Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IB SEHS > Multichoice practice (all topics) > Flashcards

Multichoice practice (all topics) Flashcards

1
Q

Click the image to see the question.

A. Epiphysis

B. Diaphysis

C. Periosteum

D. Yellow bone marrow

A

A

Epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major blood supply to the brain?

A. Right common carotid artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Brachiocephalic trunk
D. Left internal carotid artery

A

B. Coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main role of ligaments acting at a joint?

A. Flexible and strong tissue that connects bone to bone

B. Flexible and strong tissue that connects bone to muscle

C. Thin and shiny membrane that is important for bone growth

D. Flexible tissue that prevents friction between articulating bones

A

A

Flexible and strong tissue that connects bone to bone​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of these only contains smooth muscle?

A. Heart

B. Vein

C. Iliopsoas

D. Semimembranosus

A

B

Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which statement defines vital capacity?

A. Volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inhalation

B. Inflow and outflow of air between the atmosphere and the lungs

C. Volume of air still contained in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

D. Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation

A

D

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is responsible for an increase in ventilation during exercise?

A. An increase in pH levels of the blood

B. A decrease in carbon dioxide levels

C. An increase in acidity levels of the blood

D. An increase in oxygen levels in the blood

A

C

An increase in acidity levels of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which component of blood has the primary role of fighting infection?

A. Plasma

B. Platelets

C. Leucocytes

D. Erythrocytes

A

C

Leucocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the correct order for deoxygenated blood entering and leaving the heart?

A. Vena cava → Right ventricle → Right atrium → Pulmonary artery

B. Vena cava → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery

C. Vena cava → Right ventricle → Right atrium → Pulmonary vein

D. Vena cava → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary vein

A

B

Vena cava → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A. Cardiac output = heart rate – stroke volume

B. Cardiac output = heart rate × tidal volume

C. Cardiac output = tidal volume × frequency

D. Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate

A

D

Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the response of systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure to maximal static exercise?

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which statement describes unsaturated fat?

A. Found in coconut oil

B. Originates from animal sources

C. Contains a double bond between carbon atoms

D. Contains a single bond between carbon atoms

A

C

Contains a double bond between carbon atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the chemical composition of a protein molecule?

A. HON

B. CHN

C. CHO

D. CHON

A

D

CHON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the energy content per 100g of protein?

A. 1600 kJ

B. 1720 kJ

C. 1760 kJ

D. 4000 kJ

A

B 1720 kJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which term describes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?

A. Glycolysis

B. Glycogenesis

C. Glycogenolysis

D. Gluconeogenesis

A

C.

Glycogenolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Click the picture to view the question.

A. Cristae

B. Matrix

C. Inner membrane

D. Outer smooth membrane

A

B.

Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is a characteristic of a slow-twitch (type I) muscle fiber?

A. High numbers of mitochondria

B. Low capillary density

C. High glycogen stores

D. Low resistance to fatigue

A

A.

High numbers of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which term is defined as force applied over time?

A. Impulse

B. Velocity

C. Acceleration

D. Displacement

A

A.

Impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of centre of mass?

A. A measurement that has both size and direction

B. A measurement that only has size

C. A point of interaction between two objects

D. A point at which the weight of an object is balanced in all directions

A

D.

A point at which the weight of an object is balanced in all directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which factors are important to an athlete throwing a javelin?

I. Projection speed

II. Projection angle

III. Projection height

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

A

C.

I, II and III

I. Projection speed

II. Projection angle

III. Projection height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the relationship between angular momentum, angular velocity and moment of inertia?

A. moment of inertia = angular momentum × angular velocity

B. angular momentum = angular velocity – moment of inertia

C. angular velocity = angular momentum – moment of inertia

D. angular momentum = angular velocity × moment of inertia

A

D.

angular momentum = angular velocity × moment of inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following describes how a spinning golf ball generates lift?

I. Backspin increases the speed on the upper surface of the ball.

II. The pressure on the upper surface of the ball is less than the pressure on the lower surface of the ball.

III. The pressure on the upper surface of the ball is higher than the pressure on the lower surface of the ball.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

A

C.

I and II only

22
Q

Which of the following is a motor skill?

A. Deciding on the type of shot in basketball

B. Using a weight lifting technique

C. Planning a team’s defence in soccer

D. Reading and understanding weather reports when sailing

A

B.

Using a weight lifting technique

23
Q

What is a definition of technique?

A. The consistent production of a movement

B. The way in which a sports skill is performed

C. Goal-oriented movements that have been learned

D. A general trait of the individual related to the performance of a skill

A

B.

The way in which a sports skill is performed

24
Q

Which is an example of skill to skill transfer?

A. Throwing a tennis ball followed by throwing a javelin

B. Improving muscular strength to jump further in a long jump

C. Kicking a ball using the right foot followed by the left foot

D. Applying the principle of a third class lever when bowling in cricket

A

A.

Throwing a tennis ball followed by throwing a javelin

25
Q

Which type of practice has little or no rest between simple skills?

A. Fixed (drill)

B. Variable

C. Massed

D. Distributed

A

C.

Massed

26
Q

Which teaching style is teacher-centered, and is used when the activity involves an element of danger?

A. Command

B. Reciprocal

C. Progressive

D. Problem solving

A

A.

Command

27
Q

What is the mean flexibility score of an athlete from 6 cm, 7 cm and 11cm?

A. 7cm

B. 8cm

C. 9cm

D. 10cm

A

B.

8cm

28
Q

What percentage of data is normally distributed within ± 2 standard deviation of the mean?

A. 50%

B. 68%

C. 95%

D. 99%

A

C.

95%

29
Q

Which of the following describes reliability?

A. The instrument measures what it claims to measure.

B. The test used should be relevant to real-life scenarios.

C. The instrument used must provide an accurate measurement.

D. The same reading is obtained each time a dependent variable is measured.

A

D.

The same reading is obtained each time a dependent variable is measured.

30
Q

Which component of fitness is a combination of strength and speed?

A. Power

B. Agility

C. Muscular endurance

D. Reaction time

A

A.

Power

31
Q

Which test measures muscular strength?

A. Vertical jump

B. Flexed arm hang

C. Maximum sit-ups

D. Handgrip dynamometer

A

D.

Handgrip dynamometer

32
Q

What is the role of selective attention?

A. To filter relevant information from noise

B. To hold all information for seconds

C. To store relevant information for years

D. To pass all information to the long-term memory

A

A. To filter relevant information from noise

33
Q

At rest, the arterio-venous oxygen difference is approximately 5 mL of oxygen per 100 mL (dL) of blood. What happens to this figure when someone participates in moderately intense exercise?

A. It remains at approximately 5 mL/dL

B. It increases as much as 15 mL/dL

C. It decreases to less than 5 mL/dL

D. None of these are correct

A

B. It increases as much as 15 mL/dL

34
Q

What type of bones are the phalanges?

A. Flat bones

B. Long bones

C. Short bones

D. Irregular bones

A

B. Long bones

35
Q

The mean (± SD) exercise heart rate of a group in a physical education class is 155 beats per minute (bpm) (±14). What percentage of the group has an exercise heart rate between 141 bpm and 169 bpm?

A. 5%

B. 68%

C. 85%

D. 98%

A

B. 68%

36
Q

Which of the following describes how a spinning golf ball generates lift?

I. Backspin increases the speed on the upper surface of the ball.

II. The pressure on the upper surface of the ball is less than the pressure on the lower surface of the ball.

III. The pressure on the upper surface of the ball is higher than the pressure on the lower surface of the ball.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

A

C. I and II only

37
Q

What is the definition of the term origin of a muscle?

A. The attachment of a muscle tendon to a moveable bone

B. The attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone

C. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervate

D. A muscle contraction where there is no movement at a joint

A

B. The attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone

38
Q

What is the main role of articular cartilage?

A. Flexible and strong connective tissue that connects bone to bone

B. Flexible and strong connective tissue that connects muscle to bone

C. Flexible tissue that prevents friction between connecting bones

D. Thin shiny membrane that is important for bone growth

A

C. Flexible tissue that prevents friction between connecting bones

39
Q

Which of the following best describes terminal feedback?

A. Feedback related to the performance

B. Feedback available at the end of the performance

C. Feedback related to the quality of the performance

D. Feedback that takes place at the same time as the performance

A

B. Feedback available at the end of the performance

40
Q

Which describes local hormones?

I They travel around the body in the blood

II They are released by endocrine glands

III They affect specific target cells

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

A

C. II and III only

41
Q

Which is the correct pathway that air passes on its way from the atmosphere to the alveolus?

A. Mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea

B. Nose, pharynx, lungs, diaphragm

C. Nose, trachea, pharynx, larynx

D. Mouth, larynx, pharynx, lungs

A

A. Mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea

42
Q

Which describes the function of the cerebellum?

A. Control of cardiovascular processes

B. Responsible for thinking, language and motivation

C. Perception of sensations such as pain and temperature

D. Coordinates sequences of skeletal muscle contractions

A

D. Coordinates sequences of skeletal muscle contractions

43
Q

What are the information-processing mechanisms that match the numerals in the diagram below?

A

D

44
Q

Which is responsible for the electrical impulse that regulates the contraction of the atria in the heart?

A. Atrio-ventricular node

B. Purkinje tissue

C. Bundle of His

D. Sinoatrial node

A

D. Sinoatrial node

45
Q

The diagram below shows the ultrastructure of a generalized animal cell. What structure is labeled X?

A. Lysosome

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

C. Nucleus

D. Mitochondrion

A

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

46
Q

What is the definition of the term skill?

A. A stable, enduring characteristic that is genetically determined

B. Basic movements in sport

C. A set of movements which are genetically determined

D. The consistent production of goal-orientated movements, which are learned and specific to the task

A

D. The consistent production of goal-orientated movements, which are learned and specific to the task

47
Q

What is fatigue?

A. More training than an athlete can physically tolerate

B. Transient overtraining

C. A reversible exercise-induced decline in performance

D. A period of sickness affecting the body or mind

A

C. A reversible exercise-induced decline in performance

48
Q

What is the definition of cell respiration?

A. All biochemical reactions that occur within an organism

B. The controlled release of energy from organic compounds in the form of ATP

C. Energy requiring reactions whereby small molecules are built up into larger ones

D. Chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simpler ones

A

B. The controlled release of energy from organic compounds in the form of ATP

49
Q

Which two regions of the brain work together to maintain homeostasis?

A. Hypothalamus and pituitary gland

B. Hypothalamus and pancreas

C. Pituitary gland and adrenal gland

D. Hypothalamus and adrenal gland

A

A. Hypothalamus and pituitary gland

50
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement below?

A. Pronation

B. Supination

C. Eversion

D. Inversion

A

C. Eversion

51
Q

What causes the increase in lipolysis that is seen during aerobic exercise?

A. Increased insulin, increased glucagon

B. Increased adrenaline, decreased insulin

C. Decreased adrenaline, increased insulin

D. Decreased glucagon, decreased adrenaline

A

B. Increased adrenaline, decreased insulin

52
Q

Which is a physiological cause of peripheral fatigue in high-intensity exercise?

A. Reduction in muscle glycogen reserves

B. Depletion of acetylcholine

C. Depletion in creatine phosphate

D. Reduction in Ca2+ release

A

C. Depletion in creatine phosphate

IB SEHS (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions