Myeloid Neoplasms discreet facts Flashcards

1
Q

Chemotherapeutic agent that induces DNA mutations that can be related to development of hematopioetic neoplasms

A

Alkylating agents

also Topoisomerase Inhibitors (much faster rate of development after chemo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type of receptor that underlies genetic disorders of myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A

Tyrosine Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors treat Chronic Myeloid Leukemias however patients whose CML have developed a mutation within the ________ will not respond to the TKIs though 2nd and 3rd generation TKIs overcome these mutations?

A

in the ATP binding pocket that prevents drug from binding and also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Accelerated phase of CML can result in blast crisis which is a sudden and catastrophic ability to mature. The 2 types of Blast crisis is

A

70% Acute Myeloid Leukemia

30% is Acute Lymphoid Leukemia

This indicates that CML comes from pluripotential stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Point mutation in pseudokinase domain of ______ involved in Polycythemia Vera

A

JAK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

JAK2 inhibitor that is pretty toxic

A

Ruxonitib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation for early stages of Polycythemia Vera

A

Increased RBC mass: plethora, headache, dizziness, angina, visual disturbances, intermitted claudication (pain in walking)

normochromic, normocytic RBCs until later in the disease

low or normal serum EPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What lab value would help to distinguish Polycythemia vera from a reactive polycythemia?

A

low or normal serum EPO or JAK2 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of Polycythemia

Vera

A

Phlebotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thrombopoietin receptor mutated in Essential Thrombocytosis or Primary Myeloproliferative disorder

A

JAK2

Calreticulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tear drop shaped RBCs

A

RBCs that have passed through areas of fibrosis in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Extramedullary hematopoeisis leading to _________ from Primary Myelofibrosis

A

Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you distinguish between reactive thrombocytosis or essential thrombocytosis (neoplastic)

A

Find a clonal abnormality to dx essential thrombocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mastocytosis mutation

A

c-Kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Localized cutaneous manifestation of Mastocytosis?

A

Urticaria Pigmentosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which myeloproliferative neoplasm has erythroid hyperplasia

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which myeloproliferative neoplasm has Jak2 mutation?

A

Polycythemia vera
Primary myelofibrosis
Essential Thrombocytosis

18
Q

which myeloproliferative neoplasm has BCR/ABL fusion

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

19
Q

c-Kit mutation

A

Mastocytosis

20
Q

Markedly increased platelets

A

Essential thrombocytosis

21
Q

Key morphology of acute leukemia

A

more than 20% myeloid cells in the bone marrow

22
Q

Drug association with Acute myeloid leukemia

A

Alkylating agents (very long lag time)

Topoisomerase inhibitors (short lag time)

23
Q

Trisomy assoc with Acute Myeloid Leukemia

A

Trisomy 21

24
Q

Acute Myeloid Leukemia is not one disease because it is the conglomeration of a bunch of genetic aberrations. It presents with

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Hepatosplenomegaly

25
Flow cytometry used in AML pathology for
blast cell identification also cell surface markers
26
Important genetics of AML
t 15;17 | t 8;21
27
Acute myeloid leukemia t(15;17) disrupts retinoic acid receptor (RAR-alpha) gene frequent association with _____ (histologically)
Auer Rods
28
Treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia
Trans retinoic acid to overcome the disrupted retinoic acid receptor very first (DO THIS WHILE WAITING ON CONFIRMATION)
29
Diagnosis of AML genetics
PCR (takes a while because of long prep) FISH (fastest test) also morphology
30
Morphology of AML
Auer Rods | Butterfly nucleus
31
Dangerous Complication of Acute Myelogenous LEukemia
DIC
32
Myelodysplastic Syndromes willl smolder and 10-40% turn into
Acute Myeloid Leukemia
33
Myelodysplastic syndrome presents with what sort of neutrophils?
hypolobar neutrophils
34
Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis show mutation in the ______ gene 60% of the time
BRAF
35
Indolent disease usually assoc with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis in 5-30 yo
Eosinophilic Granuloma
36
Disease in kids associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocystosis
Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease
37
t15;17
AML (promyelocytic variant)
38
BRAF mutation
Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
39
Monosomy 7
myelodysplasia, if seen in AML then bad prognosis
40
histologically significant finding in Langerhans cells histiocystosis?
Birbeck Granules
41
5q- is seen in
myelodysplasia, AML w/ bad prognosis
42
inv(16) prognosis?
Favorable prognosis