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BVMS 2 > Module 7 Wk 3 > Flashcards

Module 7 Wk 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is rigor mortis?

A

sustained muscle contraction after death caused by the absence of adequate ATP production

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2
Q

what is the motor unit?

A

myofibers innervated by a single axon

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3
Q

what kind of movement does small motor units?

A

fine movement

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4
Q

what kind of movement does large motor units produce?

A

generation of force

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5
Q

how would you examine muscle in vivo?

A

clinical pathology
- CK, ALT, AST count
- myoglobin
Electrophysiology
- electromyography - needle straight to muscle
- electroneougraphy - stimulate nerve to see what is going on eith the muscle

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6
Q

how would you examine muscle ex vivo?

A

Gross examination
- size
- texture
- colour

histological examination

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7
Q

what are the different responses muscles give in response to insults?

A
  • hypertrophy
  • atrophy
  • degeneration and necrosis
  • regeneration
  • chronic myopathic change
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8
Q

why is it only a possibli;ity and not super commen for muscle to regenerate?

A

As muscles are post mitotic tissue so stable.

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9
Q

what happens to the size of the myofibers during atrophy of muscle?

A

reduced

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10
Q

What is the earliest stage of degeneration seen?

A

hypercontraction

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11
Q

what can be seen at hyaline degeneration?

A

homogenously eosinophillica fibres and loss of straitions

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12
Q

T/F you dont see mineralisation with acute necrossi of muscle

A

false see it with all necrosis

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13
Q

What is segmental degeneration and necrosis classified based upon?

A
  • distribution and time line
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14
Q

what does regeneration of muscle depend on?

A

intact staellite cells and extent of damgae to basal lamina

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15
Q

If basal lamina is intact what happens?

A
  • macrophages enter and remove debris
  • satillite cells become myoblasts
  • myoblasts fuse to form myotubes
  • essentail structures reformed
  • nuclei move to perfiferal position
    = regeneration
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16
Q

what might you see with a vascular response in muscles?

A

Ischemia which is where blood flow is resricted or reduced

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17
Q

what are the potentail causes of ischemia?

A
  • occlusion of large blood vessel
  • external pressue on a muscle
  • internal oressue on a muscle
  • vasculitis - inflamation of the blood cells
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18
Q

what sensitive cells would you see during ischemia?

A
  • myofibers
  • satallite cells
  • fibroblasts
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19
Q

What is the action of bacteria that causes inflammation in the muscle?

A
  • penetrates wounds
  • spread from adjacent site
  • heamatogenous
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20
Q

what does nespora canium cause in muscle?

A

Causes cysts with bradyziotes in the tissue

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21
Q

What muscles does trichinella spiralis effect?

A

toungue, masticatory muscles, resp muscles and muscles of the eye

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22
Q

What types of injuries cause traumatic pathology of muscles?

A
  • crushing injuries
  • lacerations
  • tearing or ruptures
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23
Q

What muscle is most likely to rupture?

A

diaphram

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24
Q

Name 4 congenital conditions that effect muscles

A
  • x linked muscle dystrophy
  • labrador centronuclear mypopathy
  • hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
  • euine polysaccharide storage myopathy
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25
Q

What is oxidative injury of muscle due too?

A

loss of antioxidant defense mechanism

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26
Q

what can toxins cause in muscles?

A

multifocal and monophasis/polyphasis necrosis

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27
Q

whats the basic structure of a tendon?

A

collegen bundles arranged around a central elongated collection of tenocytes and capilarries

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28
Q

Describe a tenocyte?

A
  • longitudinal rows alongside the collagen fibrils
  • respond to mechanical signals
  • synthesize and degrade all of the collagenous and non collagenous matrix
  • repair the tendon matrix
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29
Q

Describe the accute phase of injury in tendons?

A
  • inflammation
  • lasts for several days
  • inflam cells and pro-inflam mediators and cytokines
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30
Q

Describe the subacute phase of injury in tendons?

A
  • Proliferation
  • 3-6 weeks post injury
  • inflammatory cells replaced by fibroblast cells and small blood vessels
  • fibroblast migrate into the tendon from two sites - sheath and epitenon
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31
Q

describe the chronix phase of injury in tendons

A
  • more than 3 months post injury
  • features like scar tissue, disorganised collagen fibrils, increased numbers of fibroblasts and enlarged endotenon
  • months to years
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32
Q

what are three problems in tendon healing?

A
  • no regeneration - fasicles stuck together and destroyed by scar tissue
  • ruptures may occur at margins of normal scar tissue
  • persistance of inflammatory cells in endotenon
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33
Q

Describe an SDFT injury

A
  • usually mid-metacarpal region
  • risk of injury increases with age and intensity of excersise
  • often preceded by a period of microdamage
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34
Q

How does excersise accelarate the level of microdamage?

A

via
- mechanical overload
- hyperthermia
- hypoxia

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35
Q

Describe how there is mechanical overload in the SDFT

A
  • SDFT converts both potential and kenetic energy into elastic energy
  • reduces muscle energy expenditure so increases the efficiency of locomotion
  • there is a low meachnical safety margin though meaning that high levels of force break the collagen fibrils and alter the microscopic stucture of the tendon
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36
Q

How can there be hyperthermia in the tendon?

A
  • not all elastic energy is returned during recoil of the tendon
  • some is lossed as heat as there innefficient dissipation of heat within the tendon core due to poor vascular supply
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37
Q

what are features of advanced microdamage in the SDFT?

A
  • red core lesion
  • no clinical signs
  • no swelling
  • visible on ultasound
  • when looking histologically there is more type 3 collagen
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38
Q

Describe parasitic diseases of tendons?

A

Onchocerca spp
- adult worm in tendon, tendon sheath, CT of brisket or abdominal wall
- microfilariae migrate to skin, picked up by blood sucking parasite
- passed on

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39
Q

Describe degenerative diseases of tendons?

A

suspensory desmitis - is changes in proteoglycan decomposition

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40
Q

What limbs are more prone to being lamb in horses?

A

forelimb

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41
Q

When investigating lameness in horses what patient information should you gather?

A
  • breed
  • age
  • sex
  • duration of ownership
  • prior to purchase examination?
  • current management
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42
Q

When taking a horse history from client what should you be interested in?

A
  • the owners description of lamness - how long and nature of onset
  • Any external trauma
  • Any localising signs
  • Horses respons to therapy
  • Any prevoius lameness
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43
Q

What are the natures of onset that can be seen in horse lameness?

A
  • sudden onset - acute traumatic injuries which often improve with rest
  • rapid onset - severe lameness, freuently with wound
  • gradual onset - slowly progressive, low grade lameness
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44
Q

when your genrally inspecting horse for lamness what should you look for?

A
  • posture
  • asymmetry
  • BCS
  • foot and limb conformation
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45
Q

What would you do on a detailed examination of the limb?

A
  • close inspection
  • palpation - heat, swelling, pain and digital pulse strength
  • maniculation - reduced range of movement
  • compare L and R
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46
Q

When should you not do a gait analysis in a horse?

A

When a fracture is suspected

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47
Q

What is gait evaulation good for identifying?

A

bilateral lameness

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48
Q

What are the aims of a flexion test?

A
  • To exacerbate mild lameness/ provoke lameness
  • To localise teh lesion causing the lamness
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49
Q

What are the two techniques used when performing diagnostic local analgesia?

A
  • perineural - nerve block
  • intrasynovial - joint/tendon sheath/ bursa block
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50
Q

what are the 2 nerve blocks you can do?

A
  • abaxial sesamoid nerve block
  • palmar digital nerve block
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51
Q

when looking at the limb conformation in the horse what is ideal?

A

The foot should be positioned symmetrucally beneath the limb and the foot contact the ground close to level

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52
Q

What should we see in lateral view of the forelimbs?

A
  • refrence line = perpendicular from tuberosity at midpoint of scapular spine all the way doen to the ground level with heel bulbs
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52
Q

when looking at forelimbs crainally what should toes be doing?

A

toes of feet point straight ahead - abnormal if out or in

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53
Q

What is carpal valgus in horses?

A

outward roataion of limbs

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54
Q

what can happen if the carpal valgus is severe?

A

altered loading of carpys so joint disease

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55
Q

Qhat is carpal varus?

A
  • inwards roatation
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56
Q

What is the lateral vie of hindlimbs of horse?

A

Perpendicular from tubera ischium meets ground 7.5-10cm plantar to foot

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57
Q

What is sickle hocks?

A

Excessive angulation of the hock so horse stands under from hock distally

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58
Q

Whats is sickle hocks due too?

A

Probably due to overload of dorsal apsect of sistal hock joints

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59
Q

What is excessive staight behind in Horse limbs?

A

Reduced angulation of hock, increased angulation of stifle and fetlock

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60
Q

What is dorsopalmber foot imblanace in horses?

A

increasment of load on the heels, DDFT and the navicular bone

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61
Q

How should you go about managing dorsopalmer foot imbalance?

A
  • remedial
  • farrier
  • aim is to have more upright foot conformation, straight hoof- pattern axis
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62
Q

What could a equine foot that is broken backwards be caused by?

A

A result of a long toe, low heel foot conformation

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63
Q

What could a equine foot that is broken forwards be caused by?

A

A result of increased heel height relative to dorsal wall or a reduction in pastern slope

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64
Q

What is increased heel height seen in broken forward feet associated with?

A

Recession of frog and reduction in shock absorbtion resulting in increased loading of pedal bone at impact

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65
Q

What in horses is the movement of the hindlimbs realative to trunk determined by?

A

hip joint

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66
Q

T/F horses hindlimbs are mainly for perpulsion

A

True

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67
Q

What does the sacro-iliac joint allow?

A
  • it is first fuberous joint of hindlimb between the pelvis and vertrbrae column that allows trabsfer of forces from hindlimb onto vet colomn
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68
Q

what are the 4 compartments of the pelvis?

A
  1. ilium - most cranial
  2. ischium - most caudal
  3. pubis - more cranail than ischium
  4. acetabular bone - all bones meet here
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69
Q

T/F the pelvic symphsis becomes bones over time

A

true

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70
Q

describe the ilium of the pelvis

A

There is the wing and body

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71
Q

What orientation is the wing of ilium in the cat and dog?

A

vertically - tall and narrow

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72
Q

What orientation is the wing of ilium in the Horses and ruminants?

A

Horizonatally

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73
Q

What projections are there in horses and ruminants?

A
  • medial projection - tuber sacrale
  • lateral projection - tuber coxae
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74
Q

What is the name of the formen present in the ischium and what runs through this?

A

obturator foreman where the obturator nerve runs through

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75
Q

What is the feature of the ischium that is the muscle attachment for the reproductive organs?

A

The ischiatic arch

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76
Q

What is the tuber ischium and whats different about them in the cow?

A

They are arge round protrusions at the inferoposterior aspect of the ischium - in cows they are triangle shaped

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77
Q

What forms the cranial aspect of the pelvic floor?

A

Pubis

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78
Q

What forms the arch where the pre-pubic tendon attaches too? and what else attaches here?

A
  • Pubis
  • the rectus abdominis muscle
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79
Q

What is the shape of the acetabulum and what is it for?

A
  • cup shaped and boundary for other bones
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80
Q

What are the 3 components of the acetabulum?

A

Lunate surface
- cresent shaped
- articular surface of hip joint
- covered in hyaline cartilage

acetabular notch
- ventral deficit
- filled by tranverse ligament

acetabular fossa
- central non-articular area (depression)
- attachment of ligament of head of femur

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81
Q

Name the centres of ossification in the pelvis

A

Main
- illium bone - fuse together to form two halves
- acetabular fuses before born and pelvis symphysis last

Secondary
- dorsal wings of illium
- tuber ischium
- ischiatic arch

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82
Q

Where and what type of joint is the sacro-iliac joint of the pelvis?

A
  • sacrum - wing of the illium
  • fibrous joint = fused
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83
Q

What is the function of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

Transmits forces from hindlimb during locomotion so not much movement

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84
Q

Whats the difference between dog and horse/cow sacrums?

A

Dogs have 3 fused sacral vert and horses/cows have 5 fused vert

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85
Q

Describe the sacrotuberous/sacrosiatic ligament in large species

A
  • A broad fiberous sheet
  • runs from sacrum and inserts on the ilium and ischium
  • gaps for nerbes to pass through
  • relaxes at parturition
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86
Q

Describe the sacrotuberous/sacrosiatic ligament in the dog

A
  • Caudal edges remain fiberous whihc provides anchorage for sutures during mucle repair surgery
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87
Q

What type of bone is the femur?

A

Long bone

88
Q

How can you tell between the femur and humerus

A

Humerus is s shaped and femur is straight

89
Q

What is the shape of the femur head and what does it articulate with?

A
  • Almost sepherical
  • Articulates with the acetebulum of pelvis to make hip joint
90
Q

What is the fovea of the femur?

A
  • It is a depression of rough bone covered in periosteum
  • Attachment ligament of head of femur
91
Q

What angle does the neck of the femur form?

A

Angle between head and body of femur

92
Q

Describe the medial and lateral condyles on the caudal aspect of femur?

A
  • Smooth bone
  • forms articular surfaces with tibia which forms the stifle joint
93
Q

Describe the intercondylar fossa seen on caudal aspect of femur

A
  • Rough bone
  • non-articular
  • attachment of ligamanents
94
Q

On the crainial aspect of femur what ridges and grooves do we see?

A
  • medial and lateral trochlear ridges
  • trochlear groove which has a smooth surface, covered in hyaline cartilidge and articulates with patella so important for stifle
95
Q

Where are the centres of ossification in the femur?

A

Head
Greater + Lesser trochanter
Body
Distal epiphysis (medial condyle + lateral condyle)
Femoral trochlea (some authors)

96
Q

Names the two components of the hip joint?

A
  • head of the femur
  • acetabulum of pelvis
97
Q

what extends the lunate surface of the acetabulum of pelvis?

A

The labrum whihc provides stability

98
Q

What provides the hip joint with stability?

A
  • ligament of head of femur
  • teres ligament from fovea to acetabular fossa
  • surrounding muscle mass
  • intraarticular ligaments
99
Q

Describe the movement of the hip joint in the dogs?

A

Large range of movement

Pivotal point:
- Hip flexion = limb protraction
- Hip extension = limb retraction
- Abduction
- Adduction

100
Q

T/F horse has same movement at hip joint that dog does?

A

False - horse has limited movement to felxion and extension

101
Q

What is the accessory ligament at the hip joint of horse?

A

It is a continuation of prepubic tendon and attached to head of femur acting like an elastic band

102
Q

Describe the blood supply to the hip joint

A

There is a joint capsule around the neck where vessesl run from to the head of femur

103
Q

Why is the blood supply at hip joint vulnerable to damage?

A

due to bottleneck effect of bloof supply

104
Q

What can this bottleneck cause here?

A

Femoral fractures - neck fracture, head physis seperation (through growth plate)
can then cause avascuar necrosis

105
Q

Between the fibula and tibia which is weight bearing?

A

Tibula

106
Q

What the difference between small and large animals when it comes to fibula?

A

In small animal it just articulates with tibia lateral aspects at the distal and proximal ends whereas in large animals ithe fibula is fused to tibia

107
Q

At the distal end of the tibia and fibula there is attachment sites, what are these called and what is attached?

A
  • medial and lateral malleolus
  • attachment of medial and lateral collateral ligament of hock
108
Q

At the proximal end what are the 4 features we see at tibia?

A
  • tibial plate - medial and lateral condyle
  • intercondylar ridge
  • tibial crest
  • tibial tuberosity
109
Q

What are the med and lat condyles articular surfaces for?

A

Smooth boney surfaces that articulate with the medial and lateral condyles of femur

110
Q

T/F the intercondylar ridge articules?

A

False - non-articular rough bone where the ligament attachment of stifle joint

111
Q

Where is the insertion of the patella ligament?

A

tibial tuberosity

112
Q

T/F there are 5 centers of ossification in the tibia

A

False - 4

  • proximal end epiphysis
  • tibial tuberosity
  • body (diaphysis)
  • distal end epiphysis
113
Q

In carnivores how many centres of ossification does the fibula have?

A

3 max

114
Q

What is the stifle joint comprised of?

A
  • femorotibial joint
  • Femoropatellar joint
  • proximal tibiofibular (if fibual present)
  • femur - paired sesamoids (carnivores)
115
Q

What are the articular surfaces of the femorotibial joint?

A

Lateral & medial femoral condyles
Lateral & medial tibial condyles

116
Q

What extra structures in life aid the congruation of the femoral and tibial condyles?

A

Menisci - theses are c shaped wedges of cartilage that attach to tibial condyles via short ligaments

117
Q

Where in the femorotibial joint is the attachment for the interarticular ligments?

A
  • Intercondylar fossa
  • Intercondylar eminence
118
Q

What ligaments provide the femorotibial joint with stability?

A
  • medial and lateral collateral ligamants
  • caudal and cranial cruciate ligaments
119
Q

Where do the cruciate ligaments attach too?

A

From intercondylar eminence on femur to the intercondylar fossa on the tibia

120
Q

What do the cruiciate ligaments resist and prevent?

A

Rotation and excessive cranial and caudal movement so no massive move which could cause cranial or caudal dislocation of the tibia and femur

121
Q

What are the components of the femoropatellar joint?

A
  • trochlear groove on femur
  • Patella - embedded in patellar ligament
122
Q

What provides the femoropatellar with stability?

A

no later movement
- meadial and lateral trochlear ridges
- lateral and medial collaterla femoro-patellar ligments
- fascia coming from muscles

proximal and distal glide only
- patella pulled proximally into groove = stilfle extensions
- patella pulled distally = stifle extensions

123
Q

Describe the sesamoid bones associated with the stifle joint

A

Patella x1
- in all species
- cat pointy dog less
- horse diamond

fabellae x2
- in the gastrinemius muscle
- cant see in large animals

Popliteal
- can see in cats and dogs
- in the popliteal muscle that wraps around the stifle

124
Q

so how many sesamoids assc with stifle joint exist in large animals?

A

1

125
Q

T/F the stifle joint is not a synovial joint?

A

False - it is

126
Q

The stifle joint has an extensive joint capsule what are the compartments?

A
  • femoro-patellar
  • laterla femoro-tibial
  • medial femoro-tibial
127
Q

is there good or poor communication between the 3 compartments in the horse?

A

No its poor

128
Q

Whats the difference with the horses trochlear ridge?

A

The medial trochlear ridge is much larger than lateral and has an extral tubercle at the proximal end

129
Q

Describe the 2 parts of the trochlear groove in the horse?

A
  • Vertical = gliding (prox and distal movement)
  • Horizontal = resting (locking mechanism where knee is extended meaning other can rest)
130
Q

What are the three patellar ligaments and where do they run from?

A
  • medial, middle and lateral
  • middle runs from patella itself
  • medial and lateral runs from the cartilidge assotiated with patella
131
Q

Where do all 3 patella ligaments insert onto?

A

Tibial tuberosity

132
Q

Describe the 5 stages of the patellar locking mechanism?

A
  1. Patella pulled proximally in trochlear groove as stifle extended
  2. Patella rotated medially via quadriceps contacting
  3. Engages horizontal / resting surface
  4. Tubercle of medial trochlear ridge now sits between middle & medial patellar ligaments
  5. Locks joint in extension
133
Q

Describe locomotion of the hindlimb?

A
  • hip joint moves in all directions
  • abduction (carnivores only) via dorsal thigh muscles
  • adduction via medial and ventral thigh muscles
  • protraction via hip flexion and cranial thigh muscles
  • retraction via hip extensions and caudal thigh muscles
134
Q

What is the dorsal thigh muscle?

A

Gluteal muscle

135
Q

What is the function of the gluteal muscle?

A
  • hindlimb abductor (dog)
  • hindlimb retractor/hip extensor (horse)
135
Q

What is the origin and insertion point of the gluteal mucsle?

A

origin - sacrum and pelvis
insertion - greatertrochanter of femur

135
Q

What nerve supplies the gluteal muscle?

A

Gluteal nerve

136
Q

What are the medial/ventral thigh muscles?

A

GAPE

  • Gracilis
  • Adductor
  • Pectineus
  • External obturator
137
Q

What is the function of the GAPE muscles?

A

Adduction

138
Q

what nerve supplies the GAPE muscles?

A

obturator nerve

139
Q

What are the cranial thigh muscles?

A
  • Quadriceps
  • sartorius
  • iliopsoas
140
Q

What is the function of the quadricep muscles?

A

stifle extensor

141
Q

what nerve supplies the cranial thigh muscles?

A

The femoral nerve

142
Q

Does the sartorius have two heads?

A

yes medial and lateral

143
Q

What is the function of the sartorius muscle?

A

Stifle extensor and hip flexor

144
Q

What is the function of the iliopsoas muscle?

A

hip flexor

145
Q

what are the caudal thigh muscles?

A
  • biceps femoris
  • semitendinous
  • semimembranosus
146
Q

What nerve supplies the caudal thigh muscles?

A

the sciatic nerve

147
Q

what are the functions of the beceps femoris muscle?

A
  • hip extensore
  • stifle flexor
  • hock extensor
148
Q

what are the functions of the semitendinous and semimebranous muscles?

A
  • hip extensor
  • stifle flexor
  • (hock extensor)
149
Q

What is the definitions of lame?

A

Incapable of normal locomotion or deviating from a normal gait

150
Q

What could be the cause of lameness?

A

Pain, mechanical or normal

151
Q

List the things you would do to diagnose the cause of lameness?

A
  • History
  • Observation
  • Physical examination - general and focussed
  • Diagnostic investigations
  • gait analysis
152
Q

Name the diagnostic examination procedures you could do to find the cause of lamness?

A
  • Radiography
  • Ultrasound
  • Advanced imaging – CT, MRI
  • Synovial fluid examination
  • Arthroscopy
  • (scintigraphy)
153
Q

When doing a gair anaylsis what is a question you could ask owner to help you understand if what you seeing is the animals normal movement?

A

“Is the animal having a good or bad day today”?

154
Q

What should you do when performing a clinical exam?

A
  • leave the lame / painful leg until last (if possible)
  • palpate with the animal standing, from proximal to distal
  • examine foot then manipulate from distal to proximal, usually with animal in lateral recumbency
155
Q

What should you compare when palpating the limbs?

A

symmetry of

  • muscle atrophy
  • thickening / swelling
  • joint effusion
  • heat
  • pain
156
Q

What you should look for when manipulating the limbs to fine lameness cause?

A
  • instability: laxity, sub-luxation or - luxation*
  • pain?
    range of motion:
  • flex, extend, abduct, adduct, rotate
  • reduced or increased?
157
Q

What test can you do at the shoulder?

A

Biceps test - abduct and adduct to asses medial instability under sedation/GA

158
Q

At the hip what can you do in conscoius animal?

A

flex, extend and abduct

159
Q

What can you do to stifle in conscouis animal?

A
  • flex, extend, assess collateral stability, patellar stability, cranial tibial test, cranial draw test (better done under GA/sedation
160
Q

What does the tarsus proximal row consist of?

A
  • talus
  • calcaneus
161
Q

What does the tarsus middle row consist of?

A
  • central and 4th tarsal bone
162
Q

What does the tarsus distal row consist of?

A
  • 1,2,3 and 4th (tall so goes between rows) tarsal bone
163
Q

In the horse how is the tarsus different?

A

the 1st and 2nd tarsal bones are fused in distal row and the 3rd one is very large

164
Q

name all 4 joints in the tarsus region?

A
  1. tibio-trasal joint
  2. proximal intertarsal joint
  3. distal intertarsal joint
  4. tarso-metatarsal joint
165
Q

What joint of the tarsus has the most movement?

A

Tibrio-tarsal joint

166
Q

What is the proximal intertarsal joint between?

A

talus, calcaneus and central, 4th tarsal bones

167
Q

what is the distal intertarsal joint between?

A

central bone and the 1st, 2nd, 3rd tarsal bones

168
Q

What prevents overreach injury in horses?

A

Limb protraction and hock flexion

  • distal hindlimb directed lateral to forelimbs
169
Q

What provides the tarsus with stability?

A
  1. Collateral ligaments:
    - Long: Tibia – metatarsal bone – normal ones
    - Short: Bridge bone – bone – in between each row
    - Clinical significance: dressage horses
  2. Fibrocartilagenous reinforcement of joint capsule at planter aspact
  3. Retinaculum – fiberous tissue that acts like a tubullcle band providing stability
  4. Plantar ligament - ‘Curb’ – inflammation that minaralises
170
Q

what bone in the tarsus has 2 centres of ossification?

A

calcaneus

171
Q

what are the distal hindlimb muscles at cranial aspect of tibial region?

A
  • cranial tibial muscle
  • peroneus muscle - peroneus longus and peroneus tertius muscles
  • long digital extensor muscle
172
Q

what are the distal hindlimb muscles at caudal aspect of tibial region?

A
  • common calcanean tendon
  • gastrocnemius muscle
  • superficial digital flesor muscle
  • deep digital flexor tendon
173
Q

what are all cranial muscles at tibial region?

A

hock flexors

174
Q

what does the long digital extensor also do along with flexion of the hock?

A

It is a digital extensor

175
Q

What nerve supplies the muscles of the cranial aspect of the tibial region?

A

The peroneal/fibular nerve

176
Q

What makes up the common calcanean tendon?

A
  • biceps femoris
  • semitendinosis
  • gracilis
  • gastrocnemius
  • superficial digital flexor
177
Q

what are all caudal muscles at tibial region?

A

Hock extensor +/- digital extensor

178
Q

What nerve supplies the muscles of the caudal aspect of the tibial region?

A

The tibial nerve

179
Q

if you have a resting forelimb in a horse what does it indicate?

A

lameness

180
Q

What system at the stifle prvents collapsion into flexion?

A

patellar locking system

181
Q

What system at the hock prevents collapsion into flexion?

A

reciprocal apparatus

182
Q

Describe the recipricol apparatus in horse

A
  • peroneus tertius at the cranial aspect of the tibia region
  • superficial digital flexor at the caudal aspect of the tibial region
  • acts as a pully mechanism
    stifle and hock move together
183
Q

What do the metatarsalphalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joint prevent?

A

Hyperextention

184
Q

How does the metararsalpahlangeal joint return back to normal after flexion and extension?

A

via the suspenosry apparatus

185
Q

Explain how suspensory apparatus working in the hindlimb?

A
  • The suspensory ligament is attached to the planter aspect of the 3rd metatarsal bone
  • Then attached to the proximal sesamoids
  • This branches medially and laterally ( distal sesamoidean ligaments)
  • thes pass dorsally going onto digital extensor tendon
186
Q

What are the 4 emerging peripheral nerves that suppl the hindlimb?

A
  • GLuteals
    -obturator
    -femoral
  • sciatic - fibular/peroneal and tibial
187
Q

What is the route of the gluteal nerve?

A

Runs over dorsal surface body of ilium

188
Q

What is the function of the gluteal nerve?

A

To supply gluteal muscles

189
Q

What is the route of the obturator nerve?

A

Passes through the obturator forame formed by pubis and ischium, the a short route to medial thigh

190
Q

What is the function of the obturator muscle?

A

Supplies the GAPE muscles

191
Q

What is a clinical concideration to think about at parturition in cows?

A

If the obturater nerve is damaged due to parturition

192
Q

What is the route of the femoral nerve?

A

short route to cranial thigh from plexus

193
Q

what is the function of the femoral nerve?

A

To supply cranail thigh muscles
- Illiopsoas
-sartorius
- quadriceps

194
Q

What branch of the femoral nerve provide cutanous sensation?

A

Saphenous branch
-runs doen the medial branch of the limb

195
Q

if there is damge to the femoral nerve what cant you do?

A
  • extend stifle
  • weight bear
  • loss of patellar reflex if there is damage to branch
196
Q

what is the route of the sciatic nerve

A

runs over dorsal surface of ilium
passes caudal to hip
runs deep into biceps demoris

197
Q

what is the function of the scatic nerve?

A

supplies the caudal thigh muscles
- biceps femoris
- semitendinsous
-semimembranosous

198
Q

What is the function of the tibial nerve?

A

supplies caudal tibial muscles
- gastroneamius
- superficial digital flexor
- deep digital flexor

199
Q

what does the tibial nerve provode cutanous sensation too?

A

caudal/plantar aspect limb

200
Q

what is the function of the peroneal/fbular nerve?

A

supply cranial tibial muscles
- cranial tibial
- peroneus group
- long digital extensor

201
Q

describe the blood supply in the hindlimb?

A
  • the external iliac artery leaves abdominal aorta and becomes the femoral artery at hip level whihc runs through thigh region which becomes the popliteal artery whihc then branches
202
Q

Describe the venous drainage in the hindlimb?

A

deep system
- follows arterial supply

Superficial system
- lateral sephenous vein - drains into vena cava (dogs)
- medial saphenous vein - cats anf horses

203
Q

what are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

A

caudal - pectinues
cranial - sartorius

204
Q

what are the contents of the femoral triangle?

A
  • femoral vein, artery and nerve
205
Q

Why is lameness in horses important?

A
  • most commen health problem health problems in horses
  • it indicates pain, reduces performance and has economic impacts
206
Q

What is gait in horses?

A
  • Coordinated pattern of repetitive limb movements used in locomotion
  • Vertical head and pelvic movements associated with those of the limbs
207
Q

Describe a stride in horses?

A
  1. Stance (foot on ground)
  2. Push off (the take off)
  3. Swing (limb swings forward)
208
Q

How does gait relate to lameness?

A

If there is a gait abnormality it indicates lamness

209
Q

What are the aims of a gait assesment?

A
  • Determine whether horse is lame
  • Identify lame limb(s)
  • Quantify severity of lameness, i.e. grade it
  • Differentiate primary and compensatory lameness
210
Q

what should you do before watching the horse move?

A
  • inspect and palpate for heat/swelling/pain/digital pulse
  • joint manipulation - pain and range of motion
  • hoof tester application
211
Q

What can you note about the head movement in horse in one complete stride cycle?

A
  • Head moves down and up twice
  • Minimum head height occurs at mid stance
  • Maximum head height occurs after stance phase, just prior to start of stance phase of contralateral forelimb
212
Q

What should you use as referce for movement of netire pelvis?

A

The tubera sacrale

213
Q

what will you see with entire pelis normally?

A
  • Pelvis moves down and up twice
  • Minimum pelvic height at mid stance
  • Maximum pelvic height after stance phase, just prior to start of stance phase of contralateral hindlimb
214
Q

What is the tubera coxae movement like?

A
  • simialr movement pattern to entire pelvis but the movement is asymmetrical for each stride resulting in pelvic rotation
  • Minimum height during ipsilateral stance
  • Maximum height following ipsilateral push-off
215
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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