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BVMS 2 > Module 8 Wk 1 > Flashcards

Module 8 Wk 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the CNS develop from?

A

From the neural plate into the neural tube

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2
Q

What is the neural plate?

A

A specilised layer of ectoderm (outer layer of cells) tissue in developing embryo

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3
Q

what are the 3 regions of the brain that the neural tube expands and consricts to give rise too?

A
  • prosencephoron (fore)
  • mesebcephron (mid)
  • rhombencephron (hind)
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4
Q

What are the components of the embryo forebrain?

A
  • telencephalon - forms the cerebral hemispheres and houses lateral ventricle
  • diencephalon - forms the thalamus and hypothalamus
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5
Q

what is the component of the embryo midbrain?

A
  • the mesencephalon which includes cerebral peduncles (little feet) which is the connection between the brainstem and herbro hemispheres
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6
Q

what are the components of the embryo hindbrain?

A
  • The metencephron which forms the pons and the cerebellum
  • The myelencephalon
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7
Q

what is the function of the cerebrum of the brain?

A

Cognition and though processing in the left and right hemispheres

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8
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Gate and balance

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9
Q

What is the function of the diencephalon?

A

Processing information

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10
Q

What is the function of brainstem?

A

Control of body physiology

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11
Q

What does folding of the cerebral cortex enchance?

A
  • Folding greatly enchances the surface rea and vastli increase the potential for neural networks?
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12
Q

what is a way to desecribe sulci and gyri?

A

sulci is the valleys and gyri are the hills

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13
Q

How is the cerebrum divided into lobes

A

Based on cranial bones

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14
Q

What are the boundaries of the cerebrum divisions definedby?

A

Major fisures and smaller sulci

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15
Q

What seperates Frontal and parental divisions?

A

The central cruciate

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16
Q

What seperates the temporal from the frontal + parentail?

A

Lateral sulci

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17
Q

What is the function of the olfactory lobe (bulb)?

A

Smell

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18
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

Behaviour, Speech, movement, problem solving

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19
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

A

Associated with movement and orientation and involved in perceiving sensory information

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20
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Processes sound, vestibular sesations, smells while also being involved in percepion and emotion

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21
Q

What seperates the left and right hemispheres

A

Longitudinal fissure

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22
Q

what are the cerebrum functions?

A
  • Involved in complex thought processes
  • Receives and interprets sensory information
  • Initiates voluntary muscle action
  • Interacts with the limbic system - Moods, fear, pleasure also modulates memory
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23
Q

What is the function of the olfactory bulb?

A

transports odour signals to the cerebrum

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24
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A
  • coordinating movement
  • Balance and gait
  • Monitors position in space AND adjustments
  • Also can influence speech
  • Smooth muscle movement
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25
Q

What does the brainstem consist of?

A
  • Pons
  • medulla oblongata
  • midbrain
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26
Q

what are the functions of the brain stem?

A
  • breathing, coughing, sneezing
  • Cardiac regulation, vasodilation
  • Connection between brain and spinal cord
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27
Q

What does the diencephalon in the forebrain contain?

A
  • epithalamus which forms the roof of the diencephalon and contains the pineal gland
  • The thalamus
  • Pituatary
  • The hypothalamus
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28
Q

What is the bridge of white matter between left of the forebrain called?

A

The corpus callosum

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29
Q

what is the function of the corpus callosum?

A

To share infor between both sides of cerebrum

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30
Q

What makes brain so powerful?

A
  • Connections between neurones achieves function
  • White matter composed mainly of Axons
  • Connections between regions of brain
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31
Q

what are he different connections between the regions of the brain?

A
  • corpus callosum
  • internal capsule
  • peduncles of the cerebellum
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32
Q

what is the purpose of the internal capsule?

A

To connec cerebral hemispheres with brain stems

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33
Q

What is the function of the peduncles of the cerebellum?

A

connects cerebellum with pons and medulla

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34
Q

What is the deep nucle in the cerebrum?

A

Organised cluster of neurons

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35
Q

come back to this one - slide 20

A
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36
Q

T/F the thalamus and the hypothalamus also make brain powerful?

A

True

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37
Q

What is the name of the connection between the bilobe of the thalamus and what does it give rise to?

A
  • Interthalmic adhesion
  • Gives rise to the 3rd ventricle
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38
Q

What type of info converges on the thalamus?

A

Sensory

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39
Q

Describe meinges

A

A three layered membranous sheet that covers the brain and spinal cord

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40
Q

What are the three memberous layers in meninges?

A
  • Dura mater (outermost)
  • Arachonoid mater (middle)
  • Pia mater (inner most)
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41
Q

T/F arrangment of meninges is diff between skull and vert column

A

True same layers but different attachemnts to surrounding structure

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42
Q

What is the spac called betwen pia and arachanoid mater and what does it contain?

A
  • Arachanoid space
  • Contains CSF
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43
Q

Describe Dura mater in terms of the spinal cord?

A
  • Dura is a free tube structure - it merges with periosteam at foramen
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44
Q

What is the space between teh dura and forman of vert colum called and its purpose?

A
  • Called epidural space
  • Gives spinal cord more protection
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45
Q

List the big differences between spinal cord and skull when it comes to meninges

A
  • The skull dura contributes inner periosteum of calvarium fusinf meninges to the calvarium
  • epidural space in the skull is apotentail space vs and anatomical space in the vert colmun
  • The dural folds divide in the CNS in skull
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46
Q

What is the cisternae manga?

A

An enlargement of the subarachanoid space

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47
Q

Where is the cisternae magna?

A

It is the space between the caudal surface of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the brainstem

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48
Q

Where would you take a CSF collection and how?

A

At the cisternae magna, flexion of the neck, enter at midline between occipital bone and C1

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49
Q

Describe the dural partitions at the op of crainium

A
  • Falx cerebri - logitudibal fissure between hemispheres
  • Tentorium cerebelli - transverse fissure between cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum
  • Diaphragma sellae - is around the stalk of the pituatary
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50
Q

Describe the caudal fossa of the brain

A
  • The caudal border is the rostral part of the cerebellum
  • forebrain - cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus, midbrain (part of)
  • crainal nerves - 1 and 2 (optic chaism)
  • ventricles - lateral and third ventricles
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51
Q

Descride the caudal foss of the brain

A
  • caudal border is the line between most caudal part of he foramen magnum
  • cerebellum
  • midbrain (part of)
  • medulla oblongata - magoirity of cranial nerves (3-12)
  • fourth ventricle
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52
Q

What do CT and MRI’s avoid that radiographs cant?

A

Superimposition

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53
Q

What is CT images really good for?

A

Skeleton and lungs

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54
Q

How does Ct work?

A
  • X-ray beam passes through patient and strickes detectors
  • X-ray tube and detectors rotate around patient
  • cross section image is generated
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55
Q

What is the Cv of a CT image?

A

100-200Cv

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56
Q

What two things add together to produce back projection?

A
  • Measurement of total beam attenuation along path
  • Measurement at multiple angles and computer adds them all together
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57
Q

what is tissue attenuation?

A

The amplitude and intensity of ultrasound waves decrease as they travel through tissue

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58
Q

What is tissue attenuation measured in?

A

Hounsfield units

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59
Q

What can you do to hightlight specific tisue in CT?

A

Can adjust window centre and width

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60
Q

What is MRI really good for?

A

For soft tissue - CNS

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61
Q

What is the risk with MRI?

A

No ionising radiation but strong magnet

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62
Q

Describe how MRI works

A
  • Body isplaced in a strong magnetic feild with a reciever coil
  • protons align with magnetic field
  • Then a transverse eectromagnetic pulse which gives protons energy for them to move from alignment with main feild
  • As The protons relax back to main feild there is a change in signal detected by the reciever coil
  • Image is then genereated by current going trough coil on detection
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63
Q

What are the two components of relaxation in MRI

A

T1 and T2

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64
Q

Describe T1 weighted sequence

A
  • Hypointense (dark) tissues are fluid, cortical bone and gas
  • isointense (grey) tissues are CNS, muscle and organs
    HYperintense (white) tissues are fat
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65
Q

Describe T2 weighted sequences

A
  • hypointense tissues are cortical bone and gas
  • Isointense tissues are muscle, organ and CNS
  • hyperintense tissues are fat and FLUID
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66
Q

what wil the neuro-ectoderm form?

A

The CNS

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67
Q

what is the rest of the ectoderm called?

A

Non-neural ectoderm

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68
Q

in the neural ectoderm what is the thick central part called?

A

The neural plate

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69
Q

What are the margins of the neural plate called?

A

Neural folds

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70
Q

What is the neural groove?

A

The sulcus of the neural plate

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71
Q

What does neuralation start of with?

A

Starts off with the folding process which includes the transformation of the neural plate into the neural tubule

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72
Q

Where does the notochord appear within?

A

mesoderm

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73
Q

what are the functions of the notochord?

A
  • Define the embryonic midline
  • Cellular inductor
  • Vertebral precursor
  • Signalling
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74
Q

Where does neural tube appear from?

A

The neural-ectoderm

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75
Q

Whats is the neural tube the precurser for?

A

The CNS

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76
Q

Describe the closure of the neural tube?

A

Formed from neural plate via zipping in caudal and cephalic directions from cervical region

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77
Q

What is the neural crest a precurser for?

A

For many types of cells

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78
Q

Describe how the cells from neural crest initially lie?

A

between the dorsal ectoderm and the neural tube but then will migrate to diff locations, settle and differenetaite

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79
Q

Name the three types of layers in neural tube

A
  • initial monolayer
  • germinal layer
  • marginal layer
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80
Q

Describe the initial monolayer of the neural tube

A

Initial monolayer of neuroectodermal cells that are mitotically active so the layer will thicken

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81
Q

Describe the germinal layer of the neural tube

A

Called the mantle layer which includes immature eurons and spongioblastes differentaited

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82
Q

What is a immature neuron?

A

Precurser of the neuron

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83
Q

What is a spongioblast?

A

Precurser of the neuroglia

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84
Q

Describe the marginal layer of the neural tube?

A

It is the external layer formed of growing axonal process of the neural cell bodies in the mantle layer and will go onto form white matter

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85
Q

List the steps in the development of the CNS

A
  1. Induction
  2. Proliferation in germinal layer
  3. cellular migration
  4. differentiation
  5. establish connection
  6. apoptosis
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86
Q

At the level of the cranial neuropore what is produced?

A

3 vesicles

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87
Q

What are these three vesicles called?

A
  • Prosencephalon
  • mesencephalon
  • rhombercephalon
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88
Q

Describe the development from the 3 vesicles to the 5 vesicles

A
  • The prosencephalon splits into the telecephalon and the diencephalon
  • the mesencephalon stays the same
  • the rhombercephalon splits into the metancephalon and the myelencephalon
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89
Q

Describe the function of these 5 vesicles

A
  • The telencephalon goes on to become cerebral hemisopheres and with diacephalon makes up the forebrain
  • The mesencephalon makes up the mid brain
  • The metancephalon becomes pons and cerebellum
  • myelencephalon beccomes medulla
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90
Q

T/F malformations of the CNS can occur at anytime during development

A

True

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91
Q

What is the most commen nural tube defect?

A

Incomplete closure of the neural groove to form a neural tube

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92
Q

What are the two natures of neural tube closure?

A
  • open and closed - open there is exposed neural tissue and leakage of CSF
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93
Q

What is cerebral aplasia?

A

Failure of telencephalic vesicles to develop causing absent cerbral hemispheres

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94
Q

What is the word used to decribe partial opening of the skull?

A

Crainochisis

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95
Q

What is meningocele?

A

Disturbance in seperation of surface ectoderm and neuroectoderm during final phase of neural tube formation

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96
Q

What does the disturbnace in meningocele cause?

A

Protrucion of brain and or meniges throgh opening in the skull cap

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97
Q

T/F menigocele is not always externally observed

A

TrueW

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98
Q

hat are some clinical signs of meningocele?

A
  • seizures and or behavioural abnormalties
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99
Q

What is the definition of meningomylocele?

A

Failure occuring at the vertebral column that causes protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges trjough opening in vert

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100
Q

What is the definition of spinal bifida?

A

Failure to the closure of the dorsal aspect of the vertebrae - split vert

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101
Q

If many adjacent vertebrae are in volved in splitting what is this called?

A

rachischisis which is a different process due to failure of the vert arches to develop

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102
Q

what are the clinical signs of meningomyelocele?

A
  • urinary or feaces incontinence
  • paraphimosis in males
  • paraparesis
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103
Q

what breeds do wee see meningomyelocele in and why?

A
  • genetic factors
  • french bull dog as has screwball tail and max cat as has no tail
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104
Q

What are the two types of neuronal migration disorders?

A
  • Lissencephaly
  • Polymicrogyria
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105
Q

what is the definition of lissencephaly?

A

Slow or failed neuronal migration of brain neurons resulting in a lack of development of the surface folding of the cerebrum

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106
Q

What is lissenecephaly characterized by?

A

A small, smooth-appearing cerebrum with rudimentary or absent gyri and sulci

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107
Q

What are clinical signs of lissencephaly?

A
  • cognitive dysfunction
  • abnormal behavoiur
  • seizures
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108
Q

What are the causes of lissencephaly?

A
  • suspected inherited condistion
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109
Q

what are the two types of destuctive processes that cause malformation in the CNS

A
  • Hydranencephaly
  • Porencephaly
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110
Q

What is the definition of polymicrogyria?

A

Abnormal neuronal migration of brain neurons causing excess cortical folding

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111
Q

What are the signs of polymicrogyria?

A

Blindless with or without other neuro deficits

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112
Q

what is the definition of hydrancephaly?

A

Almost complete loss of one or both cerebral hamispheres which is replaced by CSF

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113
Q

what are the signs of hydranencephaly?

A
  • seizures
  • cognitive disfunction
  • mild deficits like uni or bi lateral
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114
Q

what is the difference between porencephaly and hydranencephaly?

A

Same physiopathology but the cavity formed is smaller and the insult occurs later in the developmental stage and effects a smaller region

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115
Q

What do you clinically see with poencephaly?

A

Usually clinically normal or just seixures in adulthood

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116
Q

What is the congenital amonoramlis of CSF pathway?

A

hydrocephalus

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117
Q

What is the definition of cogenital hydrocephalus?

A

Abnormal flow or absorbtion of CSF

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118
Q

What does abnormal flow or absorbtion in the CSF cause?

A

causing the accumulation of CSF withing the cranial cavity which reduced the thickness of cerebral cortex

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119
Q

When seeing cogenital hydrocephalus what causes the excess CSF?

A

Due to absent or small size of mesencephalic aquduct, increased CSF production from choriod plexus, abnormal CSF absorbtion due to malformation/ lack of aracanoid villi

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120
Q

what are the signs of congenital hydrocephalus?

A
  • dome shaped head
  • persistant fontanelle
  • ventralateral strabismus
  • abnormal behavoiur
  • cognitive dysfunction
  • blindless
  • ataxia
  • death
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121
Q

what is the definition of cerebellar aplasia?

A

complete or almosy complete absence of cerebellare tissue

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122
Q

What is the cerebellum replaced by when aplasia takes place?

A

CSF

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123
Q

what are clinical signs of cerebellar aplasia

A

unable to stand up after birth or even to right themselves in a sternal position

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124
Q

what is the definition of cerebelllar hypoplasia?

A

Uniform absence of cerebellar tissueha

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125
Q

what are the clinical signs of cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

cerebellar ataxia from birth or shortly thereafter that do not progress

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126
Q

what cells make up nervous tissue?

A
  • neurons
  • neuroglia
  • ependymal
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127
Q

what is the function of he cell body of a neuron?

A
  • supply centre of neuron
  • contains nuclues and cytoplasmic organelles
  • nissl body has concentation of ribosomes for protein syntheisis
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128
Q

what is the function of dendrites to neuron?

A
  • processes that ramify from the cell body
  • provide large surface area for contact with other neurons
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129
Q

What is the function of an axon in a neuron?

A

A prominent dendrite that extends from the cell body

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130
Q

What does it mean if an axon is mylinated?

A

It means there is a membernaous sheath wrapped around it

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131
Q

What is an axon terminal?

A
  • point of synapse
  • contact with other neurons
  • commuincation with chemicals
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132
Q

what are the 4 morphologically different neurons?

A
  • multipolar
  • Bipolar
  • Unipolar
  • Pseudounipolar
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133
Q

where would you find multipolar neurons and describe them anatomically?

A
  • Find them throughout the brain and spinal cord
  • They have several dendrites witha single axon
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134
Q

Describe a bipolar neuron morphalogically?

A

They have one main dendrite receiving stimuli and one axon delivering impulse

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135
Q

Describe a unipolar neuron morphalogically?

A

Has short externsion from cell body, one dendrite and one axon that fuse together

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136
Q

Descrube a pseudonipolar neuron

A

Begin as bipolar and fuse with development to give the unipolar neuron

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137
Q

what is the function of afferent neurons?

A

They recieve sensoery input directly from dendrited or from adjacent cells and convey it as an impulse to the CNS

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138
Q

How does the sensory impulse go from affeerent neuron to CNS?

A

Via cranial nerves or spinal nerves

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139
Q

What is the function of efferent neurons?

A

To convey impulse from CNS to target via cranial or spinal nerves

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140
Q

Where are interneurons located and what are their functions?

A

They are found in the CNS and they are the connection between the sensory and motor neurons (afferent and efferent)

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141
Q

What is an example of a cell that has bipolar neurons?

A

Olfactory cells

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142
Q

Describe how olfactory cells work?

A
  • they detect odour via chemical receptors on bipolar neurons
  • then axons from olfactory mucosa synapse at the olfactory bulb conveying impulse to the cerebral cortex
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143
Q

GIve 4 examples of sensory neurons (unipolar)

A
  • meissners corpuscles
  • merkel
  • pacinian
  • nococeptors
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144
Q

describe what kind of receptor meissners corpuscles are?

A

They are touch receptors mass of dendrite endings

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145
Q

Describe what a kind of receptor a merkel are?

A

Touch receptor with free nerve endings

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146
Q

Describe what kind of receptor pacinians are?

A

Pressure receptors that have laminated capsule

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147
Q

Describe what kind of receptors nociceptors are

A

They are pain receptors that have free nerve endings

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148
Q

What type of neurons are purkinje and pyramidal neurons?

A

multipolar neurons

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149
Q

what gives dendrites of multipolar neurons a levels of plasticity?

A

the dendritic spine can alter shape

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150
Q

where are purkinje neurons found and what is function?

A

cerebellum + controls gait

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151
Q

where are pyramidal neurons found and what is function?

A

throughout cortex/ spinal cord + thought processing

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152
Q

what are the different types of communication you can have between neurons?

A
  • simple series circuit
  • divergent series
  • convergent series
  • reverberating
  • parallel after discharge
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153
Q

Describe simple series communication between neurons

A

A simple presynaptic stimulates a single postsynaptic

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154
Q

Describe divergent series communication between neurons

A

Single presynaptic stimulating several postsynaptic

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155
Q

Describe convergent series communication between neurons

A

Several neurons stimulating a single neuron

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156
Q

Describe reverberating communication between neurons

A

The circuit feedbacks to stimulate early points in cascade

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157
Q

Describe parallel after discharge communication between neurons

A

Where different neurons ina cascade converge on a common neuron

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158
Q

Where is grey matter in brain?

A

Outer rim of the brain and internal nuclei in brain

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159
Q

where is white matter in brain?

A

in middle

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160
Q

What makes up grey matter?

A
  • neuronal cell bodies
  • dendrites
  • astrocytes
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161
Q

what make up white matter?

A
  • myelinated axons
  • oligodendrocytes - myelinated cells in CNS
  • microglia
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162
Q

what is the difference between brain and spinal cord when it comes to grey and white matter?

A

In spinal cord the white matter is on the outside and grey forming a horn

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163
Q

what 3 layers is the PNS enclosed by?

A
  • epineurium
  • perineurium
  • endoneurium
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164
Q

if an axon is not mylenated what does not have?

A

Do not have the same protection as spinal cord or brain

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165
Q

What is neuroglia?

A

The supporting cells of the CNS

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166
Q

What are the three types of surporting cells of the CNS?

A
  • astrocytes
  • oligondendrocytes
  • microglia
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167
Q

Describe Astrocytes morphologically and functionality

A
  • star shaped
  • involoved in BBB and removal of neurotransmitters from synaptic cleft
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168
Q

Describe oligodendrocytes morphologically and functionality

A
  • found mainly in white matter
  • produce myelin around axons
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169
Q

Describe microglia morphologically and functionality

A
  • ovoid shape which changes on activation
  • they are resident immune cells that remove debris and bacteria
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170
Q

Qhat are the gaps in myelin along the axon called?

A

Node of ranvier

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171
Q

what cells myelinate axons in the PNS?

A

schwann cells

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172
Q

When do astrocytes become reactive?

A

In many neurodegenerative disorders and extended processes

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173
Q

What do astrocytes produce?

A

Produce trophic substances and can uptake glutamate and potassium

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174
Q

what can astrocytes form?

A

scar tissue to block formaion of neuronal tracts

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175
Q

what are the two barriers in the brain and spinal cord microenviroment

A
  • BBB
  • Blood - CSF barrier
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176
Q

Describe what makes up Blood-CSF barrier

A
  • choroid plexus produces CSF
  • CSF enters subaracacnoid space
  • CSF then eneters spinal canal and circulates CNS
177
Q

What is the function of the Blood-CSF barrier?

A

Gives a protective layer and acts as a boyance

178
Q

Describe the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus?

A

They are cuboidal or columnar epithelial which line the vesicles of the prain and spinal cord

179
Q

why are the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus cilated?

A

To regulate CSF movement and turnover

180
Q

Where and how is CSF absorbtion regulated?

A
  • Aracanoid villi
  • They project into the sinus through the dura matter
  • when pressure in subarachanoid space is higher than sinus csf will move into sinus
  • Higher pressure in sinus will close the tubules of the arachanoid villis
181
Q

what mediates AP to synaptic cleft?

A

neurotransmitters

182
Q

what kind of grandient can neurotransmitters cause on postsynaptic sites?

A

excitory or inhibitory

183
Q

what is the main function of myelin

A

saves energy and makes speedy transfer of info

184
Q

what does an exitory gradienr do to post synaptic membrane?

A

It depolarises it so reasting membrane potentail nearer the threshould for AP

185
Q

what does an inhibitory gradient do to post synaptic membrane?

A

It hyperpolarises it so resting membrane potentail is further away from threshold

186
Q

what does excitatory gradient induce and stimulate?

A
  • Induces excitatory postsynaptic potentail
  • stimulates influx of positive ions and an efflux of negative ions
187
Q

what does inhibitory gradient induce and stimulate?

A
  • imduces inhibitory postsynaptic potential
  • stimulates and influx of negative ion and efflux of positive ions
188
Q

what is an inontropic receptor?

A
  • Has a ligand gated ion channel, contains a ligand binding site
  • ligand binding modulates opening probability and ion flux
189
Q

what is a metabotropic receptor?

A
  • Contains a ligand binding site, couples to a G protein then have influence on ion channel
  • production of second messanger modulates ion channal
190
Q

give an example of a neurotransmitter that can be both iontropic and metabotropic?

A

Acetylcholine

191
Q

list the events at the synapse during exocytosis of NT

A
  1. Nerve impulse travels along axon to the presynaptic terminal.
  2. Impulse causes depolarisation that activates and opens calcium channels
  3. Calcium activates a series of protein events on synaptic vesicles leading to synaptic vesicles fussion with the membrane and release the NTs into synaptic cleft
  4. NTs bind to receptors on postsynaptic membrane ion channels (dendrites)
  5. Initiates post synaptic depolarisation
  6. Induces nerve impulse
192
Q

list the 3 exitatory nurotransmitters

A
  • glutamate
  • asparate
  • nitric oxide
193
Q

list the inhibitory neurotransmitters

A
  • glycine
  • GABA
  • serotonin
  • dopamine
194
Q

what are the two neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitroy

A

Acetylcholine and nor epinephrine

195
Q

what does glutamate functions as?

A

an excitatory AA

196
Q

what is glutamates function?

A

involoved in the cogition and emotion

197
Q

what does removal of glutamate from synaptic cleft involve?

A

astrocytes

198
Q

what roles does astrocytes play in removal of glutamate from synaptic cleft?

A
  • can remove gluamate by excitory amino acid transporters
  • converts most glutamate to glutamine
199
Q

after astrocytes make glutamine what happens to it?

A

It can be taken up by neurons and converted to glutamate

200
Q

Define afferent?

A

The neurons and pathways they form convey sensory stimuli to the spinal cord and ultimatly the brain

201
Q

Define efferent?

A

The neurons and pathways they form convey the motor stimulus to the muscles

202
Q

what kind of organisation does the spinal cord have?

A

segmental

203
Q

what does a spinal cord segment give rise to?

A

one pair of spinal nerve roots

204
Q

In relation to spinal nerves what is aresult of 8 cervical cord segments but only 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

Cervical spinal nerves except C1 and 8 leave the vertebrae canal cranial to vertbrae of the same number and the remaining spinal nervels leave the vert canal caudal to vert of the same number

205
Q

why does a young embryos neural tube extends the entire length of vert column?

A

Because the neural tube and vert column develop at a similar rate during their early stages of development

206
Q

What happens to the rate of growth of neural tube as embryo dvelepos more?

A

It slows down while the vert column continues so the rate of growth is no longer consistant with one another

207
Q

What is the group of dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal nerved in the lumbro-sacral vertebral canal called?

A

cauda equina

208
Q

what are the three anatomical parts of the caudal equina?

A
  • Conus medullaris - a caudal elongation of the spinal cord
  • Filum terminale - a thin cord of fibrous tissue that attaches the conus medullaris to the caudal vertebrae
  • lumbar, sacral and caudal nerev roots and nerves
209
Q

Where are the two Intumescences of the spinal cord?

A
  • cervical intumescences at the level of C5-T1 which involves spinal sements C6 - T2
  • Lumbar intumescencesl at the level of L3-L6 which in volves spinal segments L4-S3
210
Q

what are the two enlargements caused by?

A

An increasement of white matter and cell bodies that are associated with the innervation of the thoracic and pelvic limbs

211
Q

what does the cervical intumescences connect too?

A

The brachial plexus

212
Q

what does the Lumbar intumescences connect too?

A

connects to the llumbosacral plexus

213
Q

what are the three mebranes that cover CNS?

A
  • dura mater
  • arachanoid membrane
  • pia mater
214
Q

What is the external layer of meniges?

A

Dura mater

215
Q

What is the name of the space surrounding dura matter?

A

Epidural space

216
Q

where is the dura matter connected to vertebrae?

A

At the level of C1-C2 where its is adhered to periosteum of vert

217
Q

why is the arachanoid matter in close contact with the dura matter?

A

Due to the pressure of the CSF that occupies the subaracanoid space pushing it outwards

218
Q

what gives aracanoid its spider like appearance?

A

lots of fine filaments which blend with pia mater

219
Q

What does pia matter surround?

A

spinal cord and roots

220
Q

Is pia matter thick or thin CT layer?

A

thin

221
Q

what is formed from the thickening of the pia mater along the lateral margin of the spinal cord?

A

denticulate ligaments

222
Q

Where does the denticulate ligament attach too?

A

The arachanoid and dura matter laterally

223
Q

what is the function of the meniges?

A
  • physical support
  • encloses CSF circulation
  • CSF production
224
Q

what is the clinical significace of meninges diagnostically?

A
  • CSF collection
  • MRI
225
Q

what diseases can occur within meninges?

A
  • meningitis
  • neoplasia
226
Q

T/F each spinal segament has a dorsal and ventral root on each side?

A

Trueeeeeee

227
Q

what do the ventral and dorsal root unite to form?

A

spinal nerve

228
Q

Spinal nerve roots have the 3 meniges but what happens at level of spinal nerves?

A

The dura mater becomes epineurum

229
Q

At the dorsal root what axons enter and with what?

A

Afferent axons enter the cord with sensory info

230
Q

At the ventral root what axons enter and with what?

A

Efferent axons exit the spinal cord with motor info

231
Q

what is the spinal cord primarily formed by?

A
  • neurons and their axons
  • neuroglia = supporting cells of the cns
232
Q

what is the central canal filled with?

A

CSF

233
Q

How is white matter organised?

A
  • dorsal funiculus - acending sensory
  • lateral funiculus - both
  • ventral funiculus - decending motor
234
Q

what spinal nerve at brachail plexus are you testing with flexor withdrawl reflex and what spinal cord segments?

A

Varies with area stimulated but musculocutaneous, axillary, median, ulnar, radial + C6-T2

235
Q

what spinal nerve at brachial plexus are you testing with biceps reflex and what spinal cord segments?

A

musculocutanous + C6-C8

236
Q

what spinal nerve are you testing with triceps reflex at brachail plexus and what spinal cord segments?

A

Radial + C7-T1

237
Q

what spinal nerve at lumbosacral plexus are you testing with flexor withdrawl reflex and what spinal cord segments?

A

scaitic + L4-S1

238
Q

what spinal nerve at lumbosacral plexus are you testing with patellar reflex and what spinal cord segments?

A

femoral nerve + L4-L6

239
Q

what spinal nerve at lumbosacral plexus are you testing with perineal reflex and what spinal cord segments?

A

pudendal + S1-Cd5

240
Q

T/F there is constant interconnection among sensory and motor neurons?

A

Trueeee

241
Q

describe a reflex arc?

A
  • receptor collects sensory informaton
  • afferent pathway = sensory neurons whihc trnasmit the info from the recepto to the nect neuron at the CNS
  • CNS centre = process the info and elaborate an involantary rection
  • efferent pathway = motor fibers which trnasmits the reaction
  • effector = implements respones (muscles and glands)
242
Q

In terms of spinal reflexes what is the CNS region?

A

Spinal cord

243
Q

In terms of responses what is the CNS region?

A

forebrain

244
Q

In terms of cranial reflexes what is the CNS region?

A

brainstem

245
Q

are reflexes involuntary or voluntary

A

involuntary

246
Q

Describe how you would clinically examine patellar reflex?

A
  • hold patients limb so that stifle is semiflexed
  • percussion of paterllar tendon
  • the result of thsi reflex is a brisk controlled extension of stifle
247
Q

Describe how you would clinically examine Pelvic limb withdrawl reflex?

A
  • animal in lateral recombancy
  • pinch the digets with fingers to stimulate nociceptors
  • the results of this refles is flexion of hip, stifle and tarsus
248
Q

Describe how you would clinically examine perineal reflex?

A
  • pinch perineum on both sides
  • the result of this refles is a contraction of the anus and flexion of the tail
249
Q

when looking at the perineal reflex what nerves are allocated to tail and anus?

A
  • anus = pudendal
  • Tail = caudal
250
Q

Describe how you would clinically examine Thoracic limb withdrawl reflex?

A
  • lateral recumbancy
  • pinch digets with finger to stimulate nocioceptors
  • the result of this reflex is the flexion of carpus, elbow and shoulder
251
Q

Describe how you would clinically examine cutanous trunci reflex?

A
  • pinch skin over dorsum
  • the result of this reflex is the bilateral contraction of the cutanous trunci muscle
252
Q

whats the grading scale for spinal reflexes?

A

0 - absent
1 - decreased
2 - normal
3 - incresed
4 - clonus - repetitive folowing one single stimulation

253
Q

what are the 2 motor systems that all motor functions require the interactions between?

A

LMN and UMN

254
Q

how does the UMN modulate the LMN?

A

By inhibition

255
Q

What connects the CNS with the muscle to be inervated?

A

LMN

256
Q

Describe the LMN anatomically?

A
  • cell body at the ventral horn of the spinal grey matter
  • its axon leaves the CNS by the ventral nerve root to join a spinal nerve and then synapses with an effector muscle
257
Q

T/F the LMN is involved in voluntary and involuntary (reflexes) movements and basal muscle tone

A

Trueeee

258
Q

what are clinical signs when there is damage to the LMN?

A
  • affection of the voluntary movement = weakness or complete paralysis
  • affection of involuntary movement = reflexes reduced or absent
  • reduced/ absent basal muscle tone = flaccidity
  • denervation of the muscles causing atrophy
259
Q

T/F the UMN is confined to the CNS?

A

True

260
Q

Describe the UMN anatomically?

A
  • its cell body lies within the brain
  • its travels through the brain and/or spinal cords white matter and synapses indirectly with an LMN to modulate its activity
261
Q

what is UMN responsible for?

A

It is responsible for the initaition and maintenance of normal movements

262
Q

T/F UMN is involved in initiation and control (by inhibition) of voluntary
movements

A

Trueee

263
Q

What are the clinical signs when there is damage to UMN?

A
  • affection of the voluntary movement = weakness or paralysis
  • spinal reflexes are intact or increases when LMN is inhibited
  • stifness
  • atrophy appears very slow and ue to disuse
264
Q

what is hyperflexia?

A

A release/ lack of inhibition from UMNs to the LMN which may result in an increase reflex

265
Q

what is Pseudo-hyper-reflexia?

A

A reduction in action of antagonistic pair so a lock of aposing forces to the reflex

266
Q

lesions affecting spinal nerve roots or peripheral nerves are called?

A

polyradiculopathies or polyneuropathies

267
Q

what do polyradiculopathies or polyneuropathies induce?

A

LMN signs in all 4 limbs

268
Q

what is deep pain perception or nocipeption?

A

The response to a nocoius stimulus

269
Q

what does lack of nociception means?

A

deep pain

270
Q

why does hypothalamus have the richest blood supply

A

Due to it being surrounded by circulus arteriosus

271
Q

What is the cerebral arterial circle?

A

An elongated arterial rinf on the ventral surface of the brain

272
Q

What is the cerebral arterial circle formed by?

A
  • Rostral communicating arteries
  • These continue as the right and left rostral cerebral arteries
  • These continue as the right and left caudal communicating arteries
  • circle is then closed bu the basilar artery
273
Q

what are the 5 pairs of arteries supplying the brain?

A

Rostral cerebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

Caudal cerebral artery

Rostral cerebellar artery

Caudal cerebellar artery

274
Q

what arteries arise form the cerebral arterial circle?

A

Rostral cerebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

Caudal cerebral artery

Rostral cerebellar artery

275
Q

what artery arises from the basilar artery?

A

caudal cerebellar artery?

276
Q

specifically where does the rostral and middle cerebral artery arise from in cerebral arterial circle?

A

internal carotid artery

277
Q

specifically where does the caudal cerebral artery arise from in cerebral arterial circle?

A

The caudal communication artery

278
Q

specifically where does the rostral cerebellar artery arise from in cerebral arterial circle?

A

The caudal communicating artery

279
Q

what are the 4 incoming branches to the cerebral arterial circle?

A
  • internal carotid artery
  • basilar artery
  • maxillary artery
  • vertebral artery
280
Q

In dogs and horses where is most of the blood supply to brain and arterial circle come from?

A

Internal artery

281
Q

In dogs and horses what artery supplies the remianing parts of cortex, medulla and cerabellum?

A

vertebral artery

282
Q

T/F In cats and sheep there is no blood coming in from internal carotid artery?

A

True as it is obliterated after a few weeks to month after birth

283
Q

Due to channel 1 being absent what is the main supply to cat and sheep brains?

A

Maxillary artery

284
Q

only a small bit of the caudal medulla is supplied by what artery in cat and sheep?

A

vertebral artery

285
Q

Describe the blood flow to brain in cows?

A
  • main blood supply is maxillary as internal carotid obliterated
  • other supply coming from vertebral artery and the segmental spinal arteries
286
Q

If you compress the axillary artery in cats you will cut off supply to what and what can this cause?

A

supply to brain and can cause blindness

287
Q

Describe the ritual slaughter of sheep?

A

Loss od consciousness withing 2-15secs after both carotid arteries are cut

288
Q

How long in sheep after the carotid arteries are cut is the corneal reflex lost?

A

3s

289
Q

Describe the ritual slaughter in cattle

A

Time to loose coniousness is more variable than in sheep - a cow will go quicker if calm and a rapid cutting stroke is used

290
Q

How long does the corneal reflex remain in cow after cut?

A

15-90s

291
Q

From the aorta what segmental arteries arise and what part of the spinal cord dpo they supply?

A
  • lumbar arteries supplying the lumbar region
  • intercostral ateries supplying thoracic region
  • vertebral arteries that are arsie from subclavian artery to supply the cervical spine
292
Q

From the segmental spinal arteries what two arteries arise?

A

dorsal and ventral root arteries

293
Q

From the dorsal and ventral root arteries what arises further up?

A

The irregular arterial ring which wraps arounf the spinal cord

294
Q

What is this arterial composed of?

A
  • two dorsolateral spinal arteries
  • a single ventral artery
295
Q

What are the thre vascular zones of the spinal cord and what supplies them?

A
  • inner - supplied by ventral arteries only
  • middle - supplied by both vertical and radial arteries
  • outer - supplied by the radial arteries
296
Q

Where specificaly withing these zones does the vertical artery supply?

A

Supplies most of the grey matter and reach periphrally into the white matter

297
Q

Where specificaly withing these zones does the radial artery supply?

A

Supplies the white matter and out region of the grey matter

298
Q

What is Fibrocartilaginous embolism?

A

A accute (sudden) onsey of paraparesis ot tetraparesis which is non-painful and regressive

299
Q

what is Fibrocartilaginous embolism secondary too?

A

Embolism of spinal cord artery with the intervertebral disc material causing infarction of the rgeion of the sponal cord supplied by that artery

300
Q

Describe the veins of the CNS?

A

-They lack tunica media and tunica adventitia
- Lack valves too

301
Q

Describe the dorsal system of sunuses that aid with venous dranage of the brain

A
  • dosal agital sinus
  • straight sinus
  • transverse sirus
302
Q

Describe the ventral system of sunuses that aid with venous dranage of the brain

A
  • cavernous sinus
  • dorsl petrosl sinus
  • ventral petrosal sinus
303
Q

what sinus is in the connecting system of the sinuses?

A

sigmoid sinus

304
Q

Where does the dorsal sagital sinus line and where does it drain by what?

A
  • Lines the falx cerebri
  • Drains dorsal regions of the fore brain via the dorsal cerebral veins
305
Q

Where does the straight sinus line and where does it drain by what?

A
  • lines the caudal part of the falx cerebri
  • drains dorsal regions of the forebrain via draining the great cerebral veins
306
Q

T/F the trnasverse sinus is a paired

A

True

307
Q

When the left and right transeverse sinus join at midleine what does this form?

A

confluence of the sinuses

308
Q

What happens at the confluence of the sinuses?

A

They recieve dorsal sagital sinus and continue laterally and then here divides into temporal and sigmoid sinuses

309
Q

what does the cavernous sinus surround?

A

Hypophysis

310
Q

Describe where cavernous sinus drains from?

A

From the petrosal sinus which then drains into the ventral region of the brain

311
Q

Describe the difference in drianage between ventral and dorsal petrosal sinus

A
  • dorsal drains the vebtral region of the brians
  • ventral connects cavernous sinus to the sigmoid sinus
312
Q

T/F the sigmoid sinuas has an S shape

A

TRueeeeee

313
Q

Describe what happens at the sigmoid sinus?

A
  • It recieves dorsal system from transverse sinus and ventral system drom the pertrosal sinuses
  • Connects directly with the spinal system and draisn into the maxillary vein into the systemic circulation
314
Q

Describe the venous draniage of teh spinal cord?

A

ventral spinal vein - vertebral venous sinus - spinal veins
- vertebral veins, azygos ceins, caudal vena cava - systemic circulation

315
Q

Describe from what segments of spinal cord drains into the vertebral veins, azygos ceins, caudal vena cava

A
  • V- C1- T4
  • A - T4-L3
  • C - L4-L7
316
Q

Where does the CSF originate?

A

From capillaries throughout the CNS

317
Q

Where is the major production of CSF?

A

the choroid plexus of lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricle

318
Q

What are the main function of the CSF?

A
  • Physical support (buoyancy)
  • Protection against trauma
  • Modulates pressure changes within the skull
  • Nutrition (transport of metabolites, nutrients and neurotransmitters)
  • Chemical buffer (maintains ionic balance)
319
Q

What is Hydrocephalus?

A
  • congenital abnormality related to dilation of the ventricular system and abnormal CSF
  • frequently with secondary formation of the syrinx (fluid filled cyst) inside spinal cord
320
Q

What are the three function of neurons in NS?

A
  • sensory input
  • integration
  • motor output
321
Q

Define sensation

A

A physical feeling or perception for something that happens to or comes into contact with body

322
Q

What is the function of spinal nerve?

A

A nerve that carries signal between the spinal cord and the body

323
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve?

A

A nerve that carries signal between the forebrain or brainstem and mainly the head and neck

324
Q

Describe the location of exteroreceptors and what are they sensitive to?

A

Near the surface of the body and sensitive to chnage in external enviro

325
Q

what are proprioceptors sesnitive too?

A

To movement of muscle, tendons and joints

326
Q

Where are interoreceptors located and what are they sensitive too?

A

They are located within the viscera and are sensitive to change in internal enviro

327
Q

T/F The sensory portion of the PNS can be classified based on the location of the dendritic zone in the body

A

true

328
Q

Where is the dendritic zone of somatic afferent compared to visceral afferent pathway in PNS?

A

Somatic is on or near the surface of the body whereas in visceral dentritic zone is in the wall of the varous vicera of the body

329
Q

What can the somatic afferent fibers be subdivided into?

A
  • Genral somatic afferent GSA
  • Special somatic afferent SSA
330
Q

What is the GSA for and what nerves are involed?

A
  • Touch, temp, proprioception and noxious stimulus
  • Cranial nerve 5 fro the head and spinal nerves for the rest of the body
331
Q

What is the SSA and what nerves are involoved?

A
  • For vision cranial nerve 2 and for sound nerve 8 for sound
332
Q

what can visceral afferent fibers be subdivided into?

A
  • Genral visceral afferent GVA
  • Special visceral afferent SVA
333
Q

What is the GSA and what nerves are assocatied?

A
  • Organ content, distention, chemicals
  • Cranial nerves 7,9 and 10 to viscerail structures in heas
  • cranial nerve 10 and spinal nerves to the viscera and blood vessels of the rest of the body
334
Q

what is the SVA and what are the nerves assocaited with it?

A
  • For taste craial nerves 7, 9 and 10
  • For olfaction cranial nerve 1
335
Q

What are the 4 sensory spinal tracts?

A
  • Fasciculus gracilis
  • Fasciculus cuneatus
  • Dorsal and ventral spinocerebellar tracts
  • Spinothalamic tracts
336
Q

In the fascuculus gracillis tract what infomation is passed and from where?

A
  • proprioceptive information from the pelvic limbs
    ( rember this as the gracilis muscle in thigh region so hindlimb)
337
Q

In the fascuculus cuneatus tract what infomation is passed and from where?

A
  • proprioceptive information from thoracic limb
    ( remember this is as cuneatus meaning wedge shaped like shoulder)
338
Q

In the Dorsala nd ventral spinocerebellar tract what infomation is passed and from where?

A
  • Information to cerebellum for cooridination
339
Q

In the Spinothalamic tract what infomation is passed?

A
  • Information to thalamus about pain, itch, touch and temp
340
Q

Define motor function

A

Movement involving a muscular component

341
Q

What is the LMN?

A

Neurons located in either the ventral horn of the spinal cord or the cranial nerve nuclei of the braistem with motor function

342
Q

What is the UMN?

A

Motor neuros that origintae in the motor regeion of the cerebral cortex or the brain stem and carry motor information down to the LMN

343
Q

T/F The motor portion of the PNS can be classified based on the location of the axon terminals in the body

A

True

344
Q

what is the motor portion of the PNS split into?

A
  • Genral somatic efferent GSE
  • Genral Visceral efferent GVE
345
Q

What is the difference of where axon termonals are loacted in the GSE compared to GVE?

A

In the GSE the axon terminals are in straited muscle throughout the body and in the GVE axon terminals in involuntaru smooth muscle of viscera

346
Q

what cranial nerves are involoved in the GSE and what supplies the rest of the body?

A
  • All cranial neres apart from 1, 2 and 8
  • Vnetral roots and spinal nerves for the rest of the body
347
Q

what cranial nerves are involoved in the GvE and what supplies the rest of the body?

A
  • cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10, and 11
  • spinal nerves for the rest of the body
348
Q

What are the 5 motor spinal tracts?

A
  • corticospinal tracts
  • rubrospinal tracts
  • reticulospinal tracts
  • vestibulospinal tracts
  • tectospinal tracts
349
Q

What information does the corticospinal tracts contain?

A

Motor information straight from the cerebral cortex

350
Q

What information does the rubrospinal tracts contain?

A

Motor information from the red nuclues in the brainstem

351
Q

What information does the retriculospinal tracts contain?

A

Motor information from teh reticular formation in the brainstem

352
Q

What information does the vestibulospinal tracts contain?

A

Motor information from the vestibular nuclei in the brainstem

353
Q

What information does the tectospinal tracts contain?

A

Motor information from the tectal region in the brainstem

354
Q

How are we going to assess proprioception?

A
  • proprioception placing (knucking response)
  • Hopping reaction
  • Hemi walking
  • wheelbarrowing
  • externsor postural thrusting
  • hip sway
  • visual and tactile placing
355
Q

how are we going to assess motot function?

A
  • gait analysis
  • muscle tone and muscle bulk
  • patellar reflex
  • withdrawl (flexor) reflex
356
Q

what is the difference in muscle ton in UMN and LMN?

A

In a UMN lesion muscle tone should be normal or increased whereas in LMN it will be decreased

357
Q

what is the difference in spinal reflex in UMN and LMN?

A

In a UMN lesion the spinal reflexes will be normal or exaggerated where as in LMN they will be dreacresed or absent

358
Q

what is the difference in muscle atrophy in UMN and LMN?

A

In a UMN lesion there will be little to late mcucle atrophy and in a LMN lesion mucle atrophy would be early and severe

359
Q

how do we grade spinal reflexes?

A
  1. Normal
  2. Pain (no neurological deficits)
  3. Ambulatory paresis
  4. Non-ambulatory paresis
  5. Plegia
  6. Plegia with absent deep pain sensation
360
Q

T/F the vermis in the cerebellum has hemispheres oneach side of it?

A

True

361
Q

what is the function of the cerebellar peduncles?

A

Axon that connects cerebellum to the brain stem

362
Q

describe the 3 layers of the grey matter (cerebellar cortex)? (***** insert photo here)

A
  • Molecular cell layer
  • purkinje cell layer
  • granule cell layer
363
Q

what can be seen in the purkinje cell layer?

A

It is a thin layer that has large neurons

364
Q

What cells do mossy fibers trnasfer excitory input too?

A

Golgi cells in the granular cell layer

365
Q

T/F Mossy fibers are less complexed than climbing fibers?

A

True

366
Q

where do climbing fibers synapse?

A

Purkinje cell layer

367
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum?

A

To smooth and coordinate motor function for posture and movement

368
Q

T/F the cerebellar acts as primary initaitor of motor activity?

A

False - acts as a regulator of motor activity

369
Q

What doe the cerebellar afferents convey?

A
  • proprioceptive info from limbs, body and head
  • Info relevent to the planning and execution of motor activity
370
Q

where do effernet fibers from the cerebellar cortex come from?

A

From the Purjinje cells

371
Q

Are the effent fibers from the purkinje cells inhibitory?

A

yes

372
Q

where do most of the efferent fibers from the cerebeller cortex synapse?

A

in the deep cerebeller nuclei

373
Q

What bypasses the deep cerebellar nuclie and synapses directly into the vestibular nuclei?

A

The vestibulocerebellum

374
Q

T/f the deep cerebellar nuclei neurons are all excitory to nuclei of pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems?

A

True or silent but never inhibitory

375
Q

Describe the efferent and afferent pathways at the rostral cerebellar peduncle?

A
  • The afferent is from the ventral spino- cerebellar
  • The efferent is to the thalamus and the midbrain
376
Q

Describe the efferent and afferent pathways at the middle cerebellar peduncle?

A
  • The afferent is from Cortico-ponto-cerebellar pathway
  • There is NO efferent
377
Q

Describe the efferent and afferent pathways at the caudal cerebellar peduncle?

A
  • The afferent is from the dorsal spino-cerebellar, parts of brain stem (reticular formation, olicary nucleus), cuneo-cerebellar and vestibular nuclei
378
Q

T/F most info comes in via caudal and middle peduncles and most our through rostral peduncle?

A

True

379
Q

what are the 3 functional subdivision of the cerebellum?

A
  • Vestibulocerebellum
  • spinocerebellum
  • cerebrocerebellum
380
Q

T/F the cerebellum plays a role in the menace response?

A

True

381
Q

when you have neurolalisation of the cerebellum, what would you see on neuro examination?

mentation
gait
crainail nerves
proprioception
spinal reflexes

A

mentation - normal
gait - hypermetria , intention tremors, wide based stance
crainail nerves - bilateral absent menence response
proprioception - hypometric hopping otherwise norm
spinal reflexes, muscle mass and tone - normal and no pain on spinal palpation

382
Q

when you have neurolalisation of the right cerebellum, what would you see on neuro examination?

mentation
gait
crainail nerves
proprioception
spinal reflexes

A

mentation - normal
gait - ataxia, unable to walk
crainail nerves - absent menence response on the right and head tilt to the left
proprioception - reduce on the right thoracic and pelvic limb
spinal reflexes - normal and no pain on spinal palpation

383
Q

what are the three main function of the brainstem?

A
  • Conduction
  • cranial nerve functions as nerves 3-12 emerge from here lol
  • integrative functions as involved in cardio, resp control, alertness, awareness and consciousness
384
Q

where is the cardiovascular centre found in brainstem?

A

medulla oblongata

385
Q

what is the cardio control role at brainstem?

A
  • regulation of heart rate
  • change of blood ph and CO2
  • chnage in blood pressure
386
Q

How does the cardio centre in brainstem act when detects changes?

A

Acts by sendignnerve impulse to pacemaker via autonomic fibers

387
Q

Where are the resp centres found in the brainstem?

A

Medulla oblongata and pons

388
Q

What is controlled here at the rsp centre in brainstem?

A

Controls the rate and depth of resp movements

389
Q

Describe the Cheyne-stokes resp pattern

A

volume starts shallow and gets deeper then gest shalow again followed by no resp before another one

390
Q

Describe the Biots resp pattern

A

clusters of rapid resp of nearly equal depth solloed by regular no resp (apnea)

391
Q

Describe the Apneustic resp pattern

A

Long breath in and long breath out so not UDUDUD liek UUUUUpauseDDDD UUUUUpause DDDD

392
Q

Describe the Ataxia resp pattern

A

completely irregular - fucked like me for all exams LOL

393
Q

what is the acending reticular activating system responisble for?

A

Awak state, level of conscoiusness and sleep

394
Q

How us the ARAS formed?

A

collection of neuronal cell bodies that form a ill-defined meshwork in the central core of the brainstem

395
Q

How do you grade mental status?

A
  • occasional periods of alertness and responsive to enviro
  • depression or delierium, reponds but response may be inappropriate
  • semicomatose, responsive to visual stimuli
  • semicomitose, response to auditory stimuli
  • stupor, response only to noxoius stimuli
  • coma, unresponsive even to noxious stimuli
396
Q

when you have neurolalisation of the left brainstem, what would you see on neuro examination?

mentation
gait
crainail nerves
proprioception
spinal reflexes

A

mentation - obtunded
gait - ataxia, unable to walk
crainail nerves - head tilt to the left, positional abnormal alingment of left eye, vertical nystagmus, reduce facial senstaion on the left side and toungue hypotonia ( low tone)
proprioception - deficets on the left thoracic and pelvic limb
spinal reflexes - normal and no pain on spine palpation

397
Q

A + B - C - D

Describe what would happen to D is A is stimulated

A

If A is stimulated it would stimulate B. B inhibits C so D would actually be stimulated as C is not inibiting it

398
Q

What effect do excitatory neurotrasmitters have on RMP?

A

Raises RMP so depolarises and increases firing probability

398
Q

What effect do inhibitory neurotrasmitters have on RMP?

A

Lowers RMP so hyperpolarise, decreasing firing probability

399
Q

T/F there is some overlap between senses and stimuli?

A

True - pain with temp, wyw with pressure applied

400
Q

What does the stimulus intensity relate too?

A

The increase in depolarisation

401
Q

What do sensory feilds cover?

A

a defined area like skin

402
Q

Overlap of these sensory felids do what?

A
  • can assist with location of the stimuli
  • recognistion of the pattern of stimuli
403
Q

Describe the organation of feild response good for sensitivity

A

Primary afferents merge on a single seconday afferent

404
Q

Describe the organation of feild response good for localistaion

A

Primaru afferent assocaited with severay secondary afferents

405
Q

What does lateral inhibition aid with?

A

sharpening stimuli signal so can imporve localistaion and pattern recognistion

406
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

A map of animal to show areas of skin all connected to same dorsal root

407
Q

What is kinthesia?

A

Awareneass of position and movement of all body parts

408
Q

Where would you find freen nerve endings mainly?

A

in hairy skin

409
Q

where would encapsulated recepto terminals found?

A

hairless skin

410
Q

what kind of receptors mostly have encapsulater terminals?

A

mechanoreceptors

411
Q

what are the fibre endings like in thermal receptors?

A

Free nerve endings and non-ecapsulated

412
Q

Why does tehre need to be two sensors to differentaite temp?

A

Same impulse frequency at 15 and 40 degrees

413
Q

T/F at extreme temps pain receptors will be stimulates?

A

Truee

414
Q

what happens to the response if there is continous stimulation?

A

Response declines over time

415
Q

What does sensory adaptions prevent?

A

Information overload

416
Q

what are the 2 exception of sensory adaption?

A
  • pain does not adapt
  • some postural senses do no adapt
417
Q

What is the most commen cause of adaption in pacinian corpuscle?

A

Due to an inactivation of ion channals

418
Q

Describe the pacinian corpuscle adaption?

A

force mediated through pressure starts to be fluid redistribution to ease pressure and give adaption

419
Q

T/F there are 4 types of sensory afferent fibers?

A

Trueee

420
Q

Where can the sensory inputs be mapped too in cortex?

A

regions called homunculus

421
Q

what are the two sytems in the centrally-projecting tracts?

A
  • media leminiscal systems
  • extalemniscal is a ventro-lateral system
422
Q

compare the dorsal colums and vetrolateral sytesms

A
  • dorsal columns are new systems connecting to recent areas of the brain wherease ventrolateral systems are old systems like pain
  • doesal columns are accurate and precise whereas ventrolateral system is diffuse and less precise
  • dosal columns are fast wheras ventrolateral system are slow
423
Q

what are the two types of muscle receptors?

A
  • muscle spindles
  • golgi tendon organs
424
Q

Descibe the two receptors in oraientation with muscle fibers?

A
  • Muscle spindles are in parallel with muscle fibers
  • golgi tendon organs are in series with muscle fibers
425
Q

what are irdinary muscle fibers called and what innervates them?

A
  • extrasfusal fibers
  • innervated by alpha motor neurons
426
Q

what are muscle spindle fibers called and what innervates them?

A
  • intrafusal fibers
  • gamma motor neurons
427
Q

why is it important not to have adaptions in the muscle spindle?

A

As they are important for postural reflexesw

428
Q

What are the sensory fibers involved in muscle spindle?

A
  • Type Ia fibers
  • Type II fibers
429
Q

T/F type Ia fibers are non adaptive and type II are adaptive

A

False - other way

430
Q

what effect does activation og the gamma neurons have on muscle spindle?

A

Contracts the muscle which leads to stretch of the intrafusal fibers and firing of sensory afferent

431
Q

During the stretch reflex what does the muscle stretching induce?

A

Stretch spindle which activates sensory afferent and activated aplah motor neuron

432
Q

What type of fibre does golgi tendon organ gives rise too?

A

type 1b sensory fibre

433
Q

what does the golgi tendon orgna innervate?

A

CNS

434
Q

What effect does the golgi tendon organ have on muscle?

A

It induces relaxion of the muscle and prevents damage too it

435
Q

T/F both the golgi tendon and the muscle spindle project in the same way to the CNS?

A

true

436
Q

where does the GTO and the muscle spindle enter and synapse?

A

Enter at T1-L3 and synapse at clarkes column nuclei

437
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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