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Things I don't know, but need to know, for fourth year > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the presentation of an Iliopsoas Abscess?

A

Pain relieved by hip flexion
Pain worse on extension and internal rotation, can be lower back pain

Patient is sitting on back with knees flexed and hips externally rotated slightly.

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2
Q

What imaging is used in an Iliopsoas abscess?

A

CT is first line

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3
Q

What is the commonest organism causing an Iliopsoas Abscess?

A

S. Aureus

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4
Q

What is the managment of an Iliopsoas abscess?

A

Surgical drainage and IV abx for 4-6 weeks

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5
Q

How is a non displaced patellar fracture with no extensor mechanism issues managed?

A

Hinged knee brace with weight bearing. 6 weeks

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6
Q

How is a displaced patellar fracture or one with an affected extensor mechanism managed?

A

Surgically fixed then hinged knee brace with weight bearing.

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7
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Iliotibial Band Syndrome

A

Runner
Lateral Knee pain
Extension and Flexion can induce a snapping feeling

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8
Q

What imagining is used in SUFE?

A

AP and Lateral Frog Leg X-ray

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9
Q

Clinical sign of SUFE

A

Reduced internal rotation especially when leg is flexed . Leg is sitting externally rotate.

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10
Q

What fracture is likely to present following a FOOSH

A

Colles Fracture - Dinner Fork Deformity

Distal Dorsally Displaced Radius.

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11
Q

Falling onto a flexed wrist or backwards onto outstretched hand is likely to result in what kind of fracture?

A

Smiths Fracture - Garden Spade Deformity

Distal Volar displacement of Radius.

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12
Q

A painful thumb occurring after a fist fight is likely to be what?

A

Bennets Fracture

Interarticular fracture at he base of the thumb metacarpal

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13
Q

What is a Monteggia Fracture?

A

Ulnar Fracture

Radial Head Dislocation - pain at elbow

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14
Q

What is a Galeazzi Fracture?

A

Radial Fracture

Distal Radioulnar Dislocation

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15
Q

If a young person presents with pain over radial head after a FOOSH. What could it be?

A

Radial Head Fracture

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16
Q

McMurrays test is positive in what?

A

Meniscal Tear - Pain on crouching is also common

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17
Q

Extracapsular / Intertrochanteric - Stable Fracture

A

Dynamic Hip Screw

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18
Q

Extracapsular / Intertrochanteric - Oblique, Reverse or Sub-trochanteric

A

Intramedullary Device

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19
Q

Damage to the median nerve at the level of the wrist presents with.

A

Carpal Tunnel like syndrome

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20
Q

Damage to the median nerve at the level of the elbow present with.

A 
Carpal Tunnel symptoms
Reduced forearm pronation 
Weak wrist flexion
Ulnar devotion of the arm
sign of benediction
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21
Q

Damage to the Anterior Interosseus Nerve

A

Reduced pronation of the forearm

Cant make the OK sign due to reduced thumb and forefinger flexion.

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22
Q

What fracture is likely to damage the anterior interosseus nerve?

A

Supracondylar Fracture - paediatric - direct blow to elbow or falling on elbow

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23
Q

A tibial fracture is likely to be associated with what nerve being damaged?

A

Sural nerve - posteriolateral distal 1/3 lower leg

- lateral foot and ankle

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24
Q

Sural nerve damage will present like this.

A

Sensory loss only
Posterolateral distal 1/3 of lower leg
Lateral foot

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25
Q

Finger fixed in flexion + Fusiform swelling + Tenderness

A

Tendon Flexor Tenosynovitis

IV abx + elevation +/- surgical debridement

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26
Q

What is the commonest reason for a THR revision and how does it present?

A

Aseptic loosening
Pain radiating to the knee and on weight bearing
Still able to walk and weight bear.

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27
Q

What is affected in De Quervians Tenosynovitis?

A

Extensor Pollicus Brevis and Abdcutor Pollicus Longus tendon sheath

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28
Q

If a post menopausal women presents with a fracture do they require a DEXA scan?

A

No

Bisphosphonates are used and no need for a DEXA atm

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29
Q

What is gold standard for rib fractures but what is usually enough?

A

CT scan is gold standard but X ray is usually enough

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30
Q

Management of rib fractures

A

Adequate analgesia

12 weeks and no repair -> surgery

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31
Q

Who do you refer a patient to if they present with a flail chest?

A

Cardiothorasic surgeon

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32
Q 
4-8 years 
Male
Reduced ROM
Limp
Pain
A

Perthes

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33
Q

Perthes Management

A

X ray is diagnostic
<6 - monitor
>6 or severe disease - surgery

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34
Q

Describe the classification of Ankle fractures.

A

Webers A- below syndesmoses - generally stable = moon boot
Webers B - level of syndesmoses - can be unstable observe taller shift
Webers C - Above level of sydesmoses - requires open surgery and fixation

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35
Q

List two bad things that would indicate an unstable ankle fracture on X - ray ?

A

Bi malleolar fracture - observe medial malleolus

Talar Shift look for a widened gap

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36
Q

Tibial Shaft Fracture - describe

A

Open fracture are common

Risk of compartment syndrome

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37
Q

Tibial Shaft Fracture - Management

A

Above the knee cast - conservative

IM nailing, ORIF - surgical

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38
Q

Tibial Plateau # what nerve is at risk?

A

Common peroneal nerve
Sensory lateral lower leg and top of the foot
Dorsiflexion
Eversion

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39
Q

Tibial Plateau - Management

A

ORIF, External Fixator, Delayed Total Knee Replacement - surgical
Above Knee cast - conservative

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40
Q

What splint is used in a femoral shaft fracture ?

A

Thomas Splint

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41
Q

In an old patient with a suspected pelvic fracture, where is usually affected? and how does this affect management?

A

Inferior and superior Pubic rami fracture

Usually managed conservatively

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42
Q

How are most humeral shaft fractures managed?

A

Conservatively
Distal = cast
Proximal = Humeral brace sling

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43
Q

What nerve is at risk in a proximal humeral fracture?

A

Axillary Nerve - badge patch dermatome

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44
Q

What nerve is at risk in a humeral shaft fracture?

A

Radial nerve

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45
Q

Neuropraxia

A

Temporary block - symptoms last up to 28 days

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46
Q

Axonotmesis

A

Demyelination distal to injury

Takes a long time as nerve regenerates 1mm a day

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47
Q

Neurotmesis

A

Nerve transection - no recovery without surgical repair

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48
Q

What is you concern with a intracapsular fracture?

A

Risk of avascular necrosis

Retinacular arteries get torn

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49
Q

What vessel supplies the retinacular arteries

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery

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50
Q

Hip fracture - what X-ray and what are you looking for?

A

AP and Lateral

Loss of Shentons line and prominent lesser trochanter

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51
Q

What nerve is at risk in a Hip fracture

A

Sciatic nerve damage

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52
Q

Sciatic nerve damage will present with what?

A

Weak Knee flexion

Weak Ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

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53
Q

Hip fracture - presentation

A

Acutely shortened and externally rotated leg

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54
Q

Hip dislocation - presentation

A

Pain and inability to bear weight
Posterior - Internally rotated
Anterior - Externally rotated

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55
Q

Posterior Dislocation - hip

A

Commonest type

Dashboard injury - leg internally rotated, adducted and flexed

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56
Q

Anterior Dislocation - hip

A

Less common - more likely if linked to motor bike accident

Hyperabducted and extended

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57
Q

What nerve is at risk during a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic

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58
Q

Point tenderness over greater trochanter
Generalised pain over lateral leg
Pain reproducible by resisting lateral abduction

A

Trochanteric Bursitis

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59
Q

Point tenderness over greater trochanter
Generalised pain over lateral leg
Pain reproducible by resisting lateral abduction

A

Trochanteric Bursitis

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60
Q

What is a major risk with femoral artery catheterisation?

A

Retroperitoneal bleed - posterior wall of common femoral or external iliac artery.
Surgery is only life saving method

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61
Q

What trauma is a femoral artery at risk of rupture?

A

Proximal femur fracture

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62
Q

What nerve is responsible for a trendelenburg gait?

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve - supplies gluteus minimus medius and tensor fascia lata

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63
Q

Describe a trendelenburg gait and how this can tell you what side is affected.

A

When standing on affected side the opposite leg and pelvis drop down
Body tilts towards affected side

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64
Q

What other non neuro causes of a Trendelenburg gait is there?

A

Muscle weakness
Perthes disease
osteonecrosis of the hip
Developmental dysplasia

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65
Q

What nerve is affected in meralgia parasthetica ?

A

Lateral Femoral cutaneous nerve

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66
Q

Obese pregnant Diabetic lady wearing tight jeans

Anterolateral thigh pain and paraesthesia

A

Meralgia Paraesthetica

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67
Q

A patient who cant sit on their wallet for along period of time without pain.
Pain tingling and numbness over buttocks and sciatica distribution

A

Piriformi syndrome

Muscle injury or hypertrophy

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68
Q

In a severe hamstring tear what fracture may occur?

A

Avulsion fracture of the ischial tuberosity

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69
Q

Where is the safe space to administer an IM injection in the buttocks?

A

Superiolateral quadrant

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70
Q

In a tibiofemoral dislocation what are you worried about?

A

Neurovascular compromise as displace bone compresses popliteal fossa and its contents

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71
Q

What is your management of a tibifemoral dislocation?

A

Immediate reduction
Neurovascular exam
ABPI
CT angiogram

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72
Q

Lateral epicondyle pain in a keen runner and cyclist

Knee pain on flexion extension

A

Iliotibial band syndrome

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73
Q

What artery supplies the ACL?

A

Distal Medial Geniculate Artery

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74
Q

Whats the unhappy triad?

A

MCL ACL Medial Meniscus

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75
Q

Whats the commonest combination of soft tissue injury in the knee?

A

ACL MCL and Lateral Meniscus

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76
Q

Pain Erythema Boginess over patella

Person kneels a lot

A

Prepattelar bursitis

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77
Q

Pain over distal patellar ligament

Kneels a lot

A

Superficial infrapatellar bursitis

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78
Q

Patient generally kneels a lot but with a more upright back

Pain over patellar ligament laying over tibial tuberosity

A

Deep infra patellar bursitis

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79
Q

Suprapatellar Bursitis

A

Supra patellar pain selling redness warmth and reduced ROM

Generally there will have been a preceding superficial wound and bacterial infection.

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80
Q

Ruptured Bakers Cyst

A

Calf pain, warmth, erythema and swelling.

USS required to rule out DVT

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81
Q

Anterior knee pain on stairs
Prolonged stiffness
Teenage girl

A

Chondromalacia Patellae

- patellar cartilage is softened

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82
Q

Pain after exercise with intermittent swelling and locking

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans

83
Q

Septic Arthritis in young sexually acitve

A

N.Gonorrhoea

84
Q

Septic arthritis in sickle cell patient

A

Salmonella

85
Q

Commonest septic arthritis

A

S.Aureus

86
Q

Septic arthritis <6 week joint replacement

A

Stap Epidermidis

87
Q

Common in younger

A

Haemophilus

Strep. Pyogenes

88
Q

A history of young child being pulled by the arm
Elbow pain
Limited supination and extension of the elbow

A

Radial Head subluxation

89
Q

Management of a radial head subluxation

A

Anaelgasia

Passive supination of elbow joint whilst elbow is flexed

90
Q

The tibial nerve is a branch of what nerve?

A

Sciatic -> common fibular -> tibial nerve

91
Q

At what two levels can the tibial nerve be injured?

A

Popliteal fossa - posteror dislocations, trauma, surgery
Tarsal tunnel - Talus, calcaneus or medial malleolar fractures
- compression

92
Q

How would damage to the tibial nerve at the level of the popliteal fossa present?

A

Inability to plantar flex, invert foot or toe flexion

Sensory loss to sole of the foot

93
Q

Injury to the tibial nerve at the level of the tarsal tunnel will resent with?

A

Sensory loss to the sole of the foot

Motor function is preserved.

94
Q

Where does the fibular nerve come from?

A

Divides from the sciatic nerve at the apex of the popliteal fossa.

95
Q

Describe the branches of the femoral (peroneal) nerve

A

Superficial - sensory innervation to the lateral compartment of the lower leg and the dorsum of the foot.
Deep - Motor - dorsiflexes and everts the foot
- sensory - 1st web space

96
Q

Where is the likely point of injury to the fibular nerve going to occur and how would this present?

A

At the head of the fibular - compression trauma
Foot drop and loss of foot eversion and sensory loss to lateral leg and whole dorsum of the foot.
Plantar flexion and inversion remain intact.

97
Q

Commonest site of a tibial fracture

A

Distal 1/3

98
Q

Where is the commonest compartment to be affected in lower leg compartment syndrome.

A

Anterior

Anterior Tibial Artery + Deep fibular nerve

99
Q

How will anterior compartment syndrome in the lower leg present.

A

Compartment syndrome symptoms +

Foot drop and loss of first webspace sensation

100
Q

Lateral Compartment syndrome in lower leg

A

Superficial fibula nerve is affected - loss of sensation to lateral lower leg + dorsum of the foot
First webspace sensation is intact

101
Q

Deep Posterior Compartment syndrome

A

Tibial nerve - Reduced plantar flexion, foot inversion

Posterior Tibial artery - reduced pulse detected

102
Q

Superficial Posterior compartment syndrome

A

Least likely to be affected as no artery

103
Q

Name the 4 compartment in the lower leg

A

Anterior
Lateral
Superficial Posterior
Deep Posterior

104
Q

What is the commonest ankle sprain?

A

Lateral ankle - anterior talofibular ligament

105
Q

What force is associated with an anterior talofibular ligament tear?

A

Extreme inversion and plantar flexion

106
Q

What should be looked for in an anterior talofibular ligament injury?

A

Lateral Malleolus fracture

107
Q

Why are medial ankles sprains less common?

A

As the deltoid ligaments are the strongest in the ankle.

108
Q

In a medial ankle sprain what should be looked for if the deltoid ligaments have been torn?

A

Medial Malleolus avulsion

109
Q

What is the energy applied in a medial ankle sprain?

A

Eversion

110
Q

What is affected in a high ankle sprain. Syndesmotic Sprain.

A

Anterior Posterior and transverse tibiofibular ligament

Interossues membrane

111
Q

Common MOA for clavicle fracture.

A

FOOSH

Direct fall onto the shoulder

112
Q

What test is used to detect for acromioclavicular joint issues?

A

Scarf test

113
Q

What test is used to detect for a rotator cuff tear or AC impingement?

A

Empty can test

114
Q

The upper brachial plexus is made up of what nerve roots?

A

C5/6

115
Q

Damage to the upper brachial plexus results in what injury and how might this occur?

A

Erbs palsy -

Generally by increasing the angle between the shoulder and neck i.e pulling on babies head during delivery

116
Q

What nerves are affected in an Erbs palsy?

A

Auxiliary
Musculucutaneous
Suprascapular nerves

117
Q

Erbs palsy

A

Waiters tip
Arm adducted and internally rotated
Wrist flexed
+/- HORNERS SYNDROME

118
Q

What makes up the lower brachial plexus?

A

C8/T1

119
Q

A lower brachial plexus injury will present with?

A

Klumpkes palsy - increased angle between trunk and shoulder

Medial and Ulnar nerve palsy

120
Q

A klumpkes palsy will present with?

A

Clawed hand

Medial sensory distribution loss

121
Q

How does thoracic outlet syndrome present?

A

Upper extremity swelling

Exertional arm pain

122
Q

Surgical neck of the humerus fracture - nerve and artery affected

A

Axillary nerve - badge patch sensation lost

Anterior and posterior circumflex arteries

123
Q

Humeral shaft fracture - nerve and artery affected

A

Radial - wrist drop, loss of sensation to dorsum of the hand and forearm
Deep brachial artery

124
Q

Supracondylar fracture - nerves

A

Median - medially displaced

Radial - laterally displaced

125
Q

What is the commonest cause of damage to the ulnar nerve at the level of guyons canal?

A

Hook of hamate fracture

Compression i.e riding a bike

126
Q

A boxers fracture is usually due to?

A

5th metacarpal fracture

127
Q

Ape Hand

A

Recurrent medial nerve

128
Q

Recurrent medial nerve

A

Innervates thenar muscles
Thumb flexion and opposition
‘inability to button up a shirt’

129
Q

What do lumbricals do?

A

Flex MCP

Extend DIP and PIP

130
Q

Median nerve damage at the level of the wrist.

A

At rest the index and middle finger are flexed

Medial Claw

131
Q

Why does a medial claw occur in a distal median nerve injury?

A

Because the median nerve innervates the lumbricals of the 1st and 2nd digits
As a result at rest there is MCP flexsion and DIP /PIP extension of those digits

132
Q

What occurs in medial nerve damage at the level of the elbow?

A

Sign of benediction

When making a fist only the 4th and 5th finger can flex

133
Q

Why does proximal median nerve injury result in the sign of benediction?

A

Distal presentation +

Finger flexors - FDP laterally and all FDP are affected.

134
Q

A distal ulnar nerve injury will present with

A

Ulnar claw

At rest, as 4/5th digits lumbricals are paralysed - MCP extended DIP/PIP flexed

135
Q

What does the ulnar nerve damage affect in the hand?

A 
Abductors and Adductors of digits 2-5
Adduction of the thumb
Weak 4/5 flexion
Hypothenar atrophy
Froments test - thumb will bend when pinching paper
136
Q

Proximal ulnar nerve damage is likely due to?

A

Medial epicondyle fracture

Leaning or sleeping on the elbow

137
Q

How will a proximal ulnar nerve injury present?

A

Okay sign

On making a fist there is the inability to flex 4/5th digits

138
Q

Why does a proximal ulnar nerve injury result in a Okay sign?

A

Same as distal lesion +

Flexor digitorum profundus is lost to the 4/5th digits

139
Q

Finger drop is due to?

A

Excessive pronation or supination

Radial nerve

140
Q

What nerve is affected to cause finger drop?

A

Deep radial nerve - supplies extensor indices

Passes through supinator muscles - compressed during supination

141
Q

A mid humeral shaft fracture will present with

A

Reduced supination and extension of the wrist

142
Q

If someone presents with elbow and wrist reduced flexion where has the injury occurred?

A

Above the level of the triceps usually at brachial plexus

143
Q

A patient presents with dizziness and vertigo.
They also complain of arm pain.
Both the pain and the dizziness is made worse when they use the arm.

A

Subclavian steal syndrome
A stenosis in the subclavian artery means blood flow is stolen an reversed from the vertebral arteries- producing the posterior cerebral symptoms and the claudication like pain in the arm.

144
Q

What test will illicit pain in an iliopsoas abscess?

A

Lay patient on unaffected side. Hyperextend their hips. This will stretch their Iliopsoas muscle causing pain.

145
Q

Causes of Iliopsoas abscess

A

Primary - Haematogenous spread of bacteria - S.Aureus

Secondary - Crohns #, Diverticular disease, UTI, Cancer, PWID

146
Q 
Male under 25
Metaphysic of long bones - around knee
Exostoses with a cartilaginous cap on X-Ray 
Rare risk of malignant potential
Formed or growth plate tissue
A

Osteochondroma

Can become chondrocarcinoma

147
Q

20-40 year sold
Previous bone trauma or radiation
Epiphysis of long bones
Soap Bubbles on x -ray and local invasion

A

Giant Cell

148
Q

Male
No response to NSAID for pain
X ray shows >2cm nidus a disorganise amass of blood vessels and trabecular tissue
Affects vertebrae

A

Osteoblastoma

149
Q

Male under 25
Severe pain particularly at night
NSAIDs are very effective
X ray shows <2cm nidus with a sclerotic halo

A

Osteoid Osteoma

150
Q

Middle aged
Surface of the facial bones
No malignant transformation
Link to gardeners syndrome - colonic polyps

A

Osteomas

151
Q

Arising from chondocytes

Affects small bones of hand and feet

A

Chondroma

152
Q

Male under 20
Arising from osteoblasts
Metaphysis of long bones very aggressive
X ray shows - Lytic sunburst lesion

A

osteosarcoma

153
Q

What two conditions are linked with osteosarcoma

A

Li Fraumeni syndrome

Familial Retinoblatoma

154
Q 
Male causasian under 15
Diaphysis of long bones or pelvis 
Pain and systemically unwell
Locally aggressive 
Onion skin on xray 
Responds to chemotherapy
A

Ewings sarcoma

155
Q

What bone tumour is commonest in the elderly?

A

Chondrosarcoma

156
Q

When do you assess for osteoporosis and how?

A

FRAX score
Women >65
Male >75
Younger if risk factors like smoking FH falls

157
Q 
Commonest bone tumour in 40-50 years
Hypercalcaemia
Renal disease
Anaemia
Bone pain
A

Multiple Myeloma

158
Q

Osteomyelitis from haematogenous spread where is it likely to occur?

A

Metaphysis - young

Epiphysis - old

159
Q

Describe Salter Harris fractures

A

Type 1 - Straight across the physis
Type 2 - Passes through physis and into the metaphysis
Type 3 - Passes through physis and into epiphysis
Type 4 - Vertical fracture through metaphysis epiphysis and physis
Type 5 - Crush injury across physis

160
Q

Lericke syndrome

A

Claudication of buttocks and legs
Impotence
Absent femoral pulses
+/- leg muscle atrophy

Due to severe atherosclerosis of distal aorta iliac of femoral arteries

161
Q

Marfans

A 
Autosomal dominant defect in fibrillin 1 gene
Upward lense dislocation
Pneumothhorax
Aortic issues
Mitral valve prolapse
Dural ectasia
162
Q

Painful on external rotation with both passive and active movement.
Pain present in internal and abduction but not as severe.
Middle aged female

A

Adhesive capsulitis

Painful phase -> frozen -> normal

163
Q

What is the first line investigation into a query osteoporotic vertebral fracture?

A

X ray spine

164
Q

What muscles of the hand does the median nerve supply?

A

Lumbricals 2 and 3rd = Flexors or MCP
Opponens Pollicis = Brings thumb across hand
Abductor Pollicis = Abducts thumb
Flexor Pollicis Brevis = flexes thumb

165
Q

What does the guideline now say about starting allopurinol for gout prophylaxis?

A

Start when all signs of inflammation and pain have stopped.

166
Q

Carpal Tunnel

A

6 week conservative - wrist splints + steroid injections

Severe or failure of conservative measures = Flexor Retinacular Division

167
Q 
Carpal Tunnel that is resistant to treatment
Lower limb stiffness and weakness
Autonomic dysfunction 
Paraesthesia
\+ve Hoffmans
A

Degenerative Cervical Myelopathy

168
Q

Commonest Metatarsal Stress Fracture

A

2nd

169
Q

Management of sciatica

A

4-6 weeks conservative - gabapentin + physiotherapy

No results - referral to neurosurgery

170
Q

Leg shortened and internal rotated

A

Posterior Hip dislocation

171
Q

Ulnar nerve supplies in the hand

A 
Medial Lumbricals
Abductor Digiti minimi 
Flexor digiti minimi
Adductor Pollicis
Interossei
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
172
Q

What scoring system is used to diagnose Ehlers-Danlos?

A

Beighton Score
>6/9 in children is diagnostic
>5/9 in adults is diagnostic

173
Q

Perthes Disease - management

A

<6 years = Observe

>6 years = surgical management

174
Q 
Female 4:1
Forefoot pain - burning or shooting
Loss of sensation distally in foot 
Mulders click
# 3rd inter tarsal space
A

Mortons neuroma - clinical diagnosis -> USS can be helpful

175
Q

Mortons Neuroma - Management

A

Avoid high heals
Metatarsal pads
Refer if three months no improvement
- Steroid injection or surgery

176
Q

Septic arthritis management

A

Aspirate for culture ASAP - before abx
IV antibiotic - Flucloxacillin for two weeks - 2 weeks oral. Vancomycin if pen allergic
Surgical washout

177
Q

Management of Osteochondritis Dissecans

A

Early orthopaedic involvement is key

X-Ray and MRI

178
Q

What imagining is used in osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

179
Q

A positive femoral stretch test in the context of hip pain could indicate what?

A

Lumbar spine source of the pain

180
Q

Musculocutaneous

A

C5-C7
Elbow flexion and supination
Sensory to lateral forearm
Brachial plexus injury

181
Q

Axillary

A

C5 C6
Shoulder abduction
Badge patch
Humeral neck fracture

182
Q

Radial

A

C5/C8
Extension of forearm wrist fingers and thumb
Humeral mid shaft fracture

183
Q

Median

A

C6 C8 T1
LOAF
Wrist - thenar muscles and opponens pollis
Elbow - reduced pronation and wrist flexion

184
Q

Ulnar

A

C8 T1
Intrinsic hand muscles - LOAF
Wrist flexion
Medial epicondyle fracture

185
Q

LOAF

A

Lumbricals - lateral
Opponens pollis
Abductor pollis brevis
Flexor pollis brevis

186
Q

Management of frozen shoulder syndrome

A

Only physio is deemed to be effective

187
Q

Acromioclavicular injury grade I or II - management

A

Sling and analgesia

188
Q

Acromioclavicular injury grade IV V VI - management

A

Surgery

189
Q

Three key points in achilles rupture

A

Calf squeeze - doesn’t illicit plantar flexion
Observe angle of declination
Palpation of tendon

190
Q

When is scaphoid imaging repeated?

A

7-10 days later if not initially visualised

191
Q

L3 - motor and sensory

A

Motor - weak quadriceps and knee reflex

Sensory - Anterolateral thigh

192
Q

L4 - motor and sensory

A

Motor - weak quadriceps and knee reflex

Sensory - Anterior knee

193
Q

L5 - motor and sensory function

A

Motor - Ankle and big toe dorsiflexion. Ankle reflex intact

Sensory - Dorsum of the foot

194
Q

S1 - Motor and sensory function

A

Motor - Plantar flexion and inversion

Sensory - posteriolateral leg and lateral foot.

195
Q

Gold standard investiation in degenerative cervical myelopathy.

A

MRI c-spine

196
Q

Commonest Metatarsal fracture and the common cause

A

5th metatarsal

Inversion of foot

197
Q

What test can differentiate short femur from a short tibia?

A

Galleazi test

198
Q

Femur Fracture Garden Classification

A
  1. Undisplaced Incomplete
  2. Undisplaced complete
  3. Partial displacement
  4. Fully displaced
199
Q

A patient with a good premorbid function presents with an undisplaced NOF #. What is the management.

A

Internal fixation with a cannulated screw.
THR - displaced fracture
Hemiarthroplasty - poor premorbid function

200
Q

What is the imagining of choice in avascular necrosis of the femoral head

A

MRI as X ray may not show any signs

201
Q

Nerve block commonly used in a neck of femur fracture.

A

Iliofascial nerve block

202
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis

A

Tennis elbow

Extended and supinated + resisted extension

203
Q

Medial Epicondylitis

A

Golfers elbow

Things I don't know, but need to know, for fourth year (31 decks)

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