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Things I don't know, but need to know, for fourth year > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management of early Lymes Disease?

A

Oral Doxycycline

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2
Q

What is the management of Disseminate Lymes Disease?

A

Ceftriaxone

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3
Q

Scarlet fever how is it managed?

A

Oral Penicillin for 10 days
Azithromycin in pen allergic
Return to school after 24hrs of abx

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4
Q

Scarlet Fever - Presentation

A

Sandpaper rash
Strawberry tongue
Desquamation of hands and feet
Fever malaise

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5
Q

How is someone managed who has been exposed i.e needle stick to a HIV +ve person?

A

Oral Antiretroviral for four weeks

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6
Q

What is used to treat Schistosomiasis?

A

Even asymptomatic infection is treated with Praziquantel.

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7
Q

Typhoid - organism

A

Salmonella

Blood culture is diagnostic

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8
Q

Typhoid Presentation

A 
Abdominal Distension 
Constipation or pea green diarrhoea 
Rose Spots
Systemically Unwell
Relative bradycardia
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9
Q

Dengue Fever - Presentation

A 
Fever 
Headache
Bone Pain
Myalgia
Maculopapular Rash
Haemorrhagic Manifestations
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10
Q

Dengue Fever - Lab results

A

Thrombocytopenia

Leukocytosis

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11
Q

Dengue Fever - Management

A

Symptomatic treatment only

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12
Q

Severe Campylobacter Treatment

A

Clarithromycin

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13
Q

What is the treatment of someone who is immunosuppressed with Toxoplasmosis Gondi

A

Pyrimethamine + Sulphadiazine

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14
Q

What is the treatment of Toxoplasmosis Gondi who is non immunocompromised?

A

No treatment

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15
Q

If someone has received all their tetanus jabs in the last ten years. What is their management if they cut themselves on a dirty object.

A

No vaccine or booster is needed regardless of the severity.

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16
Q

What Vaccination is given to all students?

A

Meningitis ACWY

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17
Q

Bilateral Conjunctivitis
Bilateral Calf Pain
High Fevers

A

Leptosporosis

Sewage worker is BUZZWORD

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18
Q

What causes an Amoebic Abscess?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

MSM or Anal sex are risk factors

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19
Q

Signs of Amoebic Abscess

A

RIgors
Swinging fevers
Colitis
Anchovy sauce aspirate

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20
Q

Management of an Amoebic Abscess

A

IV metronidazole / Tinidazole

Surgical drainage if rupture risk or 72hs or abx and no improvement

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21
Q

Management of Osteomyelitis

A 
WAIT for culture from bone biopsy 
IV Flucloxacillin + Fusidic Acid/Rifampacin
Vancomycin in MRSA
Clindamycin in Pen Allergic 
Surgical debridement is key
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22
Q

H

A
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23
Q

How does osteomyelitis differ from Cellulitis?

A

Osteomyelitis is usually more subacute
History of deep penetrating injury
Discharging Sinus

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24
Q

Rheumatic Fever - organism

A

Immune response weeks after Strep Pyogenes infection

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25
Q

Signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever.

A 
Erythema Marginatum - erythematous borders clear in middle
Chorea- late presentation 
Polyarthritis
Carditis or vulvitis
Subcutaneous nodules
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26
Q

Management of rheumatic fever

A

Oral Penicillin V

NSAIDs

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27
Q

Painful large sharply defined undermined ulcer - genitals

Painful unilateral inguinal nodes

A

Chancroid

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28
Q

Small Painless ulcer
Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy
Proctatitis

A

LGV

Doxycycline

29
Q

Hepatitis - HBs means

A

SAFE
Immunisation if isolated
Previous infection if alongside HBc

30
Q

Hepatitis - HBc

A

Caught

Previous Hep B infection

31
Q

Sign of Syphilis disease activity

A

Rapid Plasma Regain

1/2 is less activity that 1/8 - amount of times you need to dilute the sample to get no syphilis

32
Q

Sign of current or past syphilis infection

A

TPPA - very sensitive

33
Q

Sign of a current syphilis infection

A

High RPR i.e 1/32

ELISA Acute IgM present

34
Q

Syphilis post penicillin reactions

A

Some can develop a fever and rash

Simple Paracetamol is all that’s required

35
Q

Cause of lymes disease

A

Borellai Burgdorferi

36
Q

Some longterm affects of untreated lymes disease

A

Bilateral facial palsy

37
Q

Presentation of lymes disease

A

Erythema Migrans - clinically diagnoses from this
Joint pain
Fever
Headache

38
Q

A concurrent infection of what two thing puts you at an increased risk of N. Fascitis?

A 
Chicken Pox (Varicella Zoster)
Group A Strep ( Strep. Pyogenes)
39
Q

Successfully treated syphilis will present with what on serological testing?

A

-ve non treponemal test - reactivity of the serum i.e RPR

+ve treponemal test - TPHA and other enzyme assays

40
Q

Management of shingles

A

If within 72 hours antivirals should be given

Paracetamol and NSAIDs are used for pain management - amitriptyline in severe

41
Q

When can antivirals not be used in shingles?

A

If under 50 with a mild infection and limited pain,

42
Q

What is the benefit of giving antivirals in shingles?

A

Reduces risk of developing post herpetic neuralgia

43
Q

When is shingles no longer infectious?

A

when the vesicles have crusted over - usually 5-7 days

Reduce infectivity by covering up the rash

44
Q

A CD4 count under 400 what should be given?

A

Co-Trimoxazole

45
Q

White patches typically affecting the lateral border of the tongue, painless. Not removed with light pressure.

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
Linked to EBV and underlying HIV infection
Treatment involves management of HIV and will generally resolve with antiretrovirals.

46
Q

White patches in the mouth that lift with light pressure.

A

Oral candidas

47
Q

What is the commonest form on non falciparum malaria?

A

Plasmodium Vivax

48
Q

Plasmodium Vivax

A

Fever - cyclical every 48 hours
Headache
Splenomegaly

49
Q

How do you manage plasmodium vivax malaria?

A

Acute - Chloroquine or ACT Artemismin Base Combunation Therapy.
- avoid ACT in pregnancy
Post acute - Primaquine is given to prevent relapse by destroying dormant vivax.

50
Q

What causes Necrotising fasciitis type 1?

A

Mixed anaerobes and aerobes - diabetics post surgery - commonest type of NF

51
Q

What causes type 2 NF

A

Strep Pyogenes

52
Q

Hep A

A

Faeco-oral
No chronic disease no increased cancer risk
Flu + RUQ pain + deranged LFTs + jaundice
RNA virus 2-4 week incubation
Effective vaccine - endemic areas, MSM

53
Q

What is first line for threadworm?

A

Mebendazole

54
Q

Acid Fast Bacilli test is positive in

A

TB
Leprosy
Any mycoplasma

55
Q

If someone test positive for HIV at week 4 with an antigen and antibody test. What is the management?

A

Start antiretrovirals now

Retest at 12 weeks

56
Q

All new TB diagnoses require what other test?

A

HIV test

57
Q

How long post infection does HIV seroconversion occur?

A

3-12 weeks

58
Q

For how long post exposure can you give Post exposure prophylaxis for in HIV?

A

72 hours

59
Q

What is the commonest cause of a chronically infected wound?

A

Pseudomonas

60
Q

Chagas Disease

A

Everything gets big

Big dilated heart oesophagus and colon - dysfunctional

61
Q

What test can help you distinguish Dengue fever

A

Torniquet test - applying a tourniquet casting petechia to develop.

62
Q

Gram +ve diplococci - chains

A

Strep Pneumonia

63
Q

Gram -ve bacilli

A

E.coli

64
Q

Gram -ve coccobacili

A

H.Influenzae

65
Q

Gram +ve cocci

A

Listerian Monocytogene

66
Q

Antibiotic of choice in ESBL producing bacteria

A

Meropenem

Carbapenem

67
Q

What additional treatment may be required a the management of sepsis?

A

Adrenaline or epinephrine - to counter vasodilation

68
Q

Malaria + drowsiness + confusion = what type

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

Things I don't know, but need to know, for fourth year (31 decks)

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