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Bio/Anatomy > Mott Final > Flashcards

Mott Final Flashcards

1
Q

Median Plane

A

Divides the body right in the middle into right and left

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2
Q

Sagittal Plane

A

Divides the body into left and right (anywhere)

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3
Q

Frontal (coronal) Plane

A

Divides the body into front and back

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4
Q

transverse Plane

A

Divides the body into upper and lower portions around the umbilical region

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5
Q

Bilateral

A

Both sides

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6
Q

Unilateral

A

One side

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7
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Same side

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8
Q

Contralateral

A

opposite side

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9
Q

Abduction

A

Away from the midline of the body

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10
Q

Adduction

A

Towards the midline of the body

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11
Q

Ventral Cavity consists of what cavities?

A

Thoracic, Abdominopelvic cavity

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12
Q

Dorsal Cavity consists of what cavities?

A

Cranial cavity, spinal cavity

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13
Q

What are cavities?

A

Large spaces that hold and protect organs

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14
Q

Tell me the 9 body regions from right upper to left lower

A

Right hypochondriac region,
Epigastric region,
Left hypochondriac region,
Right lumbar region,
Umbilical region,
Left lumbar region,
Right inguinal (iliac) region,
Hypogastric region,
Left inguinal (iliac) region

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15
Q

What organs are in the right upper quadrant?

A

Liver, Right Kidney, Gallbladder, some parts of the pancreas, Colon

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16
Q

What organs are in the left upper quadrant?

A

Stomach, Most parts of the pancreas, Spleen, Left kidney, Colon,

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17
Q

What organs are in the right lower quadrant?

A

Appendix, ureter, Colon, Small intestine, Major artery and vein to the right leg

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18
Q

What organs are in the left lower quadrant?

A

Colon, Small intestine, Major artery and vein to the left leg, Ureter

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19
Q

List the order from the smallest to biggest, (Cell –>)

A

Atom, molecule, macromolecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism (human)

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20
Q

What are the two types of cells?

A

Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells

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21
Q

What is the difference between Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells have a distinct Nucleus and Prokaryotic have no clear nucleus. (Nuclear material is spread out)

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22
Q

Function of cell membrane

A

Keep the cell together
Give and maintain shape
separate from surrounding
responsible for allowing materials in and out of the cell (selective permeability)

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23
Q

What is the cell membrane made up of?

A

They are mostly made up of lipids

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24
Q

What is the cell membrane composed of?

A

Phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins

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25
Q

What is special about the phospholipids of the cell membrane?

A

–It has a hydrophilic head where the phosphate group is negatively charged
–It has a hydrophobic tail where the lipid talks are uncharged
–Head is the outside and tail is inside.

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26
Q

What are transmembrane proteins? (Membrane proteins)

A

Protein that spans the membrane

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27
Q

What are receptors? (Membrane proteins)

A

Proteins found of extracellular surfaces
They selectively binds to specific molecules which translates to a specific reaction within the cell

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28
Q

What are channel proteins? (Membrane Proteins)

A

Allow select materials to pass in and out of the cell

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29
Q

What are glycoproteins? (Membrane proteins)

A

Proteins that have a carbohydrate molecule attached to it

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30
Q

What does the carbohydrate molecule do in the glycoprotein?

A

They work like a “name tag” for the cell,
It helps the cell “introduce itself” to other cells so they can recognize each other.

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31
Q

Carbohydrate molecule in the glycoprotein: It helps the cell “introduce itself” to other cells so they can recognize each other. Why is this important?

A

It is important for processes like the immune system to identify which cells belong in the body and which might be invaders.

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32
Q

What are two types of transport methods?

A

Active and Passive

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33
Q

What is Active transport

A

Requires energy, and it moves solutes from low to high concentration. (against the concentration gradient)

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34
Q

What is Passive transport?

A

Does not require energy and moves solutes from high to low concentration. (Down the concentration gradient)

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35
Q

Two types of Passive Transport

A

Diffusion and Osmosis

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36
Q

what is diffusion?

A

Solutes move from high to low concentration until they become equal.

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37
Q

Example of Diffusion

A

Moves oxygen from lungs to blood
CO2 from blood to lungs and eventually to outside air

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38
Q

What is Osmosis?

A

Movement of water from high to low concentration through a selective permeable

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39
Q

What does osmotic pressure do?

A

When there’s a difference in solute concentration on two sides of a membrane, water moves to “dilute the higher concentration.

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40
Q

Definition of Osmotic pressure

A

It is the pulling force created by the solutes to attract water to their side

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41
Q

What are the three types of Solutions?

A

Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic

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42
Q

What is hypertonic Solution?

A

Water rushes out of the cell, and the cell will shrink
More solute outside the cell

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43
Q

What is hypotonic Solution?

A

Water rushes into the cell, and the cell will burst
More solute inside the cell

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44
Q

What is Isotonic solution?

A

Equal amount of solute inside and outside the cell

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45
Q

What is filtration in passive transport?

A

Selective process, only solutes that can fit through the membrane will pass through

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46
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Diffusion in which a protein channel helps a substance move across the membrane.

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47
Q

What do the protein channels or carriers do in facilitated diffusion?

A

They act like doors to help larger or polar molecules across the membrane.

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48
Q

Diffusion is for»»

A

small, non-polar molecules across the cell membrane.

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49
Q

Facilitated diffusion is for»»

A

Large, polar molecules

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50
Q

What are two types of active transport?

A

Endocytosis and Exocytosis

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51
Q

What is Endocytosis?

A

In take of liquid and solid particles too large to cross the cell membrane

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52
Q

What is Exocytosis?

A

Transport out of the cell

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53
Q

How does Endocytosis bring in stuff into the cell?

A

Cell membrane will surround a small portion of the substance creating a vesicle

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54
Q

How does exocytosis transport stuff out of the cell?

A

Vesicle is moved towards the cell membrane to excel a substance

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55
Q

What is cytoplasm made of?

A

Water, salts and different organic molecules

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56
Q

Why do cells need cytoplasm?

A

Cells need cytoplasm for their internal environment for cell organelles to thrive and function

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57
Q

Function of Nucleus

A

Contains all of the cell’s chromosomes

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58
Q

Function of Nucleolus

A

To produce and assemble the cell’s ribosomes

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59
Q

Does Nucleolus have chromosomes?

A

No, because the nucleus has all the chromosomes

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60
Q

What is the other function of the Nucleolus? (Movement)

A

They shuttle ribosomes and ribosomal RNAs out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm where protein synthesis occurs

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61
Q

Function of DNA

A

Carries genetic information for the development and function of an organism (human)

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62
Q

How is RNA different from DNA

A

DNA is double helix, but RNA is single strand

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63
Q

What does mRNA do?

A

Protein synthesis

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64
Q

What does rRNA do?

A

It is the structural components of the ribosome

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65
Q

Function of Rough ER

A

Responsible for protein synthesis and they are lined with ribosome (ribosomes are present)

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66
Q

Function of Smooth ER

A

Produces Lipids and steroids (no ribosomes present)

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67
Q

Which ER has ribosomes?

A

Rough ER

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68
Q

What is ribosomes made of?

A

RNA

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69
Q

Function of Ribosomes

A

Produce enzymes and proteins for cell repair and reproduction (make proteins)

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70
Q

What happens wehn Ribosome read the mRNA?

A

Ribosomes reads the mRNA sequence and It translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.

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71
Q

What is the ribosome docking station for?

A

For tRNA that contains the amino acid that will then become part of the growing polypeptide chain, which eventually becomes the protein.

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72
Q

What do centrosomes contain?

A

Centrioles

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73
Q

What are centrioles involved in and what do they do?

A

Centrioles are involved in cell division and create the spindles used in cell division

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74
Q

Function of Mitochondria

A

Producer of ATP and is also involved in Apoptosis.
Cells that are more active will have more mitochondria.

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75
Q

How is the ATP produced?

A

Through Cellular respiration

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76
Q

Why can’t our body use the energy from the food we consume directly?

A

Because only food converted glucose can be used by cells.

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77
Q

What does glucose combine with, and where/what is it transformed t?

A

Glucose combines with oxygen and is transformed in the mitochondria into ATP.

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78
Q

During Cellular respiration, what is released when glucose is burned?

A

Glucose is burned in the presence of oxygen and makes water, Carbon Dioxide and lots of energy.

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79
Q

What happens when glucose is used up and energy is amde?

A

Carbon dioxide and water are made as waste products.

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80
Q

What do we need to make energy for the cells?

A

We must have glucose (from food) and abundant oxygen.

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81
Q

Why do we breathe? (related to cellular respiration)

A

Because we need to bring in oxygen to make energy and we need to exhale to get rid of the waste product CO2.

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82
Q

What is point of cellular respiration?

A

It is to make energy in the form of ATP

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83
Q

What is ATP made up of?

A

Base, sugar, and three phosphate groups

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84
Q

What is the function of the three phosphate groups?

A

They are held together by high-energy bonds and when a bond is broken, a high level of energy is realeased.

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85
Q

What happens to ATP when a bond is used up?

A

ATP becomes ADP which only has two phosphate groups`

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86
Q

What does ADP do after becoming ADP from ATP?

A

It can pick up another phosphate and form a high-energy bond so energy is stored and the process can begin again.

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87
Q

What happens during Glycolysis?

A

It partially breaks down a 6-carbon glucose molecule into 2, 3 carbon molecules of pyruvate and 2 net ATP

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88
Q

Where does Glycolysis occur?

A

In the cytoplasm

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89
Q

Does glycolysis need oxygen?

A

No

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90
Q

What does Transition Reaction do?

A

Transition Reaction connects glycolysis to the Krebs cycle

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91
Q

Where do the pyruvates enter and why does it have to?

A

The pyruvates must first enter mitochondria because the transition reaction and Krebs cycle happen in the matrix of mitochondria

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92
Q

What does the Krebs cycle do?

A

It completes the oxidation of glucose by taking pyruvates from glycolysis.
It breaks down the pyruvates into Carbon dioxide molecules and water molecules and generates additional ATP.

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93
Q

Where does krebs cycle occur?

A

Matrix of mitochondria

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94
Q

What is Anaerobic Respiration?

A

Breakdown sugars and produce energy without oxygen

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95
Q

Where does Anaerobic Respiration occur?

A

In the cytoplasm

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96
Q

Difference between Anaerobic and Aerobic Respiration

A

Anaerobic produce less energy, without oxygen.
Aerobic produces more energy, with oxygen.

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97
Q

Example of Anaerobic Respiration

A

Excercise really hard and muscles run out of oxygen

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98
Q

What is Aerobic Respiration?

A

Breakdown sugars and produce energy with oxygen

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99
Q

Where does Aerobic respiration happen?

A

Mitochondria

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100
Q

Example of Aerobic respiration

A

Normal breathing

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101
Q

Function of Golgi Apparatus

A

Packages and transport proteins

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102
Q

Where does Golgi Apparatus receive proteins from?

A

From the ER
Receives proteins from the ER –> Surrounds with a vesicle and secretes the protein (exocytosis)

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103
Q

Function of Lysosomes

A

Garbage disposal of the cell
Cleans up intracellular debris and waste through hydrolytic enzymes

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104
Q

What are the four macromolecules?

A

Carbs
Lipids
Protein
Nucleic acid

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105
Q

Types of Carbs (sugar)

A

Monosaccharides (simple sugars) Glucose
Disaccharides
Polysaccharides

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106
Q

What are simple carbs?

A

One or more sugars (monosaccharides or disaccharides) combined in a simple structure.

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107
Q

When are simple carbs used?

A

These are easily used for energy, causing a rapid rise in blood sugar and insulin secretion from the pancreas.

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108
Q

Examples of simple carbs

A

Candy, carbonated beverages,
corn syrup, fruit juice, honey, table sugar

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109
Q

What are complex carbs?

A

Three or more sugars bonded together in a more complex chemical structure.

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110
Q

Effects of Complex carbs

A

Complex carbs take longer to digest and, therefore, have a more gradual effect on the increase in blood sugar.

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111
Q

Examples of Complex carbs

A

Apples, broccoli, lentils, spinach, unrefined whole grains, brown rice

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112
Q

Two types of complex carbs

A

Starches and Fiber

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113
Q

What are starches (Polysaccharides)?

A

Starches are complex carbs that contain a large number of glucose molecules

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114
Q

What produces Starches (Polysaccharides) (examples)

A

Potatoes, chickpeas, pasta, and wheat

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115
Q

What are Fibers?

A

They are non-digestible complex carbs that encourage healthy bacterial growth in the colon and act as a bulking agent, easing defecation.

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116
Q

Two types of Fibers

A

Insoluble and soluble

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117
Q

Function of Insoluble Fibers

A

Absorbs water in the intestines and softening and bulking stool.

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118
Q

What are the benefits of Insoluble fibers?

A

Regularity of bowel movements and a decreased risk of diverticulosis

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119
Q

Function of Soluble Fibers

A

It helps decrease blood cholesterol and LDL levels (bad cholesterol), reduces straining with defecation

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120
Q

Examples of Soluble Fibers

A

Fleshy fruit, oats, broccoli, and dried beans

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121
Q

What do all carbs have?

A

1 carbon
2 hydrogen
1 oxygen

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122
Q

Function of Lipids

A

Energy storage, communication, and protection

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123
Q

What are lipids mainly made out of?

A

Carbon and hydrogen

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124
Q

Why are lipids hydrophobic?

A

Because they don’t have oxygen

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125
Q

What are saturated lipids at room temp?

A

They are solid at room temp

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126
Q

What are unsaturated lipids at room temp?

A

Typically liquid at room temp

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127
Q

What are steroids?

A

Cholesterol, a major precursor to many hormones

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128
Q

What are proteins made of?

A

Made of long chain of amino acids

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129
Q

Biochemical functions of Proteins

A

Enzymes and proteins accelerate a reaction as a catalyst to produce or breakdown biological molecules.

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130
Q

Structural Functions of proteins

A

Proteins serve as the structural elements of cells and tissues

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131
Q

Nucleic Acids

A

RNA and DNA

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132
Q

What do nucleic acids do?

A

Controls the activities of the cells

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133
Q

What do nucleic acids contain?

A

They contain our genetic code

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134
Q

What is metabolism?

A

All of the chemical operations going on within our bodies that provide the body with energy

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135
Q

What does metabolism need to function?

A

Nutrients (fuel)

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136
Q

What does metabolism produce?

A

Waste products

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137
Q

What are two types of Metabolism?

A

Anabolism and Catabolism

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138
Q

What is anabolism

A

Simpler compounds are built up and used to make materials for growth, repair, and reproduction.
(Building phase of metabolism) (water is removed)

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139
Q

What is Catabolism

A

Complex substances are broken down into simpler substances.
(Breaking down of substances) (water is added)

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140
Q

Carbs Metabolism (what is king)

A

Glucose is King

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141
Q

Carbs metabolism: They are stored in the body as what?

A

As glycogen until glucose is needed

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142
Q

What is glucose metabolized by?

A

Glycolysis

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143
Q

What is carbs metabolism regulated by?

A

Insulin

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144
Q

What are lipid Metabolism stored as in the body?

A

lipoproteins

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145
Q

What are lipid metabolism regulated by?

A

Insulin

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146
Q

What is “Forwards cholesterol metabolism” in lipid metabolism?

A

Cholesterol into the tissues
-LDL

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147
Q

What is “Reverse cholesterol metabolism” in lipid metabolism?

A

Cholesterol away from peripheral tissue back to the liver

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148
Q

Where does essential amino acids obtained from?

A

Must be obtained from diet since our body cannot produce it.

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149
Q

What is amino acid metabolism regulated by?

A

Cortisol and thyroid hormone

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150
Q

What is Cellular reproduction?

A

Process of making new cells

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151
Q

What must be copied before cell division?

A

All chromosomes

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152
Q

Where Eukaryotic cells found?

A

In the human body

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153
Q

What does Eukaryotic cells contain?

A

nucleus and chromosomes

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154
Q

How does Eukaryotic cells reproduce?

A

It uses mitosis to reproduce asexually

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155
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

Cells make identical copies of themselves without other cells

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156
Q

What does the cell cycle consist of?

A

Interphase and Mitotic phase

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157
Q

What phase does the cell spent the most time in?

A

Interphase

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158
Q

What happens in interphase?

A

Performs normal function
prepares for division by copying DNA, making organelles.

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159
Q

What is Mitotic phase consist of?

A

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

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160
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Division of the cytoplasm

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161
Q

What happens in transcription?

A

Info is moved from DNA to mRNA

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162
Q

What happens in translation?

A

mRNA is read to produce proteins

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163
Q

Why does transcription happen, or why does DNA create mRNA?

A

DNA holds the instructions for making proteins but dna can’t leave the nucleus.
So the cell makes a working copy of the instructions called mRNA which can leave the nucleus

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164
Q

Is mRNA an exact copy of the DNA?

A

Nope

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165
Q

Why is Transcription important?

A

Because the mRNA is a recipe or blue print for maing proteins

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166
Q

What is transcription in conclusion?

A

Transcription makes mRNA from DNA so the instruction can leave the nucleus and be used to make proteins in the cell.

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167
Q

Where does Translation occur?

A

Ribosome

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168
Q

What does mRNA do in the translation?

A

It carries the instructions from the DNA, a recipe that tells the ribosome how to build a protein.

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169
Q

How are proteins created?

A

By putting amino acids in the correct order.

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170
Q

What are codons in Translation?

A

The mRNA instruction are in “words” called codons, which are groups of three letters.

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171
Q

What does the codon represent in Translation?

A

Each codon represents specific amino acid

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172
Q

What is translation in conclusion?

A

It is like following a recipe in the ribosome factory, where mRNA tells the ribosome which amino acids to link together to build a protein.

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173
Q

Where are chromosomes located?

A

Inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells

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174
Q

What are chromosomes made of?

A

Protein and a single molecule of DNA

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175
Q

What are gametes?

A

They are the only human cells that do now contain pairs. (Reproductive cells)

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176
Q

How many chromosomes do humans hace?

A

23 pairs, 46

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177
Q

What is only inherited from the egg cell?

A

Mitochondrial DNA

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178
Q

What are centromeres?

A

Middle part of the chromosome that helps to keep the chromosome properly aligned in preparation for reproduction

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179
Q

What is the attachment site for the sister chromatids?

A

Centromere

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180
Q

What are Telomeres?

A

They are repetitive stretches of DNA located at the ends of the chromosomes

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181
Q

What do telomeres lose a bit of during every division?

A

DNA

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182
Q

What is Mitosis?

A

It is the process of sorting chromosomes

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183
Q

What happens in Prophase?

A

The nucleus disappears, the chromosomes become visible and spindle fibers form.
Centrosomes move towards opposite ends of cell.

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184
Q

What happens in Metaphase?

A

The chromosomes line up in the center of the cells.

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185
Q

What happens in Anaphase?

A

The chromosomes split and the spindle fibers pull them apart.

Sister chromatids break apart and begin moving toward opposite sides.

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186
Q

What happens in Telophase?

A

The chromosomes go to the far ends of the cell, the spindle fibers disappear, and the nuclei reappear.

Formation of 2 daughter nuclei

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187
Q

What happens after cytokinesis?

A

It forms two new identical daughter cells identical to the original mother cell.

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188
Q

G1

A

Cell growth

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189
Q

S phase

A

Cell replicates its genetic material in preparation for mitosis

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190
Q

G2

A

Cell checks duplicated chromosomes

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191
Q

What is the shortest stage in Mitosis?

A

Anaphase

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192
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Division of the cytoplasm

Cleavage furrow pinches cell in two

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193
Q

Mitosis regulation

A

Checkpoints that stops mitosis if certain conditions are not met

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194
Q

G1/S checkpoint

A

Restriction Checkpoint: Cell size, cell nutrition, DNA damage

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195
Q

G2/M checkpoint

A

DNA replication checkpoint: improper replication or damage

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196
Q

Metaphase/Anaphase checkpoint

A

Spindle Apparatus checkpoint: Attachment of mitotic spindle to all chromosomes

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197
Q

Two types of Tumors

A

Benign and malignant

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198
Q

Benign tumor

A

slow growing, non-life threatening, stays in the same place

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199
Q

Malignant tumor

A

Rapid growing, life-threatening, likely to spread to other tissues or metastasize (spread to other location)

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200
Q

Labile Cells

A

Constantly proliferating

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201
Q

Stable/Quiescent Cells

A

Typically in non-dividing state but can enter cell cycle under specific stimulus

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202
Q

Permanent Cells

A

Unable to proliferate, non-dividing
Ex: Cardiac and skeletal muscle

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203
Q

Homeostatsis

A

Maintenance of internal balance despite changes in the external environment

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204
Q

What happens when a person has impaired homeostatsis?

A

It underlies most disease processes

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205
Q

What is diabetes?

A

Disease of inadequate control of blood sugar (glucose levels in blood)

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206
Q

What is Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Destruction of cells that produce insulin

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207
Q

What is Type 2 Diabetes?

A

Insulin resistance (less responsive to insulin), attributed (causes) to excesses fatty acids

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208
Q

What causes the release of mitochondrial proteins into the cell which lead to apoptosis?

A

Cellular stress (from lack of exercise or increased calories)

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209
Q

What causes impairment of the electron transport chain and damage which cell organelle?

A

Excess calories
Damage to mitochondria

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210
Q

Metastasis

A

Spread of cancer cells from one location to another

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211
Q

Why does chemotherapy work on cancer cells?

A

Because cancer cells lack the ability to repair DNA whereas normal cells can

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212
Q

What cells do chemotherapy target?

A

Both healthy and cancerous cells.

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213
Q

Bone is a hard form of what?

A

Connective tissue

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214
Q

What are bones covered by?

A

Periosteum

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215
Q

What does the Periosteum do to the bone?

A

Nourish the external portion of skeletal tissue
Provide attachment site for ligaments and tendons

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216
Q

Two types of bone

A

Compact and Spongy bone

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217
Q

What is compact bone?

A

Dense, hard, tightly packed tissue

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218
Q

Where is compact found?

A

Found in shafts of long bones called diaphysis and outer layer of other bones

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219
Q

What does compact bone contain? (units)

A

Osteons (haversian systems)
-Mature bone cells (osteocytes) that form concentric circles around a central (Haversian) canal, containing blood vessels.

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220
Q

How are spongy bones arranged?

A

Arranged in bars and plates called trabecular.

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221
Q

What makes the spongy bone lighter?

A

Irregular holes between trabeculae and provide space for red bone marrow, which produces red blood cells.

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222
Q

Function of bone

A

Support
protection
movement
Storage
Blood supply production

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223
Q

When does ossification start and finish?

A

in the embryonic period (8 weeks) and finishes around age 20

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224
Q

What are the 4 types of bones?

A

long
flat
irregular
sesamoid

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225
Q

Does the bone have a high level of vascularization and where does blood enter?

A

Yes, it does.
Blood enters through the nutrient foramina to supply the bone marrow, spongy bone, and deep portions of compact bone.

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226
Q

Which part of the bone can sense pain signals and why?

A

Periosteum, because it is supplied by fibers that carry pain signals.

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227
Q

Why can’t inside of the bone sense pain?

A

Because the inside of a bone has limited amount of fibers that can detect pain.

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228
Q

What fibers regulate blood flow through the bone marrow?

A

Vasomotor fibers

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229
Q

What are the two main parts of the skeleton?

A

Axial and appendicular skeleton

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230
Q

What is axial skeleton consist of?

A

Head, neck, ribs, vertebral column

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231
Q

What is appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

arms, legs, hips, and shoulders

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232
Q

Nitrogen goes with which macromolecule?

A

Proteins

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233
Q

What bones live on tendons?

A

Sesamoid bone

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234
Q

How many vertebral regions do we have?

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 3-5 coccygeal

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235
Q

How many true ribs and false ribs do we have?

A

7 true ribs, 5 false ribs, 2 floating ribs

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236
Q

When does the spinal curvature change?

A

As infant learns to hold its head up and begin to walk, curving in the opposite direction.

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237
Q

How are both arms and legs attached to the axial skeleton?

A

They are attached via the pectoral and pelvic girdles
(Pectoral girdle: clavicle and scapula)
(Pelvic girdle: Pelvic bones)

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238
Q

What is Cartilage made of?

A

Dense connective tissue

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239
Q

What is a Joint?

A

articulation between bones

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240
Q

What is a ligament?

A

connects bone to bone

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241
Q

What can cartilage do?

A

It is a special form of dense connective tissue that can withstand a fair amount of flexing, tension, and pressure
Ex: Flexible parts of the nose and ears.

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242
Q

What does cartilage act as between bones?

A

it can act as a cushion between bones.

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243
Q

What does articular cartilage on ends of bone acts as?

A

It acts as a shock absorber, preventing the ends from grinding together.

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244
Q

What are three types of joints?

A

Synovial Joints
Fibrous Joints
Cartilaginous Joints

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245
Q

What are Synovial Joints?

A

Surrounded by a joint capsule and line with synovial fluid

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246
Q

What are fibrous Joints?

A

Where bones are connected by a dense, tough connective tissue.

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247
Q

What type of movement does Fibrous joints provide?

A

Limited amount of movement

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248
Q

What does Cartilaginous joints do?

A

Give shock absorption as well as flexibility.

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249
Q

What are the six types of Synovial Joints?

A

Plane
Hinge
Saddle
Condyloid
Ball and socket
Pivot

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250
Q

What movement do plane joints provide?

A

Gliding or sliding (Carpal and Tarsal joints)
Gun shooting motion

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251
Q

What movement do Hinge joints provide?

A

Only flexion and Extension movement
Ex: Elbow, knee

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252
Q

What movement do saddle joints provide?

A

Allows movement in 2 planes, opposition movement
Ex: touching your thumb with other digits

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253
Q

What movement do Condyloid joints provide?

A

Flexion and extension, aDDuction and ABduction, circumduction
Ex: Elbow, knuckle joint

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254
Q

What movement do Ball and Socket Joints provide?

A

Movement in all planes
Ex: Shoulder and hip joint

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255
Q

What movement do Pivot joints provide?

A

Rotation
Ex: Rotating your palm forward/backwards, Rotating the neck

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256
Q

What is Joint (articulation) necessary for?

A

Movement

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257
Q

Where is the joint located?

A

It is where two or more bones join together

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258
Q

What do ligaments do?

A

Permit joints to move

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259
Q

What are fibrous joints held together by?

A

Short connective tissue strands

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260
Q

Are fibrous joints movable?

A

They are either immobile or slightly movable

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261
Q

Example of Fibrous joint

A

Sutures in the skull

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262
Q

What are cartilaginous joints held together by?

A

Cartilage

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263
Q

Are cartilaginous joints movable?

A

Either immobile or slightly movable

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264
Q

Examples of Cartilaginous joints

A

Pubic symphysis and joints between the ribs and sternum

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265
Q

Are synovial joints movable?

A

They are freely movable

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266
Q

Where is Epiphysis located?

A

End of a long bone

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267
Q

Where is medullary cavity located?

A

Hollow within the diaphysis that stores yellow marrow

268
Q

what is responsible for the construction of osteoids?

A

Osteoblasts

269
Q

What are mature osteoblasts responsible for?

A

Protein synthesis

270
Q

Where are osteoids found?

A

In areas of new bone formation

271
Q

What builds bone?

A

Osteoblast

272
Q

What is responsible for reabsorbing mineralized bone?

A

Osteoclast

273
Q

What is the most abundant bone cell?

A

Osteocytes

274
Q

What is Osteoclast activated by?

A

Osteoblast activity

275
Q

What are bone lining cells?

A

Old osteocytes that no longer play a role in synthesis

276
Q

what is immature bone matrix called?

A

Osteoid

277
Q

Bone is mostly what type of collagen?

A

Type 1 collagen

278
Q

What is the bone extracellular matrix made of?

A

Mostly made of minerals, Calcium, and phosphate.
Gives bone mechanical properties.

279
Q

What are 4 types of bones?

A

Long
Short
Flat
irregular

280
Q

What is the function of epiphysis of long bones?

A

Allows attachment site at joints

281
Q

What is the function of metaphysis of long bones?

A

Attachment site of most tendons

282
Q

What is Epiphyseal plate?

A

Responsible for longitudinal growth

283
Q

What are short bones primarily consist of?

A

spongy bone

284
Q

What is flat bone made of?

A

cortical shell and stiff interior

285
Q

what is the main function of flat bone?

A

Providing protection or flat surface for attachments

286
Q

What are irregular Bones primarily consist of?

A

Spongy bone

287
Q

Where are irregular bones located?

A

Spine

288
Q

What is difference between compact bones and spongy bones?

A

Compact bones are made up of Osteons (haversian system) and spongy bones are made of Trabeculae

289
Q

What does the compact bone make up?

A

outer cortex

290
Q

What is spongy bone lined with?

A

endosteum

291
Q

What is Epiphysis covered with?

A

Hyaline cartilage

292
Q

What is the outer wall of diaphysis composed of?

A

Dense hard compact bone

293
Q

What happens when a person has a low calcium level?

A

PTH is released and increases the kidney’s ability to convert Vitamin D to active form and stimulates osteoblasts, resulting in the upregulation of osteoclasts

294
Q

What happens when a person has a high calcium level?

A

PTH is downregulated, and Calcitonin is released to down-regulate osteoclast

295
Q

When does primary ossification happen?

A

Happens in utero

296
Q

When does secondary ossification start?

A

Starts around birth

297
Q

What is the Wolff’s Law

A

It is bone’s model and remodel in response to mechanical environment

298
Q

What muscles are involuntary?

A

Cardiac and Smooth

299
Q

What muscles are voluntary?

A

Skeletal

300
Q

What muscles are striated?

A

Skeletal and Cardiac

301
Q

What muscles are unstriated?

A

Smooth

302
Q

What are the cells of muscle tissue?

A

muscle fibers

303
Q

What is muscle tissue constructed of?

A

Bundles of muscle fibers (muscle cells)

304
Q

What is the outer muscle surrounded by?

A

Epimysium

305
Q

What surrounds the fasicle? (bundles of muscle of muscle fibers, inside the msucle)

A

Perimysium

306
Q

What is each muscle fiber encased in?

A

Endomysium

307
Q

Oder the Skeletal muscle units

A

Epimysium
perimysium
fasicle
endomysium
muscle fiber
myofibrils

308
Q

What are the sub-units of myofibrils (basic structural unit of muscle fibers)?

A

Sacromeres

309
Q

What do thick myofilaments contain?

A

myosin

310
Q

What do thin myofilaments contain?

A

actin

311
Q

What are the bands that separate thick and thin units?

A

Z-lines

312
Q

what is the cell membrane of muscle fibers called?

A

Sarcolemma

313
Q

What ER stores calcium?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

314
Q

What are two unique types of proteins called for muscle contraction?

A

tropomyosin and troponin

315
Q

What does T-tubules do?

A

help spread excitation into the inside of cell

316
Q

What does muscle contraction cause?

A

Muscle contraction causes two types of myofilaments (actin and myosin) to slide toward each other.

317
Q

what causes sarcomeres to shorten and what does this shortening cause?

A

Actin and myosin slide toward each other and shorten the sarcomere. This causes the entire muscle to contract/shorten.

318
Q

what is the temporary connection that forms between myosin and actin fibers to pull the sarcomere together?

A

Cross-bridges

319
Q

What signal begins the process of contraction?

A

A chemical signal (neurotransmitter) from acetylcholine

320
Q

What do excited muscles release and where does it go to?

A

Calcium from the SR and goes to muscle fiber.

321
Q

What does the body use to help formation of myosin heads and what does it break?

A

ATP, and breaks the crossbridges.

322
Q

What causes myosin head to return to a pre-contraction state?

A

When new ATP binds

323
Q

What is required to initiate contraction?

A

the impulse from a motor neuron in our spinal cord to cause the release of acetylcholine.

324
Q

What channel is open during contraction?

A

Sodium channels

325
Q

What causes sodium channels to open?

A

When Acetylcholine binds to muscle

326
Q

What causes the muscle fiber to get excited?

A

When sodium flows into the muscle fiber

327
Q

What is released when muscle fibers become excited?

A

Releases Calcium from the SR into the cytoplasm

328
Q

What allows formation of cross-bridges between myosin heads and actin myofilaments?

A

Calcium

329
Q

What happens when ATP is used up during contraction?

A

It allows cross-bridges to break and reform, pulling the actin myofilaments closer together as they slide along the myosin myofilaments.

330
Q

What does shortened sarcomere result in?

A

Shortening of many muscle fibers, which is contraction.

331
Q

What happens during muscle relaxation?

A

Acetylcholinesterase degrades acetylcholine so the muscle can relax.

332
Q

What causes the muscle to appear striped (striated)?

A

Due to the arrangement of sarcomeres

333
Q

What are sarcomeres made up of?

A

Actin filaments and myosin filaments.

334
Q

What is the sliding Filament Theory?

A

Actin filaments slide past myosin filaments, shortening the sarcomere

335
Q

Which filament stays in the middle during contraction?

A

myosin

336
Q

What does Myosin pull on actin through using what?

A

Through cross-bridges, ATP is used for energy.

337
Q

When does Cross bridge form

A

When myosin heads bind to actin filaments

338
Q

What is a power stroke?

A

It’s when myosin undergoes a power stroke and pulls actin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere.

339
Q

Is power stroke ATP-dependent?

A

Yes

340
Q

What does ATP provide energy for during a power stroke?

A

-myosin to detach from actin
-When resetting the myosin head for the next contraction

341
Q

What powers the myosin head to pull actin (called the power stroke)?

A

ATP hydrolysis (breaking down of ATP)

342
Q

What does calcium bind to causing tropomyosin to expose binding sites on actin?

A

troponin

343
Q

When Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to expose binding sites on actin, what process does this enable?

A

Cross-bridge cycle

344
Q

In resting muscles. what does tropomyosin do?

A

Tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin

345
Q

What happens when calcium binds to troponin?

A

When calcium binds to troponin, tropomyosin shifts, exposing myosin binding sites on actin, allowing contraction to occur.

346
Q

What does ATP provide energy for during contraction?

A

Power stroke and the release of myosin from actin

347
Q

What is required to initiate contraction by unlocking the binding sites on actin?

A

Calcium

348
Q

Without ATP and calcium, what cannot be done effectively?

A

Muscle contraction

349
Q

What causes rigor mortis (myosin stays attached to actin)

A

Lack of ATP

350
Q

Muscles with very high demands also store what and use it as energy?

A

Fat

351
Q

Higher demand muscles also have a greater what to carry much needed oxygen?

A

blood supply

352
Q

what does the greater blood supply appear as?

A

Darker color

353
Q

What are the three types of contraction?

A

Reflexive
Tonic
Phasic

354
Q

Is reflexive contraction under voluntary or involuntary control?

A

involuntary

355
Q

What are examples of Reflective contration?

A

Respiration and DTRs

356
Q

What does Tonic contraction describe?

A

resting state

357
Q

What are examples of Tonic contraction?

A

Gives a firmness to joints

358
Q

What are two types of Phasic contraction?

A

Isotonic and Isometric

359
Q

What are subsets of Isotonic contraction?

A

Concentric and Eccentric

360
Q

What does Concentric do?

A

Muscle shortening

361
Q

What does Eccentric do?

A

Muscle lengthening

362
Q

What are Prime Mover (agonist)?

A

Contracts concentrically
Ex: (bicep)

363
Q

What are Antagonist?

A

Eccentric contraction
Ex: Tricep

364
Q

What are fixators?

A

Isometric contraction
Ex: Elbow sticking to our lat

365
Q

What are synergist?

A

Assists prime mover
Ex: Brachialis

366
Q

What is point of origin?

A

The end of the muscle that is attached to the stationary bone
Ex: Humerus

367
Q

What is point of insertion?

A

Muscle end attached to the moving bone
Ex: forearm

368
Q

What does Cardiac muscles form?

A

Forms wall of heart (myocardium)

369
Q

Blood supply to cardiac muscle is what to that of skeletal muscle?

A

double

370
Q

What connects the cardiac muscle fibers?

A

Intercalated discs

371
Q

When one fiber in cardiac muscle contract, what happens after?

A

It pulls the next fiber into a contraction creating a domino effect.

372
Q

What squeezes blood out very efficiently?

A

wave of motion

373
Q

Does cardiac muscle repair itself?

A

nope

374
Q

What does damage to the cardiac muscle cause?

A

Damage will leave a scar

375
Q

What happens when there’s a scar in cardiac muscle?

A

Scar tissue does not contract like normal tissue because it is rigid; decreases cardiac output.

376
Q

Is smooth voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

377
Q

Why does smooth muscles respond slower?

A

because they are unstriated

378
Q

Where are smooth muscles located?

A

All organs except the heart
Blood vessels
Bronchial airways

379
Q

Why is contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles important to the internal body processes?

A

Cuz it handles digestion and regulation of blood pressure.

380
Q

Do involuntary muscles contract less rapidly or more rapidly than skeletal muscles?

A

less rapidly

381
Q

How many times faster do skeletal muscles contract than involuntary muscles?

A

50 times faster

382
Q

What is Vasodilation?

A

Enlarging the diameter of a blood vessel

383
Q

What can Vasodilation cause?

A

Can lead to decreased blood pressure due to smooth muscle relaxation

384
Q

What is Vasoconstriction?

A

Decreasing the diameter of a blood vessel

385
Q

What can Vasoconstriction cause?

A

Can lead to increased blood pressure

386
Q

What are sphincters?

A

It is a special type of smooth muscle found throughout the digestive system.

387
Q

What shape are sphincters?

A

Donut-shaped

388
Q

What is function of sphincters?

A

It acts as a doorway to let material in and out
-Contraction closes the door
-Relaxation opens the door

389
Q

Which type of muscle fiber is slow twitch?

A

Type 1

390
Q

Which types of muscle fiber is fast twitch?

A

Type 2A and 2X

391
Q

What are type 1 muscle fibers used for?

A

Marathons

392
Q

What are Type 2A and 2X fibers used for?

A

sprinting

393
Q

What size of muscle fiber is Type 1?

A

Small muscle size fiber

394
Q

What size of muscle fiber is 2A?

A

Large muscle size fiber

395
Q

What size of muscle fiber is 2X?

A

Large muscle size fiber

396
Q

What kind of force production can Type 1 muscle fibers produce?

A

Low force production

397
Q

What kind of force production can Type 2A muscle fibers produce?

A

high force production

398
Q

What kind of force production can Type 2X muscle fibers produce?

A

very high force production

399
Q

Type 1 muscle fiber resistance to fatigue

A

Slow

400
Q

Type 2A muscle fiber resistance to fatigue

A

Quick

401
Q

Type 2X muscle fiber resistance to fatigue

A

Very quick

402
Q

Contraction Speed of Type 1A muscle fiber

A

slow

403
Q

Contraction Speed of Type 2A muscle fiber

A

quick

404
Q

Contraction Speed of Type 2X muscle fiber

A

Very quick

405
Q

Level of mitochondria present in Type 1 muscle fiber

A

high

406
Q

Level of mitochondria present in Type 2A muscle fiber

A

Medium

407
Q

Level of mitochondria present in Type 2X muscle fiber

A

Low

408
Q

Which type of muscle fiber produces the most amount of force?

A

Type 2X

409
Q

Which is the most inefficient muscle fiber type?

A

Type 2X

410
Q

Which type of muscle fiber produces the least amount of force?

A

Type 1

411
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has an Aeroabic pathway? (oxygen)

A

Type 1

412
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has an Anaerobic pathway? (no oxygen)

A

Type 2X

413
Q

Where is the energy stored in Type 2X muscle fiber?

A

In the muscle because it is Anaerobic pathway

414
Q

What are myotomes?

A

Group of muscle innervated by a single nerve route

415
Q

C5

A

Elbow flexors

416
Q

C6

A

wrist extensors

417
Q

C7

A

Elbow extensors

418
Q

C8

A

Finger extensors

419
Q

T1

A

Intrinsic Hand muscles

420
Q

L2

A

Hip flexors

421
Q

L3

A

Knee Extensors

422
Q

L4

A

Ankle dorsiflexors

423
Q

L5

A

Long toe extensors

424
Q

S1

A

Ankle plantar flexors

425
Q

Example of Class 1 lever

A

Neck flexion and extension

426
Q

Example of Class 2 lever

A

Calf raises/ Plantar flexion and dorsiflexion

427
Q

Example of Class 3 lever

A

Bicep curls

428
Q

Where is the effort at for Class 1 lever

A

at back

429
Q

Where is the effort at for Class 2 lever

A

At back

430
Q

Where is the effort at for Class 3 lever

A

in the middle

431
Q

Where is the load at for Class 1 lever

A

At the front

432
Q

Where is the load at for Class 2 lever

A

In the middle

433
Q

Where is the load at for Class 3 lever

A

At the front

434
Q

What does the ANS control?

A

Controls involuntary components like cardiac and smooth muscles. several glands

435
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System control?

A

All voluntary movement

436
Q

What does the peripheral nervous system contain?

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves and their derivatives.

437
Q

What is the input of the (peripheral) nervous system?

A

Sensory

438
Q

What is the output of the (peripheral) nervous system?

A

Motor

439
Q

What are two types of autonomic system?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic

440
Q

What is the parasympathetic system?

A

“Rest and digest”

441
Q

What is the sympathetic system?

A

“Fight or flight”

442
Q

What is afferent?

A

Carries sensory information to the CNS

443
Q

What is efferent?

A

Carries motor information away from the CNS to the body

444
Q

What is the function of the neuron body?

A

Cell metabolism

445
Q

What is synapse?

A

Where the axon terminal and receiving cell meet.

446
Q

What is the most common neuron type?

A

Multipolar

447
Q

What type of neuron is “all motor neurons to skeletal muscle and those in the ANS”

A

Multipolar

448
Q

What type of neuron is “all sensory neurons in the PNS”

A

Pseudounipolar

449
Q

Is sensory neuron input or output?

A

input

450
Q

Is motor neuron input or output?

A

output

451
Q

What are interneurons?

A

Communication between neurons

452
Q

What are four types of CNS Glial Cells?

A

Astrocytes
Microglial
Ependymal
Oligodendrocytes

453
Q

What are Astrocytes?

A

Most abundant, give support and nutrients to the neuron, controls chemical environment through mopping up leaked potassium, part of the info processing in the brain.

Plays role in blood brain barrier

454
Q

What is Microglial?

A

It plays an immune system role in the CNS, monitors health.

455
Q

What is Ependymal?

A

Helps in circulation on CSF through their cilia

456
Q

What is Oligodendrocytes?

A

It produces myelin sheath in the CNS

457
Q

What are two types of PNS Glial Cells?

A

Satellite cells and Schwann cells

458
Q

What are satellite cells (PNS)?

A

Support and nutrients
It’s like astrocytes of the PNS

459
Q

What are Schwann Cells?

A

It supplies myelin sheath in PNS - plays an important role in nerve regeneration

460
Q

What is the charge of the Resting Membrane Potential?

A

-70 mV

461
Q

What is the charge of the Threshold?

A

-55 mV

462
Q

Are neurons excitable cells?

A

Yes

463
Q

When does hyperpolarization occur?

A

When a cell becomes more negative than resting

464
Q

When is the refractory period?

A

Time period during which cell cannot accept another stimulus/

465
Q

What determines the excitement of the cell in local potential?

A

The size of the stimulus

466
Q

What is the difference between action potential and local potential?

A

Action potentials are “all or none”
Local potentials vary in size depending on the stimulus.

467
Q

What determines the speed of impulse conduction?

A

By the amount of myelin and the diameter of the axon

468
Q

What makes the myelin sheath in CNS?

A

oligodendrocytes

469
Q

What makes the myelin sheath in PNS?

A

Schwann cells

470
Q

What color is myelinated nerves?

A

white

471
Q

what color is unmyelinated nerves?

A

Gray

472
Q

What can leak out through the gates in unmyelinated axon?

A

Sodium ions

473
Q

In myelinated axons, where can sodium ions only enter?

A

nodes of Ranvier

474
Q

What kind of conduction is in myelinated axons?

A

Saltatory conduction (jumping between nodes)

475
Q

What affects the speed of the AP flow?

A

Diameter of the axon

476
Q

What is the role of the frontal lobe?

A

Executive function, conscious muscle control, learning and recall, Social behavior

477
Q

What is the role of the parietal lobe?

A

Sensory processing, Location awareness

478
Q

What is the role of the occipital lobe?

A

Vision

479
Q

What is the role of the temporal lobe?

A

Auditory, olfactory

480
Q

What are two important gyri to kbow

A

Precentral Gyrus and Postcentral Gyrus

481
Q

What is Precentral Gyrus?

A

Primary motor cortex

482
Q

What is Postcentral Gyrus?

A

Primary sensory cortex

483
Q

Where is Substantia Nigra located?

A

Located in basal ganglia

484
Q

What is the function of the Substantia Nigra?

A

Produces dopamine

485
Q

What is the function of the Pineal Gland?

A

Produces melatonin

486
Q

What is the function of the Pituitary Gland?

A

Hormones

487
Q

What is the result of Broca’s aphasia?

A

Nonfluent speech

488
Q

Which part of the brain is affected by Broca’s Area?

A

Frontal Cortex

489
Q

What is the result of the Wernicke’s Area?

A

deficits in the comprehension of language

490
Q

Which part of the brain is affected by Wernicke’s area?

A

temporal lobe

491
Q

Which part of the brain is the coordination of motor and sensory information?

A

Cerebellum

492
Q

What are the three parts of the brain stem?

A

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata

493
Q

What is the function of the Midbrain?

A

Sensory and motor information relay station for vision and hearing

The midbrain controls motor movement, particularly eye movements, and reflexes. For example, if you touch your hand to a hot stove, your midbrain allows you to jerk your hand away

494
Q

What is the function of the Pons?

A

Information relay station, breathing

495
Q

What is the function of the Medullar Oblongata?

A

Regulation of HR, BP, breathing, reflex for coughing, sneezing, swallowing, vomitting.

496
Q

What are the 4 parts of the Diencephalon?

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Pineal Body
Pituitary Gland

497
Q

What is the function of the Thalamus?

A

Relays and processing center for incoming sensory information (not smell) and outgoing motor information.

It doesn’t just pass signals along; it also organizes and filters them. The thalamus decides what’s important and what’s not.

498
Q

What is the function of the Hypothalamus?

A

Autonomic functions (Heart rate, breathing, digestion, body temperature)
Regulation of hormones
Homeostasis

499
Q

What is the function of the Pineal Body?

A

Body clock

500
Q

what is the function of the Pituitary gland?

A

Produce and release hormones

501
Q

What parts of the brain are included in Limbic System?

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Basal ganglia
Hippocampus
Amygdala

502
Q

What is the function of Hippocampus?

A

Memories

503
Q

What is the function of Amygdala?

A

Emotional Response

504
Q

What connects the left and right hemisphere?

A

Corpus Callosum

505
Q

What is the left hemsisphere mainly for?

A

language

506
Q

What is the right hemisphere mainly for?

A

Attention, memory, reasoning, probelm solving

507
Q

What it the blood brain Barrier made of?

A

Tight union of epithelial cells

508
Q

What kind of molecules can pass through Blood Brain Barrier and pass into the CNS?

A

Only small molecules
Small and fat-soluble (Alcohol, caffeine, nicotine) can pass through

509
Q

What is the role of the CSF?

A

regulation of extracellular contents, protection

510
Q

What is the CSF caontain?

A

water, amino acids, proteins

511
Q

Where are the CSF formed?

A

In ventricles

512
Q

What secretes CSF?

A

Choroid Plexus in Ventricles

513
Q

Three types of Meninges from superficial to deep

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

514
Q

How many segments are there in the spinal cord?

A

31 segments

515
Q

Where does the spinal cord segments end?

A

Ends at L2 in conus medullaris

516
Q

What parts of the body is protected by meninges?

A

Brain and spinal cord

517
Q

What do the meninges do?

A

Help to set up layers that act as cushioning and shock absorbers.

518
Q

Which is the part Meninges contain blood vessels?

A

Pia mater

519
Q

Which space is filled with CSF in the spinal cord that acts as a fluid cushion?

A

subarachnoid space

520
Q

Order the spaces in the spinal cord from superficial to deep.

A

Epidural
Subdural
Subarachnoid

521
Q

Which root is sensory?

A

Dorsal root

522
Q

Which root is motor?

A

Ventral root

523
Q

Which matter is in the center?

A

Gray matter

524
Q

Which matter is in the outside area?

A

White matter

525
Q

What is Gray matter consist of?

A

Somas (cell bodies)

526
Q

What is White matter consist of?

A

axons

527
Q

What are the three types of horns located in the internal structure of Gray matter?

A

Dorsal Horn
Ventral Horn
Lateral Horn

528
Q

What is Dorsal horn in the internal structure of Gray matter?

A

Sensory functions

529
Q

What is ventral horn in the internal structure of Gray matter?

A

motor functions

530
Q

What is lateral horn in the internal structure of Gray matter?

A

Sympathetic

531
Q

What does the dorsal column tract carry?

A

fine-touch and vibration information to the cerebral cortex

532
Q

What does the Spinothalamic tract carry?

A

Temperature, pain, and crude touch information to the cerebral cortex

533
Q

What does the Spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

posture and position information to the cerebellum

534
Q

What are three tracts (information) from ascending pathways?

A

Dorsal column tract
Spinothalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract

535
Q

What are two tracts (information) from descending pathways?

A

Corticospinal tract
Corticobulbar tract

536
Q

What does the Corticospinal tract carry?

A

orders from cerebral cortex to motor neurons in ventral horn of spinal cord

537
Q

What does the Corticobulbar tract carry?

A

orders from cerebral cortex to motor neurons in brain stem.

538
Q

What are the two descending pathways tracts?

A

Reticulospinal tract
rubrospinal tract

539
Q

What does the ReReticulospinal tract and rubrospinal tract carry?

A

information from the various regions of the brain to the brain stem and ventral horn, which helps to coordinate movements.

540
Q

Is medial Corticospinal Tract motor or sensory?

A

Motor

541
Q

Is the reticulospinal Tract motor or sensory?

A

Motor

542
Q

Is the Lateral Vestibulospinal Tract motor or sensory?

A

Motor

543
Q

Is the Medial Vestibulospinal Tract motor or sensory?

A

Motor

544
Q

What specific muscles are related to the Medial Corticospinal Tract?

A

Neck
Shoulder
trunk muscles

545
Q

What specific muscles are related to the Reticulospinal Tract?

A

Postural and gross limb muscles

546
Q

What specific muscles are related to the Lateral Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

Postural muscles, responds to gravity info

547
Q

What specific muscles are related to the Medial Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

Neck, responds to input regarding head motion

548
Q

What is the most important motor tract?

A

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

549
Q

What does Lateral Corticospinal Tract do?

A

It controls all VOLUNTARY movement

550
Q

Is the Spinothalamic tract motor or sensory?

A

Sensory

551
Q

Is the Dorsal column/Medial Lemniscus tract motor or sensory?

A

Sensory

552
Q

Is the Spinocerebellar tract motor or sensory?

A

Sensory

553
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract carry?

A

Fast nociception, temperature, crude touch

Fast nociception refers to the quick, sharp pain you feel right after an injury, like when you touch something hot or prick your finger. It’s your body’s way of quickly warning you to pull away from danger.

554
Q

What does the Dorsal column/Medial Lemniscus tract carry?

A

Light touch and proprioception

Proprioception is your body’s sense of position and movement. It’s how you know where your body parts are without looking at them. For example, if you close your eyes and raise your hand, you can still feel where your hand is.

555
Q

what does the Spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

Movement related information
-Ipsilateral cerebellum

556
Q

What is the function of the Interneurons?

A

To regulate sensory information
Coordination of movement patterns
Autonomic regulation

557
Q

What are Monosynaptic Reflexes?

A

What they test at the Doctor’s office
Simple arc reflex: single synapse between afferent and efferent

558
Q

What are Polysynaptic Reflexes?

A

Involves reciprocal inhibition
Ex: Withdrawal reflex

559
Q

What Primitive reflex test could be used to test Pyramidal tract lesion?

A

Babinski

Normal in infants: In babies under 2 years old, their big toe will move upward, and the other toes might fan out. This is normal because their nervous system is still developing.
Abnormal in adults: In adults and older children, the normal response is for all the toes to curl downward. If the big toe moves upward and the other toes fan out (a positive Babinski sign), it can indicate a problem with the brain or spinal cord, especially in the pyramidal tract, which controls movement.

560
Q

What Primitive reflex test could be used to test Frontal Lobe Lesion and Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Grasp Reflex

Abnormal in adults: In older children and adults, the grasp reflex usually disappears as the brain matures and gains control over reflexes. If it reappears in adults, it can be a sign of brain damage or neurological disorders, such as a stroke or frontal lobe injury.

561
Q

What Primitive reflex test could be used to test Parkinson’s disease?

A

Glabellar Tap reflex (blinking)

562
Q

What does the Epidural Space contain?

A

Adipose, connective tissue, ervesm venous plexus, lymphatics

563
Q

What does the Subdural space contain?

A

Potential space

564
Q

What does the subarachnoid Space contain?

A

CSF

565
Q

What separates individual axons in PNS?

A

Endoneurium

566
Q

What surrounds bundles of axons in PNS?

A

Perineurium

567
Q

What surrounds the nerve trunk in PNS?

A

Epineurium

568
Q

What three parts can PNS broken down into?

A

Sensory
Motor
Autonomic

569
Q

What are the 4 types of sensory nerve fibers in PNS?

A

A-Alpha
A-Beta
A-Delta
C fibers

570
Q

What is the function of A-Alpha fibers in PNS sensory?

A

It helps you sense the position of your body and how it moves.
For example, they let you know your arm is raised even if your eyes are closed.
Think of them as: The “body awareness” sensors.

571
Q

What is the function of A-Beta fibers in PNS sensory?

A

Detect light touch, pressure, and vibrations on your skin.
For example, they help you feel a gentle tap or the texture of a surface.
Think of them as The “touch and feel” sensors.

572
Q

What is the function of A-Delta fibers in PNS sensory?

A

Sense sharp, quick pain (like a pinprick) and cold temperatures.
For example, they alert you immediately when you touch something sharp or icy.
Think of them as: The “fast pain and cold” sensors.

573
Q

What is the function of C-fibers fibers in PNS sensory?

A

Detect slow, dull pain (like an ache), warmth, and itching.
For example, they’re what make you feel a lingering burn or an annoying itch.
Think of them as: The “slow pain and itch” sensors.

574
Q

What are the three types of Mechanoreceptors in the PNS?

A

Meissner
Ruffini
Pacinian

575
Q

What is the function of the Mechanoreceptor Meissner?

A

Skin motion/light touch and texture

576
Q

What is the function of the Mechanoreceptor Ruffini?

A

Detects Stretch of the skin

577
Q

What is the function of the Mechanoreceptor Pacinian?

A

Detects Vibration and Fine texture/Deep pressure and vibrations. (detail feel)

578
Q

What are the two types of Motor in PNS?

A

Somatic and Visceral

579
Q

What is the function of the Somatic Motor?

A

Carries information to skeletal muscles

580
Q

What is the function of the Visceral Motor?

A

Carries information to glands, cardiac, smooth muscle (organs)
-Autonomic

581
Q

In PNS, what is the Proximal Portions of the spinal nerves consist of?

A

Consists of a anterior and posterior root.

582
Q

What does the posterior root of the proximal portion of spinal nerves in PNS contain?

A

Posterior root contains cell bodies of afferent nerves.

583
Q

In PNS, what do the Distal Branches of the spinal nerves consist of?

A

Posterior Ramus and Anterior Ramus

584
Q

What does the Posterior Ramus of the Distal Branches do?

A

Muscles and joint of back

585
Q

What does the Anterior Ramus of the Distal Branches do?

A

Gives rise to limb innervation
-Form plexuses

586
Q

What does the Brachial Plexus innervate?

A

It innervates the entire upper extremity.

The upper extremity refers to the upper part of your body that includes your arm, shoulder, and hand.

587
Q

What does the Lumbar Plexus innervate?

A

skin and muscles of the anterior and medial thigh and continues to the medial leg and foot.

588
Q

What does the Sacral Plexus innervate?

A

Posterior thigh (hamstrings) and majority of leg and foot.

589
Q

Where are neurons for the autonomic system located?

A

In the spinal cord and brainstem and release the neurotansmitter acetylcholine

590
Q

Which horn are autonomic motor neurons located>

A

Lateral horn

591
Q

Does autonomic motor neurons project directly to muscles?

A

Unlike the somatic motor neurons, autonomic neurons do not project directly to muscles

592
Q

What are the two types neurons for ANS?

A

Preganglionic neurons and Postganglionic neuron

593
Q

Which neuron projects to the muscle in the ANS?

A

Postganglionic neuron

594
Q

Are there any autonomic neurons in the cervical spinal cord?

A

Nope

595
Q

Where are preganglionic neurons located?

A

In the thoracic and first 2 lumbar segments of the spinal cord.

596
Q

What happens with the preganglionic neurons and postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic brach of ANS?

A

The preganglionic neurons, which secrete acetylcholine, synapse with the postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia.

597
Q

Where are the neurons of the parasympathetic system located?

A

Brain stem and sacral spinal cord

598
Q

Which neuron releases acetylcholine in the parasympathetic branch of ANS?

A

Postganglionic neurons

599
Q

What does Sympathetic equal to?

A

thoracolumbar

600
Q

What does Parasympathetic equal to?

A

craniosacral

601
Q

When does parasympathetic use acetylcholine?

A

pre and post-ganglionic

602
Q

When does sympathetic use acetylcholine?

A

Only at the pre-ganglionic

603
Q

Where are presynaptic cell bodies located in sympathetic?

A

Gray matter of spinal cord from T1 to upper lumbar

604
Q

What are examples of Sympathetic?

A

Blood vessel contraction
Pilomotion
Sweating
Eye dilation

605
Q

Where are presynaptic cell bodies located in parasympathetic?

A

Gray matter of the brain stem

606
Q

What are the functions of the sympathetic?

A

Catabolic, using energy
Enables the body to deal with stress
Fight or flight

607
Q

What are the functions of the parasympathetic?

A

Anabolic, energy conserving (homeostatsis)

608
Q

What is the function of Reticular formation?

A

Coordinates heart activity, blood pressure, body temp, water balance, endocrine activity stress and fear

609
Q

Brainstem

A

Reflexive regulation of Heart Rate

610
Q

What is Nicotinic in receptors?

A

Always stimulatory

611
Q

What is Muscarinic in receptors?

A

Smooth muscle: excitatory
Cardiac muscle: inhibitory

612
Q

Where does the spinal cord connect with brain?

A

Medullar oblongata (part of brain stem)

613
Q

What procuces Cerebrospinal Fluid?

A

Choroid Plexus

614
Q

What is Cerebrospinal Fluid?

A

Clear liquid that contains proteins and glucose for energy as well as lymphocytes to guard against infection

615
Q

What is the superficial layer of Epidermis?

A

Stratum Corneum

616
Q

What is the Depp later of Epidermis?

A

Stratum Basale

617
Q

Is epidermis vascular or avascular?

A

avascular

618
Q

What is in the dermis?

A

Nerve endings, blood and lymph, seat glands, hair follicles

619
Q

How does the epidermis regenerate?

A

Regenerates from stem cells in the basal layer

620
Q

What cells are in the Stratum Corneum of the Epidermis?

A

flat, scaly, keratinized epithelial cells

621
Q

What specialized cells are responsible for skin color?

A

Melanocytes

622
Q

Where is Melanocytes located?

A

Deep in the epidermis

623
Q

What does Melanocytes produce?

A

Melanin, a substance that causes skin color

624
Q

What is the acid mantle?

A

It is located on the surface of the skin, and the low acidity of this thin film prevents the colonization of harmful pathogens.

625
Q

What are the two layers of Dermis?

A

Superficial papillary layer
Deep reticular layer

626
Q

What allows the elasticity of skin, preventing the tearing of skin with movement?

A

Collagen and elastic fibers

627
Q

Where are sweat glands located in the integumentary system?

A

Dermis

628
Q

What are the two main types of sweat glands located in the dermis?

A

Apocrine and Eccrine

629
Q

What is Apocrine gland?

A

Secrete at hair follicles in the groin, anal region, armpits; become active at puberty and act as sexual attractants.

630
Q

What is Eccrine gland?

A

Found in greater numbers on palms, feet, forehead, upper lip; important in temperature regulation

631
Q

What is the function of Sebaceous Glands?

A

Play an important role by secreting oil (sebum)
-Sebum keeps skin from drying out

632
Q

What does the acidic nature of Sebum do?

A

Helps destroy some pathogens on skin’s surface

633
Q

Where are Sebaceous glands found?

A

Both hair-covered areas and eyelids, penis, labia minora, nipples

634
Q

What is the function of Hypodermis/Subcutaneous Fascia?

A

Provides cushion and insulation
-Connects skin to underlying structures

635
Q

What is the innermost layer of the skin called?

A

Subcutaneous Fascia/ Hypodermis

636
Q

What is the subcutaneous Fascia/ Hypodermis composed of?

A

Elastic and fibrous connective tissue and fatty tissue

637
Q

What are lipocytes (fat cells) in Hypodermis?

A

It produces the fat to provide padding and act as insulation for temperature regulation.

638
Q

Where does Fascia attach to?

A

Body msucles

639
Q

Where is hair derived from?

A

From epidermis however roots grow into the dermis

640
Q

What is the function of hair?

A

Mechanical protection for the skin, increases sensory function, and aids in regulating body temperature

641
Q

How are nails form?

A

From layers of keratin

642
Q

What is the function of nails?

A

Protects the fingers and toes

643
Q

What is the visible portion of the nail?

A

Nail body

644
Q

What is the white, half-moon-shaped area of the nail?

A

Lunula

645
Q

What is the visible hair composed of?

A

Keratin, a fibrous protein

646
Q

What is the Cuticle of the hair?

A

protective cells covering the shaft

647
Q

What is the Cortex of the hair?

A

Layer beneath cuticle that contains melanin (hair color)

648
Q

What is the Follicle of the hair?

A

Formed by epithelial cells with a rich source of blood provided by the dermal blood vessels

649
Q

What happens in the Follicle of the hair?

A

Cells divide and grow in the base of the follicle, older cells are pushed away and die, so the shaft of the hair is comprised of dead cells.

650
Q

What does Vasodilation do?

A

It exposes heated blood to external cooling hair.
-Blood vessels dilate

651
Q

What does Vasoconstriction do?

A

It keeps the cooling of blood to a minimum when it’s cold outside, decreasing radiant heat loss.
-Blood vessels constrict

652
Q

What are two factors that affect assessments of damage (burn to the skin)?

A

Depth
Amount of area damaged

653
Q

What does the depth of a burn relate to?

A

to the layers of skin affected by the burn

654
Q

What layer is damaged by first degree burns?

A

Epidermis
-Redness and pain but no blister

655
Q

What layer is damaged by second degree burns?

A

whole epidermis and a portion of the dermis
-Redness, pain, blistering

656
Q

What is common in second degree burns?

A

Sacrring

657
Q

What layer is damaged by thrid degree burns?

A

All three layers of the skin

658
Q

Will a patient with a third degree burns sense pain?

A

no, because the pain receptors are destroyed.

659
Q

What is destroyed by third degree burns?

A

Pain receptors
Sweat and sebaceous glands
hair follicles
blood vessels

660
Q

What is the worst degree of burns?

A

Fourth degree

661
Q

What does the fourth degree burns do?

A

It penetrates the bone and cause bone damage

662
Q

What happens in the stage 1 pressure wound?

A

The skin is intact with the presence of non-blanchable erythema

663
Q

What happens in the stage 2 pressure wound?

A

there is a partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis

664
Q

What happens in the stage 3 pressure wound?

A

Full thickness loss of skin that extends to the subcutaneous tissue but does not cross the fascia beneath it.

The lesion may be foul smelling

665
Q

What happens in the stage 4 pressure wound?

A

Full thickness skin loss extending through the fascia with considerable tissue loss

There might be possible involvement of the muscle, tendon, or joint.

666
Q

What ar the wound healing stages?

A

Inflammation, proliferation, remodeling

667
Q
A

Bio/Anatomy (5 decks)

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