a PPI be given in patients with non-variceal upper GI bleeding?

A

AFTER endoscopy

78
Q

What can blood product transfusion complications be broadly classified into?

A

1) immunological: acute haemolytic, non-haemolytic febrile, allergic/anaphylaxis

2) infective

3) transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

4) transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

5) other: hyperkalaemia, iron overload, clotting

79
Q

What is a non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction caused by?

A

Thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage

Often the result of sensitization by previous pregnancies or transfusions

80
Q

Features of a non-haemolytic febrile reaction?

A

Fever & chills

81
Q

Is a non-haemolytic febrile reaction more common with RBC or platelet transfusion?

A

Platelet transfusion

82
Q

Management of a non-haemolytic febrile reaction?

A

1) Slow or stop transfusion

2) Paracetamol

3) Monitor

83
Q

What is a minor allergic transfusion reaction caused by?

A

Thought to be caused by foreign plasma proteins

84
Q

Features of a minor allergic transfusion reaction

A

1) Pruritus
2) Urticaria

85
Q

Management of a minor allergic transfusion reaction?

A

1) Temporarily stop transfusion

2) Antihistamine

3) Monitor

86
Q

Who is anaphylactic reaction to transfusion thought sometimes seen in?

A

Can be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

87
Q

Features of anaphylactic reaction to transfusion?

A

1) hypotension
2) dyspnoea
3) wheezing
4) angiodema

88
Q

Management of anaphylactic reaction to transfusion?

A

1) stop transfusion

2) IM adrenaline

3) ABC: O2 & fluids etc

89
Q

What is an acute haemolytic reaction to transfusion thought to be caused by?

A

A mismatch of blood group (ABO) (e.g. secondary to human error) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis.

This is usually the result of red blood cell destruction by IgM-type antibodies.

90
Q

Features of an acute haemolytic reaction to transfusion?

When do these symptoms begin?

A

1) fever
2) abdo pain & chest pain
3) hypotension
4) agitation

Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started.

91
Q

Management of an acute haemolytic reaction to transfusion?

A

1) stop transfusion immediately

2) confirm diagnosis:
- check the identity of patient/name on blood product
- send blood for direct Coombs test, repeat typing and cross-matching

3) fluid resuscitation with saline

92
Q

What is a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) caused by?

A

1) Excessive rate of transfusion
2) Pre-existing heart failure

93
Q

Features of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)?

A

1) pulmonary oedema
2) HTN

94
Q

Management of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)?

A

1) slow or stop transfusion

2) consider IV loop diuretic (e.g. furosemide) & O2

95
Q

What is a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) caused by?

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema thought to be secondary to increased vascular permeability caused by host neutrophils that become activated by substances in donated blood.

96
Q

Features of a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

A

1) hypoxia

2) pulmonary infiltrates on CXR

3) fever

4) hypotension

97
Q

Management of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

A

1) stop transfusion

2) O2 & supportive care

98
Q

What are 2 main complications of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

1) disseminated intravascular coagulation
2) renal failure

99
Q

What is an infective transfusion reaction often associated with?

A

Transmission of vCJD.

100
Q

What is ischaemic colitis?

A

An acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel.

This may lead to inflammation, ulceration and haemorrhage.

101
Q

Where is ischaemic colitis more likely to occur?

A

In ‘watershed’ areas such as the splenic flexure that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.

102
Q

Clinical features of ischaemic colitis?

A

Typically acute onset of symptoms (but can be chronic).

1) Abdo pain:
- usually localised to the LLQ or suprapubic region (corresponding to the affected segment of the colon)
- can be crampy in nature
- can range from mild to severe intensity

2) rectal bleeding

3) bowel habit changes:
- diarrhoea
- urgency
- tenesmus

4) N&V

5) systemic signs e.g. fever/tachycardia (can indicate systemic involvement or progression towards gangrenous colitis)

103
Q

Mesenteric ischaemia vs ischaemic colitis?

A

Ischaemic colitis –> large bowel

Mesenteric ischaemia –> small bowel

104
Q

What are the 3 main branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the abdominal organs?

A

1) coeliac artery

2) superior mesenteric artery

3) ifnerior mesenteric artery

105
Q

What does the foregut include?

A

Stomach & part of duodenum, biliary system, liver, pancreas and spleen.

106
Q

What artery supplies the foregut?

A

Coeliac artery

107
Q

What is the midgut?

A

from the distal part of the duodenum to the first half of the transverse colon.

108
Q

What artery is the midgut supplied by?

A

superior mesenteric artery.

109
Q

What is the hindgut?

A

from the second half of the transverse colon to the rectum

110
Q

What is the hindgut supplied by?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

111
Q

What is chronic mesenteric ischaemia also known as?

A

intestinal angina

112
Q

What is chronic mesenteric ischaemia the result of

A

Narrowing of the mesenteric blood vessels by atherosclerosis causing ntermittent abdominal pain, when the blood supply cannot keep up with the demand (similar to pathophysiology of angina).

113
Q

What classic triad of features is seen in chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

1) Central colicky abdominal pain after eating (postprandial): starting around 30 minutes after eating and lasting 1-2 hours

2) Weight loss (due to food avoidance, as this causes pain)

3) Abdominal bruit may be heard on auscultation

114
Q

What typically precedes abdo pain in chronic mesenteric angina?

A

eating (approx 30 mins after)

115
Q

Risk factors for chronic mesenteric angina?

A

same as CVS disease:

  • Increased age
  • Family history
  • Smoking
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Raised cholesterol
116
Q

How is a diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischaemia made?

A

CT angiography

117
Q

Management of chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

1) Reducing modifiable risk factors (e.g., stop smoking)

2) Secondary prevention (e.g., statins and antiplatelet medications)

3) Revascularisation to improve the blood flow to the intestines

118
Q

What 2 options for revascularisation are there for chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

1) Endovascular procedures first-line (i.e. percutaneous mesenteric artery stenting)

2) Open surgery (i.e endarterectomy, re-implantation or bypass grafting)

119
Q

What is acute mesenteric ischaemia typically caused by?

A

An thrombus/embolus causing occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel e.g. the superior mesenteric artery.

120
Q

What is a key risk factor for acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

AF:

Thrombus forms in the left atrium, then mobilises down the aorta to the superior mesenteric artery, where it becomes stuck and cuts off the blood supply.

121
Q

Clinical features of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Acute, non-specific abdominal pain –> pain is disproportionate to the examination findings.

Can go on to develop:
1) shock
2) peritonitis
3) sepsis

Over time, the ischaemia to the bowel will result in necrosis of the bowel tissue and perforation.

122
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Contrast CT –> allows the radiologist to assess both the bowel and the blood supply.

123
Q

Lab findings in acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Patients will have metabolic acidosis and raised lactate level due to ischaemia.

124
Q

Management of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

1) remove necrotic bowel

2) remove or bypass the thrombus in the blood vessel (open surgery or endovascular procedures may be used)

125
Q

Prognosis of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

There is a very high mortality (over 50%) with acute mesenteric ischaemia.

126
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis?

A

Mesenteric adenitis is inflamed lymph nodes within the mesentery.

It can cause similar symptoms to appendicitis and can be difficult to distinguish between the two.

127
Q

What does mesenteric adenitis often follow?

A

a recent viral infection

128
Q

management of mesenteric adenitis?

A

needs no treatment

129
Q
A

Yr 4 - ACC (73 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions