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BVMS 2 > Module 9 Wk 2 > Flashcards

Module 9 Wk 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what kind of tube is the trachea?

A

It is a flexible non collapsible tube

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2
Q

Where does the trachea extend from and too?

A
  • from cricoid cartilage to the lungs
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3
Q

where is the oesophagus in relation to the trachea?

A

Runs dorsally and then when get to thoracic inleft it runs to the left of trachea

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4
Q

Where does the trachea split into the left and right principal bronchus?

A

Above the base of the heart at T5

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5
Q

What is the wall of the trachea composed of?

A
  • mucosa - resp epi and submucosal glands so musocus and cilia
  • fibro-cartiligenous layer for support
  • adventitia (neck) or serosa (thorax)
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6
Q

What do the incomplete hyaline cartilages of the trachea contibute?

A

Support - keeping airways open during inspiration and expiration

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7
Q

What is in the space of incompleteness of the rings?

A

trachealis muscle

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8
Q

describe the blood supply of the trachea?

A
  • neck supplied by branch os the common carotid artery and the thorax is supplied by the broncheoesophagus artery
  • satellite viens drain
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9
Q

describe the nerve supply to the trachea?

A
  • vagus and recurrent laryngeal nerve travel wither side sending little branches of parasympathetic
  • sympathetic trunk and middle cervical ganglion
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10
Q

what are clinical consideration to do with trachea?

A
  • tracheal collapse
  • tracheal diameter smaller in brachi dogs
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11
Q

what structures are associated with the cervical trachea?

A
  • thyroid and parathyroid glands
  • carotid sheath
  • recurrent laryngeal nerve
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12
Q

what shape is the thoracic cavity?

A

cone shapped with the apex facing cranially + laterally compressed

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13
Q

what kind of pleura covers the thoracic cavity?

A

diaphragmatic

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14
Q

what are the boundaries of the thoracic cavity?

A
  • cranial - the thoracic inlet
  • dorsal - thoracic vert, dorsal parts of ribs amd longus colli muscle
  • lateral - the ribs, costal cartilages and the intercostal muscle
  • ventral - sternum and transverse thoracis muscle
  • caudal - diaphragm
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15
Q

T/F the shape and size of the the thoracic cavity varies with breed

A

True

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16
Q

Compare the cat thorax to the dog thorax?

A

Cats ahve more traingular and elongated thorax whereas dogs ahve more rounded and short thorax. Cats thorax is also narrower ventrodorsally and more crainally located than dogs.

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17
Q

what is not found in the carotid sheath?

A

the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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18
Q

what are the contents of the thoracic cavity

A

The lungs (within the pleural sacs)
The heart (within the pericardial sac held by media stinum)
Part of the trachea
The oesophagus
The thymus (juv.)
The great vessels & nerves
The thoracic duct and lymph nodes

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19
Q

Where does the viceral pleural cover?

A

The lungs

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20
Q

what does the partial pleura line?

A

The mediastinum, diaphragm and the thoracic wall

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21
Q

What is the space between the viceral and partieal layers?

A

The pleural cavity containing pleural fluid

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22
Q

(pleural membranes)
What does the mediastinum form and what does it contain?

A
  • midline between plural sacs
  • the heart, oesophagus, the trachea and the blood vessels
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23
Q

where is the thymus found in the cranial mediastinum?

A

The ventral part

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24
Q

Where is the heart in the middle mediastimum?

A

Within the pericardium

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25
Q

In the caudal mediastinum where is the plica venae cavae partial pleura of right sac reflected and what does it form?

A
  • Over the caudal vena cava
  • mediastinal recess
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26
Q

what is found in the mediastinal recess?

A

The accessory lobe of the right lung

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27
Q

What two organs and structures lie outwith the mediastinum?

A
  • The lungs
  • The caudal vena cave + right phrenic nerve
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28
Q

How is the pulmonary ligament formed and where does it attach too?

A
  • Reflection of the visceral pleura at the medial surface of each lung as it continues onto the Mediastinum
  • Forms the pulmonary ligament which attaches caudal lobe of each lung to the diaphragm
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29
Q

what is the mediastinal recess

A

recess formed between the plica vena cave and caudal mediastinal pleura; right accessory lobe of lung extends into this recess during inspiration

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30
Q

what is the pleural cupula(e)?

A

reflection of the costral pleura and the mediatinal pleura projecting beyond the first rib

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31
Q

What moves into the pleural cupula?

A

lungs during inspiration

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32
Q

Where do the costral and mediastinal pleura meet ventrally?

A

costromediastinal recess

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33
Q

what part of the lungs moves in to the costomediastinal recess?

A

The ventral border of the lung

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34
Q

What is the costrodiaphragmatic recess?

A

Reflection of Costal pleura onto diaphragmatic pleura (blue shaded area)

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35
Q

what part of the lung moves in and out of the costodiaphragmatic recess?

A

The basal border of lung

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36
Q

What is the costrodiaphragmatic line of the pleural reflection?

A

peripheral limit of the costodiaphragmatic recess - marks the greatest ecpansion of the normal lung

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37
Q

Where does the costrodiaphragmatic line of pleural reflection run?

A

From approx rib 8 to the last rib (so r13 in dog and r18 in horse)

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38
Q

in the bovine what is a surgical implication assocaited with the costrodiaphrahmatic line?

A

enterance to pleural cavity must be made craniodorsal to the line

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39
Q

What is the minimum area for auscultation and percussion of the lungs?

A

Area of contact between the lungs and the thoracic wall at the end of expiration

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40
Q

In diseased state the minimum area decreases if?

A

The lung partially collapsed

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41
Q

In diseased state the minimum area increases if?

A

If lung becomes enlarged

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42
Q

(Start of calf pneumonia)
What is pneumonia?

A

An acute or chronic disease marked by inflammation of the lungs and caused by viruses, bacteria, or other microorganisms and sometimes by physical and chemical irritants

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43
Q

When do you tend to get more outbreaks of BRD?

A

The colder months as inside and congragrate together so pass on

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44
Q

what are the 4 infectious predisposing factors of bovine respiritory disease?

A
  • viruses
  • mycoplasma
  • bacteria
  • lungworm
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45
Q

What might an animal with BVD be predisposed to and why?

A

Predisposed to secondary bacteria infections due to how immunosuppressive BVD is

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46
Q

Describe the recovery from an acute disease of resp infection?

A
  • antibody production leading to a loss of production in animals or carrier animals
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47
Q

T/F BRD is oftern multifactorial?

A

True

48
Q

describe how BRD may start as a viral infection?

A
  • Viruses damage cells lining the respoiratory tract
  • damaged cells normally involved in bacterial removal from lung
  • bacteria invade - tracheitis, bronchitis, pneumonia
49
Q

What does IBR stand for?

A

infectious bovine rhinotracheitis - bovine herpes virus 1

50
Q

what does RSV stand for and what is it a primary cause of?

A
  • Respiratory syncytiial virus
  • Primary cause of serious calf pneumonia
51
Q

What group of cattle require a vaccine against RSV?

A

Autumn housed cattle

52
Q

Clinically describe what you see with respiratory syncytical virus (RSV)

A
  • creates substances whihc damage lung remote from areas of viral multiplication
  • clear watery discharge
  • coughing - in bouts
  • fast laboured breathing
  • may die
53
Q

What does PI3 stand for and what is it a primary cause of?

A
  • Parinfluenza type 3
  • primary cause of calf pnumonia but usually less severe than RSVH
54
Q

How might PI3 be spread?

A

Infected animal into a closed herd

55
Q

where does PI3 damage occur?

A

Damage occurs primarily in the lower resp tract with widespreas destruction of cilia and of cilaited cells in smal bronchi and bronchioli

56
Q

What does PI3 cause?

A

Bronchitis, chronchiolitis and alveolitis

57
Q

Describe what can be seen with IBR virus

A
  • reduced appetite, watery eye, nose, coughing
  • fever
  • purelent discharge
  • coughing - may have thick blood stained material coughed up
58
Q

when do carriers of IBR shed virus?

A

At times of stress (moving, housing, calving)

59
Q

What may diagnosis of viral infection may involve?

A

taking ocular and nasal swabs, collection of lung fluid (broncho-alveolar lavage)

For future control measures, collection of blood samples two weeks apart

PM is only useful in cases of sudden death

60
Q

what are the three bacterial species involved in bovine resp disease

A

Mannheimia haemolytica
Pasteurella multocida
Histophilus somni

61
Q

T/F Mannheimia, Pasteurella and Histophilus are gram negative?

A

True - red on gram stain

62
Q

What does the LPS of the H.somni not have in the pasteurellaceae?

A

They do not have O side chains

63
Q

What are LPS toxic effects?

A
  • Initiation of complement and coagulation cascades
  • These result in increased vascular permeability and coagulation
  • accumulation of inflammatory cells, oedema and fibrin deposition in the lung.
64
Q

What are the general characteristics of H.somni?

A
  • small to med size
  • gram negative coccobacilli
  • non-motile and capable of fermenting sugars
  • will not grow on some lab media
  • found in the mucousal surfaces of cattle and are extermly host-specific
65
Q

what is a virulence factor of H.somni?

A
  • Capsule - forms a protective coat around the bacterium and allows it to evade host defences
    -endotoxins
  • proteases that destroy muscosal IgA
  • can chnage it so tehre is no phagocytosis so can persist without host defence effecting
66
Q

Describe the diagnosis of H.somni

A
  • Try and grow organism from infected sites
  • can isolate them on blood but have to do staph streak – staph produces NAD to allow organism to grow
67
Q

H.somni dosent just cause pneumonia what else does it cause?

A
  • thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
  • reproductive failure due to endometritis, metritis or late abortion
68
Q

When does pasteurella become a problem?

A

when they get into lungs

69
Q

What are the general characteristics of pasteurella and mannheimia?

A
  • gram negative
  • short to medium coccobacilli
  • bipolar staining
  • ferment glucose with no gas produced
  • pasteurella species are normally related to mucosal membranes of the resp tract in mammals
70
Q

what is the most commen serotype of pasteurella multocida seen in BRD?

A

capsular serogroup A 3 is the most commen

71
Q

What does type D capsular serogroup produce and what does it cause?

A
  • dermonecrotoxin
  • causes septicaemua, pneumonia and rhinitis
72
Q

how many serotypes of mannheimia heamolytica are recognised?

A

13

73
Q

hwo does disease by mannheimia heamolytica usually occur?

A

following stress such as trasport

74
Q

what are pasteureallas virulence factors?

A
  • capsules
  • lipopolysaccharides - protect organism from host defecence through carb breakdown or induce inflammation through the liopid A component
  • exotoxins such as dermonecrotoxin and labile leukotoxin produced by M.heamolytica whihc killa all inflam cells
75
Q

what does Dermonecrotoxin do in pigs?

A

Nasal inflammation and shortening of maxillary bone

76
Q

What is the gold standard of diagnosing pasteurella?

A

Isolation
- P.multocida isolates grow best on blood agar and have a characteristic odor

77
Q

describe the pathogenesis of bovine pneumonia?

A
  • commensal collanisation in upper resp tract
  • predispose factors of lower tract problems
  • decreased mucociliary clearence
  • impaired alvelor macrophage function
  • prolification and inhalation of nasaopharyngeal m. heamolytica A1 colnisation of the lung
  • realease of leukotoxin, endotoxin and ofther virulence factors
  • mast cell degranulation
78
Q

Describe how to control BRD?

A
  • meanagment via grazing systems, reducding stock density, segregarion of ages, minimise stress and eviro they in
  • vaccination
  • antimicrobial metaphylaxis
79
Q

what 2 things should you do to the enviro when managing BRD?

A
  • reduce moisture
  • improve ventilation
80
Q

What antibiotics are effective against bacterial pneumonia?

A

Penicillians, tertracyclines, fluroquinolones, sulphonamides and macrolides

81
Q

why might live vaccnes be a problem?

A

They can cause mild vesions of disease so may spread and cent be used in pregnancy

82
Q

What afre the advantages in killed vaccines?

A

They will not cause disease and can often be used in pregnencay unlike live ones

83
Q

what is a disadvantage of killed vaccines?

A

May not get as good immunity

84
Q

What are the advantages of giving a live nasal vaccine?

A
  • get rapid immunity
  • good for outbreaks
  • can often be used in the young
85
Q

Where do the primary L and R Bronchus meet?

A

The root or hilus of the lung

86
Q

What is the tracheal bronchus and what species is it present in?

A
  • Is present in ruminants and pigs
  • It is a cranial bifurcation on the right cranial lobe of lung
87
Q

Within the lung how does each bronchus subdivide?

A

lobular - segmental - med- sm bronchi

88
Q

T/F cartilage support decreases as you get more divisions of bronchus?

A

True as it becomes plaques of cartilages

89
Q

What happens with blood supply and venous drainages in the lungs?

A

It subdivides and follows the same pathway as tracha goes

90
Q

Where is there no catidge of the trachea pathway?

A

The terminal bronchioles

91
Q

What is a bronchgram and what can it help identify?

A

A bronchogram uses a special substance called contrast to make the bronchi (the airways in the lungs) visible on an x-ray or other imaging device. A bronchogram can help diagnose and monitor various lung conditions, such as infections, tumors, or narrowing of the airways.

92
Q

What are the stuctures entering/leaving the root of the lung?

A
  • the trachea - R and L primary bronchus providing air to lungs
  • pulmonary trunk (LandR pulmonary arteries) supplying deoxygenated blood to lungs
  • Pulmonary veins taking oxygenated blood from lungs to heart
93
Q

Where do the bronchial arteries arise from?

A

Directly from the aorta and supply the lung tissue with ocygenated blood

94
Q

Describe the smooth muscle in the segmental bronchi

A
  • it forms continuous spirals between cartilage and mucosa
  • It controls airways via constriction
95
Q

What does BALT stand for?

A

Bronchial Assocaited Lumphoid Tissue found in the lamina propria

96
Q

Describe histologically what you see of a segmental bronchus

A
  • clia, goblet cells and complicated epithelium
  • gasous exchange tissue - lacy stuff
97
Q

Describe how to differentaite between bronchus and bronchiole?

A
  • a bronchus has cartilage plates over the smooth muscle unlike bronchiole having only smooth muscle
  • there is also BALT present in bronchus
98
Q

what kind of cells disapear and what ones become more dominant when transitioning from brinchus to bronchioles?

A
  • goblet cells disappear
  • club cells become more dominant
99
Q

What is the change of epithelium from bronchus to bronchioles?

A

To simple cilaited columnar to cuboidal epithelium in teminal bronchioles

100
Q

Describe club cells

A
  • They are non-ciliated cells
  • They project into lumen from normal cuboidal epi
101
Q

What are the functions of the club cells?

A
  • Defence
  • detoxyfying
  • stem cells - for regen of cilaited bronchial cells
102
Q

describe respiritory bronchioles?

A

passagways with some aveoli in walls

103
Q

Desribe aleveolar ducts

A

passageways with many alveoli in walls

104
Q

describe alveolar sacs

A

a cul-de-sac with many alveoli

105
Q

describe the structure from resp bronchioles to the alveolar sac

A

resp bronchiole - alveolar duct - atrium - alveolus - alveolar sacs

106
Q

What are the two main cell types in the alveoli?

A
  • type 1 pneumocyte - 97 percent
  • type 2 pneumocyte - 3 percent
107
Q

describe type 1 pneumocyte

A

squamous alveolar

108
Q

what is each alveolus lined with?

A

simple epithelium

109
Q

what runs within interstitum between alveoli?

A

capillaries

110
Q

what do the blood cells do in supporting epithelium of alveolis?

A

carry o2 and realeas it through wall of capillary and avleoli and exchage over thin stuctures (cells)

111
Q

what three things make up the blood gas barrier?

A
  • type 1 pneumocyte
  • fused basal membrane of alveolar and endothelial cells
  • endothelial cell
112
Q

what are the alveolar macrophages carried along with to pharynx?

A

surfactant and awallowed

113
Q

What does the shape of the lung depend on?

A

stage of respiration

114
Q

What should the colour of lungs look like?

A

pink when healthy

115
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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