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BVMS 2 > Module 8 Wk 3 > Flashcards

Module 8 Wk 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of Cranial nerve one and its function?

A
  • Olfactory nerve
  • Conscious perception of smell - axons pass from the cell bodies on the ethmoturbinates through the cribiform plate to the olfactory bulb
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2
Q

What are the clinical dysfunctions asoociated with cranial nerve 1?

A
  • Hyposmia - decrease sense of smell
  • inappetence
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3
Q

How would you clinically evaluate cranial nerve 1?

A

Watch the animals response to auromatic substance while blindfolded

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4
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve 2?

A

The optic nerve

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5
Q

What is the pathway of the optic nerve?

A

goes down to optic chiasm

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6
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve 3 and its function?

A
  • Oculomotor nerve
  • It innervates ipsilateral dorsal, ventral and medial rectus muscles and ventral oblique
  • It is also the efferent arm of the pupillary reflex
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7
Q

What are clinical dysfunctions assosiated with cranial nerve 3?

A
  • Ventrolateral stabismus
  • Dilated unresponsive pupil
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8
Q

How would you clinically evaluate Cranial nerve 3?

A
  • eye position
  • Pupillary light reflex
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9
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve 4 and what is its function?

A
  • Trochlear nerve
  • Innervates controlateral dorsal oblique muscle
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10
Q

What are clinical dysfunctions associated with cranial nerve 4?

A
  • dorsolateral stabismus of the contralateral eye
  • exam fundus
  • in cats will see altered pupil orientation
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11
Q

what is the name of cranial nerve 5 and what is its function?

A
  • trigeminal nerve
  • sensory innervation of the face, motor innervation of masicatory muscles
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12
Q

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • ophthalmic
  • maxillary
  • mandibular
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13
Q

what branch of the trigeminal nerve only provides motor innervation?

A

mandibular

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14
Q

what are clinical dysfunction associated with cranial nerve 5?

A
  • masticatory muscle atrophy
  • decreased jaw tone
  • loss of facial sensation
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15
Q

How would you clincally evaluate the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • size and symmetry of muscles
  • jaw tone
  • corneal reflex
  • palpebral reflex
  • corneal reflex
  • nasal stimulation
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16
Q

what is the name of cranial nerve 6 and what is its function?

A
  • Abducens nerve
  • It innervates ipsilateral lateral rectus and rector bulbi
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17
Q

What are the clincal dysfunctions that are assocaited with cranial nerve 6?

A
  • ipsilateral convergent strabismus
  • Loss of physiological nystagmus
  • Inability to retract eyeball
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18
Q

how would you clincally evaluate cranial nerve 6?

A
  • corneal reflex
  • assess vestibular ocular reflex
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19
Q

what is the name of cranial nerve 7 and what is its function?

A
  • facial nerve
  • It gives motor funtion to muscles of facial expression
  • It is the parasymathetic component innervates lacrimal and mandibular and sublingual salivary glands
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20
Q

What are clinical dysfunctions that are associated with the facial nerve?

A
  • acutely - ipsilateral drooping of ear and lip, absence of blinking, kerratoconjuctivitis sicca if lesion between medulla and middle ear
  • chronically - lip is retracted
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21
Q

how would you clinically evaluate cranial nerve 7?

A
  • palpebral reflex
  • menace response
  • lip pinch
  • schirmer tear test
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22
Q

what is the name of cranial nerve 8 and what is its function?

A
  • vestibulocochlear nerve
  • Hearing via the cochlear nerve which transmits impulses from organ of Corti to brainstem
  • Vestibular function which adapts position of eye and body with respect to position and movement of head.
  • Vestibular nerve transmits impulses from vestibular apparatus to the vestibular nuclei in the brainstem.
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23
Q

what are the clinical dysfunctions with cranial nerve 8?

A
  • head tilt
  • falling
  • nystagmus
  • strabismus
  • ataxia
  • deafness
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24
Q

how would you clinically evaluate cranial nerve 8?

A
  • evaluate body and head posture
  • vestibulo-occular reflex
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25
Q

what are the names of the cranial nerve 9 and 10?

A
  • glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve
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26
Q

what are clinical dysfunctions associated with cranial nerves 9 and 10?

A
  • dysphagia
  • absent gag relfex
  • inspiritory dysponea
  • dysphonia
  • meganoesophagus
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27
Q

what is the name and function of cranial nerve 11?

A
  • accesory nerve
  • Motor innervation to trapezius and part of sternocephalicus and brachiocephalicus muscles
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28
Q

what is the name and function of cranial nerve 12?

A
  • hypoglossal nerve
    -Motor innervation to the tongue
    Clinical dysfunction
    Atrophy or deviation of tongue
    Problems with prehension and deglutition.
    Clinical evaluation
    Tongue tone
    Tongue position
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29
Q

What is the definition of pain?

A

Is an unpleasent sensory and emotional expeirence assocaited with actual or potential tissue damage

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30
Q

T/F pain is always subjective?

A

true

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31
Q

What are the variable links between pain and injury?

A
  • The severity of injury does not always equal the degree of pain
  • The location of the pain is not always equal of the site of injury
  • The time course of pain is not always equal to the time course of injury
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32
Q

Pain perception has an emotional component, what is this affected by?

A
  • past experiences
  • suggestion ie placebo
  • emotional state
  • stimulation activation of other sensory modalities
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33
Q

What does affective emotional states influnce?

A

The magnitude of pain experience

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34
Q

T/F paim ratings are higher for attended than ignored painful stimuli

A

true

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35
Q

What is neuropathic pain caused by?

A

damaged nerves centrally and peripherally

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36
Q

define physiological pain?

A

Pain proportional to the intensity of noxious stimul - good as it protects against further injury

37
Q

Define pathological pain

A

Pain greater than apparent noxious stimulus - detremental as its not accurate for whats actually going on

38
Q

When there is conscious experience of pain in brain what happens next?

A
  • at the level of spinla cord procesing occurs in dorsal horn
  • then afferent fibre conducts action potential to CNS
  • then nocieptor generates an action potential
39
Q

what do nociceptors respond too?

A
  • intense mechanical deformatio
  • potentially damaging temeratures
  • noxious chmical substanes
40
Q

How does anesthetics prevent pain perception?

A

Closure of sodium channals and this blockages causes no pain signals being formes do no pain perception

41
Q

T/F pain is a hard-wired system?

A

Flase it is not - inhibitory influnesces and sensation can effect

42
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

An incresed response to stimulus which is normally painful

43
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Pain due to stimulus which does not normally provoke pain

44
Q

what effect does repeated stimulation have on nocioceptors?

A

Increase reactivity of them

45
Q

List the names of analgesic drugs?

A
  • Local anasthetics
  • opoids
  • non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  • alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonists
  • miscellaneous - ket and nitrous oxide
46
Q

what are the 4 sites of drug action for treatment of pain control?

A

Brain - sensory cortex
Spinal cord - dorsal horn
afferent fibre
nocioeptors

47
Q

what is preventative analgesia?

A

The administration of analgesic drugs throughout the peri-operative peroid

48
Q

What is multimodal analgesia?

A

The use of a combination of drugs that act at different points in the nociceptive pathway

49
Q

describe the mechanism of action of opioids?

A
  • bind to opioid receptors in brain, spinla cord, periphery
  • then onto receptor-effector pathway
50
Q

What are all opioid receptors?

A

G protein coupled receptors

51
Q

Describes the receptor effector pathways

A
  • inhibit adenylate cyclase creating decrease in cAMP
  • Promotes opening of potassium channels leaving cell
  • inhibit opeing of voltage gated calcium channals
52
Q

What effects do opioids have?

A
  • differential disribution of receptors results in varied response
  • decrease neuronal excitability and transmitter release
53
Q

What are the 6 CNS effects opioids have?

A
  • Analgesia/sedation
  • euphoria
  • nausea and vomiting
  • respiritoru depression
  • depression of cough reflex
  • pupilliary constriction
54
Q

what are the effects of opiods on the GIT?

A
  • increase in tone ans decrease in motility which leads to constipation
  • constriction of biliary sphincter
55
Q

T/F opioids cause histamine release?

A

Truee

56
Q

What effect does Opioids have on smooth muscle?

A
  • Othere than bronchi and GIT it has little effect although can cause spasms in uterus/bladder
57
Q

Describe the pharmacokenetics od Opiods

A
  • oral absorobtion
  • They have considerable first pass metabolism
  • t half is 3-6 hrs
  • There is hepatic metabolism
  • excreted in urine and bile
58
Q

Why would you clinically use opioids in vet med?

A
  • To relieve pain
  • To provide sedation
  • To reduce the dose of genral ana required
  • To treat diarrhoae
  • To control coughing
59
Q

What two types of patient should you use opioids with caustion?

A
  • Ones with existing hypoventilation
  • Ones with existing head injuries as many increase intracranial pressure due t increasing pco2
60
Q

What classification does opioids morphine and methodone come under?

A

Agonists

61
Q

What classification does opioids buprenorphine come under?

A

Partial agonist

62
Q

What classification does opioids naxalone and iprenorphine come under?

A

Anatagonists

63
Q

For modarate/severe pain what should the opioid be highgly or lowly efficacious?

A

HIghly

64
Q

T/F full agonistsopiods are less efficacious than partial agonists

A

Flase they are more efficacious

65
Q

When would you use opioids antagonists?

A
  • To treat resp depression
  • To treat excitement
  • To reverse effects of pioid analgesics in pups delivered by c section
  • emergency first aid in accidental injection of a human
66
Q

Where do you inject an epidural ana?

A

Space outside the dura matter

67
Q

Where would you inject a spinal ana?

A

In subarachanoid space

68
Q

List psychotropic drugs on increasing unresponsivness?

A
  • tranqualiser
  • neuroleptic
  • sedative
  • hypnotic
69
Q

What are the two pathways CNS drugs target?

A
  • AA pathway
  • Monoamine pathways
70
Q

Whar receptors are tagets by CNS drugs in the AA pathways?

A
  • Glutamate NMDA receptor
  • GABA receptor
71
Q

What receptors are targets of CNS drugs in the monoamines pathways?

A
  • Alpha 2 adrenoceptor
  • Noradrenaline
  • Dopamine D receptor
72
Q

What must the CNS drugs be to pass the BBB barrier?

A
  • Small non-polar molecules
  • or via transporters
73
Q

What effect does ket have on NMDA receptors?

A

It inhibits them so there is a channal blockage meaninf sodium and calcium dosent get into cells

74
Q

What are the two inhibitory transmitters of the CNS?

A
  • GABA a
  • GABA b
75
Q

What effects do GA have n GABA?

A
  • Enchnces inhibitory action of GABA va binding to allosteric site, promoting binding of GABA to GABAa receptor all while enchnacing GABA-induced chlorine currens
76
Q

What effects do Benzodiazepines have on GABA?

A

They potentiate GABA ie making them more powerful via facilitating opening of GABA activated chloride channels, having a complete diff site to GABAa and increasing affinity of GABA for its receptor

77
Q

What are 3 monoamine neurotransmitter?

A
  • Noradrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • 5HT
78
Q

What are the functions of alpha 2 adrenoceptors?

A
  • Presynaptic inhibition of neurotransmitter release in CNS which brings about sedation and analgesia
  • Post-Synaptic inhibition of smooth muscle relaxation in PNS causing vasoconstriction
79
Q

What are the edative effects of alpha 2 adrenoceptors?

A
  • mild sedation to deep sedation
  • mainly in the brain
80
Q

What are te analgesia effects of alpha 2 adrenoceptors?

A
  • potent alangesic action, dose dependent and shorter than sedation
  • central action - spinal and subraspinal
81
Q

What are the peripheral effects of alpha 2 adrenoceptors?

A
  • CVS - hypertension
  • resp - mild to moderate depression in cats, dog and horse - ruminants gets arterial hypoxemia
  • GIT - vommiting and motality depressed
82
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dopamine antagonists?

A
83
Q

Describe the Pharmacodynamics of phenothaizines

A
  • CNS = tranqualiser
  • CVS = arterial hypotension
  • Resp - generally minimal effects
  • GIT - anti emetic effect
84
Q

What are the effects of adrenergic transmission?

A
  • monoamine ocidase
  • Neuronal noradernaline transporters
85
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tricyclic antidepressants?

A

They block noradrenaline and 5HT reuptake

86
Q

What is the mech of action of monoamine oxidase inibitors?

A

They increase stores of noradrenaline and 5HT

87
Q

What is the mech of action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A

To block 5HT reuptake

88
Q

name 3 mood altering drugs?

A
  • lithium
  • carbamazepine
  • valproic acid
89
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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