Infectious Diseases Flashcards by Jonah Morgan

What is the management of early Lymes Disease?

Oral Doxycycline

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the management of Disseminate Lymes Disease?

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Scarlet fever how is it managed?

Oral Penicillin for 10 days
Azithromycin in pen allergic
Return to school after 24hrs of abx

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Scarlet Fever - Presentation

Sandpaper rash
Strawberry tongue
Desquamation of hands and feet
Fever malaise

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How is someone managed who has been exposed i.e needle stick to a HIV +ve person?

Oral Antiretroviral for four weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is used to treat Schistosomiasis?

Even asymptomatic infection is treated with Praziquantel.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Typhoid - organism

Salmonella

Blood culture is diagnostic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Typhoid Presentation

Abdominal Distension 
Constipation or pea green diarrhoea 
Rose Spots
Systemically Unwell
Relative bradycardia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dengue Fever - Presentation

Fever 
Headache
Bone Pain
Myalgia
Maculopapular Rash
Haemorrhagic Manifestations

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dengue Fever - Lab results

Thrombocytopenia

Leukocytosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dengue Fever - Management

Symptomatic treatment only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Severe Campylobacter Treatment

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the treatment of someone who is immunosuppressed with Toxoplasmosis Gondi

Pyrimethamine + Sulphadiazine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the treatment of Toxoplasmosis Gondi who is non immunocompromised?

No treatment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If someone has received all their tetanus jabs in the last ten years. What is their management if they cut themselves on a dirty object.

No vaccine or booster is needed regardless of the severity.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What Vaccination is given to all students?

Meningitis ACWY

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bilateral Conjunctivitis
Bilateral Calf Pain
High Fevers

Leptosporosis

Sewage worker is BUZZWORD

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What causes an Amoebic Abscess?

Entamoeba Histolytica

MSM or Anal sex are risk factors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Signs of Amoebic Abscess

RIgors
Swinging fevers
Colitis
Anchovy sauce aspirate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Management of an Amoebic Abscess

IV metronidazole / Tinidazole

Surgical drainage if rupture risk or 72hs or abx and no improvement

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Management of Osteomyelitis

WAIT for culture from bone biopsy 
IV Flucloxacillin + Fusidic Acid/Rifampacin
Vancomycin in MRSA
Clindamycin in Pen Allergic 
Surgical debridement is key

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does osteomyelitis differ from Cellulitis?

Osteomyelitis is usually more subacute
History of deep penetrating injury
Discharging Sinus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rheumatic Fever - organism

Immune response weeks after Strep Pyogenes infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever.

``` Erythema Marginatum - erythematous borders clear in middle Chorea- late presentation Polyarthritis Carditis or vulvitis Subcutaneous nodules ```

Management of rheumatic fever

Oral Penicillin V | NSAIDs

Painful large sharply defined undermined ulcer - genitals | Painful unilateral inguinal nodes

Chancroid

Small Painless ulcer Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy Proctatitis

LGV | Doxycycline

Hepatitis - HBs means

SAFE Immunisation if isolated Previous infection if alongside HBc

Hepatitis - HBc

Caught | Previous Hep B infection

Sign of Syphilis disease activity

Rapid Plasma Regain | 1/2 is less activity that 1/8 - amount of times you need to dilute the sample to get no syphilis

Sign of current or past syphilis infection

TPPA - very sensitive

Sign of a current syphilis infection

High RPR i.e 1/32 | ELISA Acute IgM present

Syphilis post penicillin reactions

Some can develop a fever and rash | Simple Paracetamol is all that's required

Cause of lymes disease

Borellai Burgdorferi

Some longterm affects of untreated lymes disease

Bilateral facial palsy

Presentation of lymes disease

Erythema Migrans - clinically diagnoses from this Joint pain Fever Headache

A concurrent infection of what two thing puts you at an increased risk of N. Fascitis?

``` Chicken Pox (Varicella Zoster) Group A Strep ( Strep. Pyogenes) ```

Successfully treated syphilis will present with what on serological testing?

-ve non treponemal test - reactivity of the serum i.e RPR | +ve treponemal test - TPHA and other enzyme assays

Management of shingles

If within 72 hours antivirals should be given | Paracetamol and NSAIDs are used for pain management - amitriptyline in severe

When can antivirals not be used in shingles?

If under 50 with a mild infection and limited pain,

What is the benefit of giving antivirals in shingles?

Reduces risk of developing post herpetic neuralgia

When is shingles no longer infectious?

when the vesicles have crusted over - usually 5-7 days | Reduce infectivity by covering up the rash

A CD4 count under 400 what should be given?

Co-Trimoxazole

White patches typically affecting the lateral border of the tongue, painless. Not removed with light pressure.

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia Linked to EBV and underlying HIV infection Treatment involves management of HIV and will generally resolve with antiretrovirals.

White patches in the mouth that lift with light pressure.

Oral candidas

What is the commonest form on non falciparum malaria?

Plasmodium Vivax

Fever - cyclical every 48 hours Headache Splenomegaly

How do you manage plasmodium vivax malaria?

Acute - Chloroquine or ACT Artemismin Base Combunation Therapy. - avoid ACT in pregnancy Post acute - Primaquine is given to prevent relapse by destroying dormant vivax.

What causes Necrotising fasciitis type 1?

Mixed anaerobes and aerobes - diabetics post surgery - commonest type of NF

What causes type 2 NF

Strep Pyogenes

Hep A

Faeco-oral No chronic disease no increased cancer risk Flu + RUQ pain + deranged LFTs + jaundice RNA virus 2-4 week incubation Effective vaccine - endemic areas, MSM

What is first line for threadworm?

Mebendazole

Acid Fast Bacilli test is positive in

TB Leprosy Any mycoplasma

If someone test positive for HIV at week 4 with an antigen and antibody test. What is the management?

Start antiretrovirals now | Retest at 12 weeks

All new TB diagnoses require what other test?

HIV test

How long post infection does HIV seroconversion occur?

3-12 weeks

For how long post exposure can you give Post exposure prophylaxis for in HIV?

72 hours

What is the commonest cause of a chronically infected wound?

Pseudomonas

Chagas Disease

Everything gets big | Big dilated heart oesophagus and colon - dysfunctional

What test can help you distinguish Dengue fever

Torniquet test - applying a tourniquet casting petechia to develop.

Gram +ve diplococci - chains

Strep Pneumonia

Gram -ve bacilli

E.coli

Gram -ve coccobacili

H.Influenzae

Gram +ve cocci

Listerian Monocytogene

Antibiotic of choice in ESBL producing bacteria

Meropenem | Carbapenem

What additional treatment may be required a the management of sepsis?

Adrenaline or epinephrine - to counter vasodilation

Malaria + drowsiness + confusion = what type

Plasmodium Falciparum