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BVMS 2 > Module 8 Wk 2 > Flashcards

Module 8 Wk 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 functional divisions of the ANS?

A

The parasympathetic and sympathetic

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2
Q

What is the other anatomical word for the parasympathetic system?

A

craniosacral system

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3
Q

what is the other anatomical name for the sympathetic system?

A

thoracolumbar system

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4
Q

What is the function of the parasympathetic division?

A

Day to day control of viscera

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5
Q

what is the function of the sympathetic division?

A

Active when the animal is stressed

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6
Q

In relation to the para and sympatheric systems what in organs is determined?

A

Organ function determined by the balance of input from each system

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7
Q

What are the two anatomical divisions of the ANS?

A

The CNS and the PNS

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8
Q

where are the main control centres of CNS located?

A

Hypothalamus and the midbrain

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9
Q

Can cerebral cortex command the control centeres?

A

No - They can influence
eg emotional status causing blushing

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10
Q

Where do the CNS decending fibers go?

A

Brainstem and spinal cord

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11
Q

In the PNS where is the outflow of the parasympathertic and sympatheric innervation?

A

The para outflow is via brain stem and sacral cord
The sympathetic outfloe is via thoracolumbar cord

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12
Q

What is the main difference in the two fibres (parasym and sym) in the PNS?

A

In the parasympathetic fibers the ganglia is closer to the organ they are innervating whereas in the sympathetic the ganglia is further away from the organ with a longer post-synaptic fibre

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13
Q

Where are the 3 different location of the neural cell body and for what kind of cell body?

A
  • Dorsal horn for sensory cell bodies
  • ventral horn for motor striated muscle
  • Intermediate/lateral horm for motorneuron cell bodies of ANS in thoracolumbar and sacral cord
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14
Q

How do the parasymapthetic fibres innervate all viscera?

A
  • Cranial nerves from brain
  • Segmental spinal nerves from sacral spinal cord
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15
Q

What cranial nerves are in volved in parasympatheic fibers innervating the viscera?

A
  • To the head via 3, 7 and 9
  • To the cervical, thoracic and abdominal viscera via cranial nerve 10
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16
Q

What do the sacral spinal nerves innervate?

A

The pelvic viscera

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17
Q

How do sympathetic fibers innervate all viscera?

A

Thoracolumbar outflow from CNS

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18
Q

What sympathetic fibers innervates the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavity and the head?

A

Thoracic - sympathetic chain of nerves and paravertebral ganglia
Abdominal and pelvic - fusion of fibers to form prevertebral ganglia
Head - supplied by spinal nerves from C8-T7 via vagosympathetic trunk

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19
Q

What carries presynaptic sympathetic fibers to the sympathetic trunk in spinal segments T1-L2?

A

The white rami communicans

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20
Q

What carries post-synaptic sympathetic fibers from the sympathetic trunk to all spinal nerves?

A

The grey rami communicantes

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21
Q

Where do the preganglionic fibers of the sypathetic supply to the head synapse?

A

The cranial cervical ganglion

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22
Q

What are the two routes for the post-synaptic fibers of the sympathetic supply to the head and neck?

A
  • Some follow arteries in the head region
  • Some follow cranial nerves 9 to 12, vagal nerve branges to the laranx and pharynx
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23
Q

What is the function of the post-synaptic fibers of sympathetic supply?

A

To innervate smooth muscle

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24
Q

what happens to the vagus and sympathetic trunk at the chest enterence?

A

Near the middle cervical ganglion at the first rib the vagus and sympathetic trunk split

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25
Q

Why do the vagus and sympathetic trunk split?

A

To pass around the subclavian artery forming the Asna subclavia

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26
Q

T/F the lumbar region of the sympathetic trunk supply pre and post synaptic fibers to the abdominal and pelvic regions?

A

True

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27
Q

The parasympatetic supply to the body otherwise known as the craniosacral system whats a cranial and sacral orignin, describe these?

A

Cranial origin is nerves 3,7,9 and 10 and the sacral orignin is S1-3 spinal cord segments

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28
Q

What is the oculomotor nerve (CN 3) ganglion?

A

Ciliary ganglion

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29
Q

What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

A
  • Targets ciliary muscles regulating lens curvature
  • Targets muscles of the iris to allow pupil constriction
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30
Q

what arterygopalatinee the two ganglions related to the facial nerve?

A

Pterygopalatine, sublingual and madicbular

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31
Q

What is the target organ from the Pterygopalatine?

A

Lacrimal, nasal and palatine glands for secretion and vasdilation

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32
Q

What is the target organ for the sublingual and mandibular ganglion?

A

Sublingual and mandibular glands for secretion and vasodilation

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33
Q

What does the glossopharyngeal nerve aid with?

A

Swallowing function

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34
Q

What is the target organ of the ganglion assocaited with the vagus nerve?

A

Parasympathetic supply to neck, thorax and abdomen and majority of body viscera

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35
Q

What are some of the responses of the vagus nerve innervating these target organs?

A
  • heart rate
  • peristalsis
  • sweating
  • larynx opening
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36
Q

Describe how vagus nerve travels?

A
  • Comes out of brain stem
  • Runs down the neck in the vagosympathetic trunk
  • back up to larynx
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37
Q

What arises from the vagus at the middle cervical ganglion and what do they do next?

A
  • recurrent laryngeal nerves arise
  • Run back up the neck
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38
Q

what do the recurrent laryngeal nerves supply?

A

The trachea and the cervica oesophagus

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39
Q

what happends ro the right and left vagus just after root of the lung (oesophagus)?

A

They split into dorsal and ventral branches

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40
Q

Describe the parasympathertic supply to the pelvic viscera?

A
  • presynaptic fibre axons travel in pelvic nerves
  • synapse at terminal ganglia
  • postsynaptic fibres distribute to the pelvic viscera, lower intestinal cavity and reprodutive organs
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41
Q

describe how the symapthetic innervates the eye?

A
  • The first order newuron comes from brain through brainsetem down spinal cord and exits at the T1-T3 segments
  • Enters into vagosympathetic trunk as second order neuron
  • Synapses in cranial cervical gnaglion medial to tympanic bulla
  • continues as the third order neuron to the eye
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42
Q

What at the level of the eye does the sympathetic supply?

A

The smooth muscle of the orbit and the iris dilators

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43
Q

What is it called when there is loss of sympathetic input to the head?

A

Horners syndrome

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44
Q

what are clinical sign of horners syndrome?

A
  • pupillary constriction (miosis)
  • prolapse of third eyelid (cherry eye)
  • narrowing of the palpebral fissure
  • Enophthalmos - which is your eye sinking deeper into socket
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45
Q

What are examples of underyling diseases of horners syndrome?

A
  • disc herniation (neck)
  • middle ear infection (otitis
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46
Q

Describe how the parasympathetic innervated the eye?

A
  • Retina recieves light and gives info to optic nerve
  • Next location is the optic chiasm where there is some cross over
  • From the optic chaism there is teh optic tract that leads to the pretectal nucleus
  • From the pretectal nucleus to the cranial nerve 3 parasympathetic nucleus
  • From here infor travels up to ciliary ganglion which they innervates from here the eye
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47
Q

what is a dysfunction of the oculomotor nerve?

A

pupil dilation not responsive to light

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48
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

One eye smaller than other

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49
Q

If the left eye constricts when shine a light in the eye and right eye is also constricted is it para or symp?

A

Sympathetic as it cause dilation

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50
Q

Describe what can be see with a brain herniation?

A
  • often see miosis initially
  • midbrain swelling causing compression of cranial nerve 3 and a non functioning parasympathetic nucleus of cranial nerve 3 causing mydriasis
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51
Q

Describe the sympathetic innervation of the urinary tract?

A

Storing of urine via the hypogastric nerve which comes out about L1-4 in dogs and L2-5 in cats causeing detruser relaxion to allow filling and contration of the smooth muscle at the neck of the bladder to hold it in

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52
Q

Describe the parasympathetic innervation of the urinary tract?

A

For voiding urine via the the pelvic nerve that comes out about S1-3 and contract detruster muscle to allow release

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53
Q

Describe the somatic innervation of the urinary tract?

A

Via the pudendal nerve coming out about S1-3, it contracts the straiated sphincter muscle for urinary retention

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54
Q

What else does the somatic innervate?

A

The anal sphinter which controls the perineal reflex

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55
Q

what are the 3 branches of ethics and define them?

A
  • personal ethics - right and wrong we decide for ourself
  • society ethics - wide agreement forming laws
  • professional ethics - special situations like medical ethics
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56
Q

Describe the opinion that animals have no moral standing

A

This view arises from the contract of mortality so liek ad people we can stand up and be heard and animals cant be a part of the agreement they dont have any rights or moral standing

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57
Q

Describe the opinion that animals have instrumental value?

A

This means that we have indirect duties towards them meaning that their value arises through their value to human

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58
Q

Describee the opinion that animals have intrinsic value?

A

Means we have direct dutues towards them meaning they ahve the capiabliity to feel and it would be unacceptable to hurt dog as the dog will suffer anf thsi matters in itself

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59
Q

T/F others are obligated to respcet interests that flow from animals feelings?

A

True

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60
Q

what is the definition of sentience?

A

The capacity to feel such as sensation or emotions

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61
Q

what would an animal need to do to be self conscoius?

A

Need to be able to think about itself and its own emotions and sensation rather than simply experiencing them

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62
Q

what are the 2 statagies for defending the view that animals are sentient?

A

Inferential and non-infrential

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63
Q

Define Inferntial

A

Inference from behaviour and neuro similarity and evolutionary continuity - problem is that you gte further away from humans with animal behavoiurs so hard to argue

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64
Q

Define the non-inerential argument

A

Knowledge of animal consciousness derives directly from our interactions with animals as conscious beings - also becomes more weak as we move away from mammals

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65
Q

what are the two stratagies for defending the view that animals are not sentient?

A
  • behavioural comparisons
  • higher order definition of consciousness
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66
Q

Describe the behavioural comparisons argument for non sceintent?

A

This is where they belive anaimals behaviour is automatic so not learned however there is lots of evidence if a very complexed learning capability

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67
Q

Describe the argument of higher order definition of consciousness argument for non sentient

A

This is where they believe phenomenal consciousness requires the capacity to think about ones own thoughts - prblem with this is that this level on concsciousness has not been proved to be needed for scientience

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68
Q

describe a mouse interms of sentuence and moral standing

A
  • pest = no moral standing
  • lab animal = instrumental value
  • pet = intrinsic value
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69
Q

From a conteactaianisms point of view why should we act morally?

A

Its in your self intrest - like showing consideration is for your own sake

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70
Q

What do contractarains think about animals?

A

Due to the contactarain view being based off of agreement they do now believe animals neither create nor ahve moral duties because they cant agree

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71
Q

So as a contractarian any form of animal use is acceptable?

A

Yes

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72
Q

When would use of animals be ethincally desirable in a contractarians eyes?

A

If it benifits humans

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73
Q

Why might a contractarian have an indirect eithical obligation towards animals?

A

Due to them mattering to humans

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74
Q

What is an utilitarianism viw on any being suffering?

A

That there is no moral justification for refusing to take that suffering into consideration

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75
Q

How do utilitarians view animals?

A

Like humans they deserve moral consideration - in deciding what to do we must consider welfare consequences for animals as well as benifits to humans and animals (COST BENIFIT)

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76
Q

what do utilitarians think about killing animals (like for food)?

A

Justified if the farming conditions are not detrimental to animal welfae and the killing is humanely performed

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77
Q

What is the problems with the utilitarianism view?

A
  • How so we weight the intrests for wach party? how do we know the strengths of the intest for animals
  • cant really compare killing a human and an animals due to the questions like - why kill and innocent human if its going to be replaced by another living a better life - we think this about dogs and pets all time but most would not agree this can apply to humans
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78
Q

How does the animals right view percieve animals being used?

A

They believe it is unacceptable to treat a sentient being as a means to achieve a goal - no benifit can justify the violation of the right of the animal

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79
Q

what are the 3 types of increasing stregth of animal rights?

A
  • The moral-status sense where the animals have at least some moral status and dont exist soley for humn use so they should be treated well for their own sake
  • The equal-consideration sense where we must give equal moral weight to human and animal interest
  • The utility-trumping sense where like humand animals ahve certain vital interests that we must not over ride
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80
Q

What are problems with the animal right view?

A
  • we cannot protect prey without at the same time neg effecting predtors
  • cant combine respect for rats and amice whilst also protecting human health
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81
Q

What are the 3 components of pain?

A
  1. sensory-discriminative component that refers to the capacity to analyse loaction, intensity and duration of the nocieptive stimulus
  2. A motivational and affective component that gives rise to the unpleaseant charater of pain perception and modifies behavoiur
  3. A cognitive and evaluative component involved in the phenomena of anticipation, attention, suggestion and past experiences.
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82
Q

what are the factors of the criteria of paIn?

A

Suitably complex nervous system
Protective motor reactions
Trade offs between stimulus avoidance and other motivational requirements
Having opioid receptors
Reduction of responses by local anaesthetics and analgesics
High cognitive abilities
Showing avoidance learning

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83
Q

What evolution can make it even more harder to identify pain in animals?

A

Some have evolved to hide responses to pain

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84
Q

What behaviors may we see in response to acute pain?

A
  • escape and avoidence
  • volalistaion
  • defensive behaviours
  • direct attention towrads site of their pain
  • might look normal but if you chnage hoe you are observing/ palpating you will see chnage
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85
Q

what behavioural respones might you see in chronic pain?

A
  • protective or gaurding behaviours
  • posture may be chnaged
  • depression and learned helplessness
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86
Q

Decribe the physiological response to noxious stimulation

A

Results in stress responses - allow an animal to allocate bodily resources

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87
Q

Decribe the physiological response to activation of sympatho-adrenal catecholamine release

A

Changes in blood pressure, increased heart rate, changes in respiration, changes in muscle tone, defecation and urination

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88
Q

Decribe the physiological response to activation of hypothalamo-pituatary-adrenocortical axis

A

There is a glucocorticoid release

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89
Q

Why is there a problem with visual injury being a sign of pain?

A
  • Injury can occur without pain
  • Pain can occur without injury
  • internal damage may be missed by human observation
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90
Q

Where else apart from relieveing pain are analgesics and anaesthetics used?

A

For pain assessment - like nerve blocks in horses

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91
Q

What are the problems with analgesic treatment?

A
  • important that substances that prevent the animla from expressing pain rather than relieveing pain are not mistaken for analgesics
  • analgesic drugs may have behavioural effects unreleated to pain and nociception
  • drugs can also have nast side effects which is not good welfare practice
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92
Q

what methods of pain assesment are most likley to give the most accurate results?

A

Ones that combine objective and subjective elements

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93
Q

What are the two parts of the external ear?

A
  • The Pinna which is the projection outside the skull
  • External acoustic meatus (ear canal) connecting pinna to typanic membrane
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94
Q

Describe the shape of the pinna

A

Funnel shaped - wide distally to receive sound and narrows to connection with external acoustic meatus

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95
Q

What is the movility of the pinna?

A

It can oreintate towards sounds

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96
Q

What determines the pinna shape?

A

The articular cartilage which has different stiffeness so different shaped produced

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97
Q

what anchors pinna to skill so stays in place?

A

annular catilidge

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98
Q

where does skin and vessels adherev on external ear?

A
  • skin adheres more firmly to concave surface (inner)
  • vessels run on convex (outer) surface
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99
Q

where do the vessels which run on convex surface branch from?

A

caudal auricular artery

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100
Q

where does the external ear canal run from and too?

A

Runs from closure of auricular cartilidge to ear drum

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101
Q

What glands secrete wax?

A

sebaceous and tubular ceruminous glands

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102
Q

Describe the shape of the external ear canal?

A

curve ventrally then angle rostromedially

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103
Q

Is it true that sometimes you have to sedate to examine external canal with an otoscope?

A

Yes in cat and dog

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104
Q

Where is the middle ear found?

A

Within the tympanic cavity (bulla)

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105
Q

what is the tympanic bulla filled with?

A

gas

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106
Q

Descibe how the tympanic cavity is divided in the cat

A
  • dorsal = epitympanic recess
  • ventral - tympanic bulla
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107
Q

How does the tympanic membrane divide in ear?

A

Divides external acoustic meatus from the middle ear

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108
Q

where does the medial surface of the tympanic membrane attach?

A

To ossicles

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109
Q

What does the tympanic membrane attach to on temporal bone?

A

They tympanic ring of temporal bone

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110
Q

Laterally to medially name the aufitory ossicles

A
  • Malleuse
  • incus
  • stapes
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111
Q

where does the handle of malleus attach too?

A

Eardrum

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112
Q

Is there an articulations at the level of the auditory ossicles?

A

Yes called malleus-incus-stapes

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113
Q

T/F the base of stapes inserts into vestibular window?

A

True

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114
Q

What are the two muscles that tense eardrim and ossicle chain?

A
  • Tensor tympani
  • Stepedius
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115
Q

what does sound cause to the middle ear?

A
  • Vibration of the tympanic membrane
  • Motion transmitted through ossiicle chain
  • This causes vibration in the inner ear fluid at vestibular window
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116
Q

What connects tympanic cavity to nasopharynx?

A

The auditory tube

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117
Q

Describe the pathway of the auditory tube?

A
  • openings in lateral wall of nasopharanx
  • runs in cartilage trough
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118
Q

T/F is the auditory tube normall open?

A

False - usually collapsed

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119
Q

What does the opening of the auditory tube allow?

A

Equalisation of pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane and drainage of material ferom tympanic cavity

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120
Q

At the inner ear level what happens to sound?

A

Transformation of the sound into nerve impulses to be interperated by brain

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121
Q

What is the inner completely inclosed by?

A

Petrous temporal bone - osseous labyrinth

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122
Q

T/F there is a system of me,branous ducts and cavities in the inner ear?

A

True

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123
Q

What are the central cavities of the inner ear?

A
  • utriculus
  • sacculus
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124
Q

What are the ducts of the inner ear?

A
  • 3 semicircular ducts from utriculus
  • Spiral cochlear duct from sacculus
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125
Q

What ducts in inner ear are for balance?

A

The 3 semicircular ones from utriculus

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126
Q

what ducts in the inner ear are for hearing?

A

The spiral cochlear one from the sacculus

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127
Q

What stimulates sensory hair on receptor cells in wall of mebranous labyrinth?

A

Movement of endolymph

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128
Q

Within the utriculus and sacculus there are further receptors, name them and decribe their function?

A

Maculae - they have little crystals adhere to sensory hairs that determine position of the head relative to gravity triggering a response from said hairs

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129
Q

What angle are semicircular canals at?

A

Orientated at right angles

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130
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

“flicking” movement of eyes in response to movement of fluid in semicircular canals

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131
Q

What are the 3 parts of the osseous labryinth?

A
  • central chamber
  • semicircular canals
  • cochlea
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132
Q

Describe the structure of the cochlea?

A
  • It has spiral shape
  • central osseous pyramid with canal running around and projecting spiral lamina
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133
Q

What three channals does the membrane from spiral lamina divide into?

A
  • scala vestibuli
  • cochlear duct
  • scala tympani
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134
Q

Describe hearing at the inner ear

A
  • vibration at vestibular window and cochlear window
  • transmtted through perilymphatic space
  • cause vibrations at basement membrane and movement of sensory cilia
  • regestered by NT
  • transmitted to vestibulocochlea nerve (8)
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135
Q

Name the 3 nerves that supply to ear?

A
  • vestibulocochlear nerve
  • facail nerve
  • mandibular nerve
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136
Q

What does the ebstibulocochlear nerve divide into?

A
  • Vestibular - balance
  • Cochlear - hearing
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137
Q

Describe vascular supply to the external ear

A
  • arterial supply from external carotid via caudal auricular
  • venous drainage to maxillary vein
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138
Q

Describe the vascular supply to the middle and inner ear

A
  • arterial supplu from occipital artery
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139
Q

What is an aural heamatoma?

A

Heamatoma in pinna under skin

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140
Q

Describe the 3 ways to image the ear?

A
  • otoscope
  • radiograph
  • advanced imaginf - CT + MRI
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141
Q

If an animal dosent have a full orbit like a dog what is it called and what supports this?

A

Incomplete orbit and ligaments connect the two bits

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142
Q

T/F blindness can only come from the brain?

A

Flase - can be an obstruction to one of the structures of the eye which will restrict light getting in to form image

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143
Q

Name the three layers/Tunics of the eye from outer most to inner most

A
  • fiberous tunic
  • Vascular tunic
  • neural tunic
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144
Q

What is the functions of the fiberous tunic?

A
  • gives shape to eyeball
  • protection to structures of the eye
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145
Q

What are the components and dunction of the vascular tunic?

A
  • Blood vessels
  • smooth muscle
  • nutreint supply
  • Control lens and pupil shape and size
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146
Q

What is the function of the neural tunic?

A
  • Translation of visual signal into nerve impulses and transmission to brain - so light into ap
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147
Q

What are the two parts of the fiberous tunic?

A
  • cornea and sclera
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148
Q

where do the cornea and sclera meet?

A

limbus

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149
Q

What can cause odema in cornea?

A
  • build up of intersitual fluid in the CT of cornea and blocks vision
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150
Q

What is the main oart of the cornea?

A

Substania propria

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151
Q

what is substania propria inbetween?

A

The anteroir and prosteria lining epithelium

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152
Q

What is the anterior epithelium and what is it in continuation with?

A
  • bowmans layer in continuation with conjunctival epithelium
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153
Q

What is the prosterior epithelium and what is it in continuation with?

A

The basement membrane in continuation with anteroir surface of iris

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154
Q

What is the sclera an entry point for?

A

for nerves and vessels

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155
Q

What attaches to the sclera?

A

Ocular muscles anteroir to the equator

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156
Q

What is the name of the thin membrane covering the cslera and what is its function?

A
  • vagina bulbi
  • Seperates eyeball from retrobulbar fat allowing eyeball free movement in socket
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157
Q

What does the vascular tunic consist of?

A
  • Choroid
  • Ciliary Body
  • Iris
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158
Q

What are the functions of the vascular tunic?

A
  • Vascular supply
  • lens suspension
  • control shape of lens and pupil
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159
Q

Where does the iris attach too?

A

Peripheral attachment to sclera and ciliary body

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160
Q

What is the central opening called in the iris?

A

Pupillllll

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161
Q

What controls the pupil size?

A

The smooth sphincter (parasympatetic) and Radial dilator (sympathetic) muscles

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162
Q

What does the iris divide?

A

Anteroir and prosterior chmabers of the eye

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163
Q

What are the Iridic Granules?

A

Projections from dorsal border across pupil seen in horses and ruminants

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164
Q

What is the ciliary body?

A

Thickened ridged ring around lens

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165
Q

What does the ciliary body produce?

A

Produces and drains of aqueous humour

166
Q

What are the functions of the ciliary body?

A
  • anchors lens
  • chnages size of lens through contraction/ dilation of the cilary muscles
167
Q

What is the structure in choroid that increases night vision?

A

Taptum lucidum

168
Q

How does the tapetum lucidum?

A

Sends light back through retina passing through again allowing it to be picked up more

169
Q

What are the cell types from outside to inside in the nervous tunic of the eye?

A
  • retinal pigmant epithelium
  • photoreceptor cells (rods BW and night, cones colour and day)
  • bipolar ganglion cells
  • multipolar ganglion cells
170
Q

What is the most inner tunic of the eye?

A

The retina

171
Q

Where does the retina line?

A

chroroid from optic nerve to pupillary margin

172
Q

Where can light reach in retina?

A

prosterior 2/3 as contains receptor cells

173
Q

What is the Ora serrata?

A

The junction between optic and blind parts

174
Q

What enters at the optic disc?

A

The optic nerve

175
Q

What is the macula?

A

Greater density of receptor cells

176
Q

T/F lens is transparent?

A

Trueee

177
Q

Where does aqueous humor enter and exit?

A

Enters at anterior chamber via pupil and exits via iridocorneal angle

178
Q

If there is failure to drain aquous humour what happens?

A

Glaucoma - damage to the optic nerve

179
Q

What is the function of the viterous body?

A

To maintain contact between retina and choriod

180
Q

T/F viterous body volume fluctuates?

A

Flase - constant

181
Q

What is the function of eye adnexa?

A

To protect and move eye

182
Q

What is included in the eye adnexa?

A

Orbit
Orbital Fasciae – 3 conical layers
Ocular Muscles
Eyelids
Conjunctiva
Lacrimal Apparatus

183
Q

What are the 4 rectus muscles?

A

Dorsal, Ventral, Medial, Lateral

184
Q

What are the 2 oblique muscles of the eye and where do they run through?

A
  • Run through trochlea
  • Dorsal and ventral
185
Q

Where do the upper and lower eyelids meet?

A

Comasures

186
Q

What is teh functions of eyelids?

A

Close to eclude light and blink away foreign bodies

187
Q

Describe the innervation of the eyelids

A

Motor - CN 7 and 3
sensory - CN 5

188
Q

what is conjunctiva?

A

A thin membrane layer that protects the eye

189
Q

what is the name of the conjunctiva that lines eyelids?

A

Palpebral

190
Q

what is the conjunctiva that refelcts over sclera?

A

Bulbar

191
Q

Where can forgein bodies be trapped in conjunctiva?

A

The space between lids and eyeball called the conjunctival sac

192
Q

T/F the thirs eye can fully cover eyeball?

A

True when fully retracted into orbit

193
Q

what gland of the third eyelid collapses causing cherry eye?

A

Nictitans glands

194
Q

What are the glands of the lacrimal apparatus?

A
  • lacrimal
  • Nictitans gland
195
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal apparatus?

A

Tear production

196
Q

Where do tear film drain?

A

Via punvta lacrimalia feeding ino lacrimal sac and sca drains into nasolacrimal duct then into nasal cavity

197
Q

What is the main supply to the eye and adnexa?

A

External ophthalmic artery and drainage mainly satillite to arteries

198
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms the hypothalamus uses to regulate the endocrine system?

A
  1. ANS centers exert nervous control on adrenal medulla
  2. Vasopressin/Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and Oxytocin production (released from the pituitary gland)
  3. Regulatory hormone production (RH and IH) controls pituitary gland directly and all other endocrine glands indirectly
199
Q

What are the inhibitory neurohormones produced in the hypothalamus?

A
  • GnRH
  • Corticotropin relaesing hormone
  • Thyrotropin releasing hormones
  • Prolactin inhibiting factor and releasing factor
  • Growth hormone releasing hormones and somatostatin
200
Q

What are the activatory neurohormones produced in the hypothalamus?

A
  • Oxytocin
  • Antidiuretic hormone
201
Q

What is the function of oxytocin and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • milk let down, luteolysis and sexual function
  • magnocellular neuron of the paraventricular nucleaus
202
Q

What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • Water balance
  • magnocellular neuron of the Supraoptic nucleaus
203
Q

What is the function of GnRH and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • reproductive function
  • rostral hypothalamus in preoptic area
204
Q

What is the function of CRH and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • stress
  • parvocellular neurons of the paraventriculat nucleus
205
Q

What is the function of TRH and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • Metabolism
  • parvocellular neuron of the paracentricular nucleus
206
Q

What is the function of Prolactin inhib factor and releasing and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • lacttaion
  • acruate nucleus
207
Q

What is the function of GHRH and where in hypothalmaus is it produced?

A
  • growth, metabolism and lactation
  • arcuate nucleus
208
Q

Describe the gross structure of the piuatary gland

A
  • sits within hypophysial fossa of the cranial floor
  • Completely covered in dura
  • venous channals either side linking the ophthalmic plexus rostrally and external jugular anf ventral venous plexus caudally
  • lateral to cavernous sinus are cranial nerves that spply the eye
209
Q

What are the two parts of the pitautary gland and how wrae they formed?

A
  • Pars nervosa (prosterior) - down growth of nervous tissue from hypothalamus
  • Pars distalis (anterior) - upgrowth of epithelium of the roof of the oral cavity
210
Q

What is a portal system?

A

Two capillary beds linked in series

211
Q

What are portal veins?

A

Blood vesseks that link two capillary networks

212
Q

What happens to hormones found in the hypophyseal portal system?

A

Capillaries transport them to pitaury

213
Q

T/F we can measure the level of hormones at the level of the pituarty

A

Trueeeee

214
Q

What is the pituatory gland suspened by from the hypothalamus?

A

narrow fragile stalk infundibulum

215
Q

What does the anteroir pituatory produce?

A

Trophic and direct action hormones which direct and regulate other hormones around the body

216
Q

What is the anteroir pituatory regulated by?

A

HYpothalamus vua a unique system of portal veins

217
Q

What is the main cell type you see in anterior pituitary?

A

Secretory cells - chromopils and chromophores

218
Q

What does the prosterior pitautary release?

A

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone into circulation

219
Q

Where are the hormones produced in the prosteroir pituatory?

A

In the magnocellular neurons

220
Q

What are the hormones of the prosterior pituatory released in response too?

A

Nervous impulses from other brain areas

221
Q

what kind of axons does the prosteroir pituatory have?

A

Non myelinated axons

222
Q

What are herring bodies?

A

Dilations of nerve fibers filled by small vesicles containing the neurosecretory products of the hypothalamic cells

223
Q

What is seen histologically at the pars intermedia?

A
  • basophilic cells
  • Irregular clumps
  • cells contain secretory granules
224
Q

What is the pineal gland?

A

Small, dark, pigmented outgrowth from prosteroir roof of the 3rd ventricle

225
Q

What is the most abundant thing you see when looking at the pineal gland histologically?

A

Pinealocytes

226
Q

What other cell types do you see?

A

astrocytes

227
Q

What is pineal sand?

A

Mineral deposits seen with age

228
Q

what does maturation of the hypothalamo-pituatary axis lead to?

A

puberty

229
Q

what kind of feedback is seen at the hypothalamo-pituatory-thhyroid axis?

A

Classic negative

230
Q

What is there excess of when there is hyperthyroidism?

A

T3 and T4

231
Q

What is the function of the anteroir assocaiation cortex?

A

Personality

232
Q

If there is damage to the visual cortex what is the outcome?

A

Dizziness

233
Q

What are the main things the libic system is in control of?

A

Emotion, learning and memory

234
Q

What is the hippocampus responsible for?

A

Spatial memory and the transfer of some types of info for long term memories

235
Q

what kind of memories is the hippocampus involoved in?

A

Explicit

236
Q

Describe what would happen if you removed medial temporal regions like hippocampus?

A

Result sin anterograde amnesioa , unable to recall anything that happended since surgery and working memory was intact

237
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

It is a collection of nucleiW

238
Q

what is the role of the amygdala?

A

A role in affective behaviors and other species typical behavoiur

239
Q

Where does sensory information go after coming through thalamus?

A

To amygdala and tries to make sense of it

240
Q

Describe amgdala neurons?

A

multimodal and respons to more than one sensory modality

241
Q

In cats what will lesions of the amygdala result in?

A

Undisturbed by thigs that would usually destress them

242
Q

What is the Fornix?

A

It is a bundle of fibres along the medial aspect of the hemispheres that has inter-connections with the hippocampi on both sides of the hemispheres

243
Q

What is the function of the fornix?

A

Primarly connects the hippocampus to mammillary body of the hypothalamus
Other fibers connect directly to the anteroir nucleus of the thalamus

244
Q

How is the fornix been related to cognitive dysfunctions like dementia?

A

When there is demylation of fibre bundles of the fornix

245
Q

What is the mammillary body?

A

It is Intricately connected with the hippocampal formation, fornix, amygdala and midbrain

246
Q

What is the primary function of the mammillary body?

A

Associated with recollective memory but also involved with emotion and goal-dirceted behavoiurs (contributes but also comes from elsewhere)

247
Q

What can cause significant damage to the mammillary body?

A

Trauma, stroke, tumours and alcoholism

248
Q

What is the speptum involved in?

A

Emotional behavoiurs, sexual behavior, agressive behaviour, modulation of the autonomic functions, attention and memory functions

249
Q

Where does the septum recieve input from and where does it project too?

A
  • Receives from Hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus and midbrain
  • Projects to the hippocampus and denate gyrus, the thalamus and severall hypothalamic nuclei
250
Q

What do septal regions induce?

A

Rage - exaggerated reacrions to both appropriate and innnocuos stimuli

251
Q

What is the cingulate cortex?

A

Neural interface between emotion, sensation and action

252
Q

What does the cinguate cortex connect with?

A

The limbic thalamic nuclei and with other limbic areas including the subiculum and entohinal cortex

253
Q

What is the cingulate cortex involved in?

A

Planned motor movements

254
Q

What doe lesions to the cingulate cortex cause?

A

Lesions here result in indifference to pain and other sensations that have strong emotional connotations like socail infidderence and apathy, no emeotional intonation in speech and personality chnages

255
Q

What kind of lesion woul result in diminished ability to perform spatial navigation?

A

Lesions to the posterior cingulate cortex

256
Q

How many nuclei does the basal ganglia have?

A

It has 4 nuclia that are involved in volubtary movement - caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus and substantia nigra

257
Q

They do not have direct input or output with the spinal cord so what happens instead?

A

Input from the cortex instead and outputs to the midbrain, thalamus prohects to the frontal, premotor and motor cortices

258
Q

Describe the neural basis of parkinsons disease?

A

There is a loss of the dopamine in parkinsons disease leading too increase in output from the basal ganglia

The overreactivity of the indirected pathway results in hypokinetic disorderssss

so basically the more output the more involuntary respose

259
Q

describe motor control?

A

4 brain regions project down in spinal cord
muscle action causes info back into thalamus for feedback

260
Q

If there is a lesion at the higher centers of moto control what is the result?

A

There is a loss of integrated function and there is abnormal responses

261
Q

Describe the hierarchy of motor control

A
  • sensory info comes in/ beinf processed at higher centres
  • these higher centres regulate lower centres
  • sensory input to limbic system (motivation, goal)
  • then this goes to basal ganglia ( movment initaition)
  • then to cerebellum ( coordination of the movement)
  • then to motor cortex (rifining that movement
  • then spinal cord for actual movement
262
Q

As spinal cord expects this input from higher centers if it si cut what happens?

A

Spinal shock

263
Q

Where do pyramidal tracts that are the motor neurons originate and terminate?

A
  • frontal cortex
  • spinal cord or brain stem
264
Q

Where are extrapyramidal tracts located and involved in?

A

Located in the pons and medulla of the midbrain and involved in involuntary movements

265
Q

What is pyramidal tract syndrome characterised by?

A

Spasticity and paralysis

266
Q

Whats is extrapyramidal tract syndrome characterised by?

A

Involuntary movements, muscular rigidity and immobility without paralysis

267
Q

What is the corticospinal tract required for?

A

Fine, skilled movements

268
Q

where do the cortocospinal tracts fibers terminate?

A

On inter-neurons in the spinal cord

269
Q

What tracts do the extrapyramidal tracts go onto be?

A
  • Reticulospinal tract
  • Vestibulospinal tract
  • Rubrospinal tract
  • Tectospinal tract
270
Q

What is the function of the reticulospinal tract?

A

Basic posture and initaition of locomotion

271
Q

What is the function og th vestibulospinal tract?

A

Postural acting

272
Q

What is the function og the rubrospinal tract?

A

Acts mainly on flexors and postural

273
Q

What is the main function of the tectospinal tract?

A

Acts on cervical vert and orientates head

274
Q

What are the effects of lesions in the decending tracts?

A
  • IN spinal cord it results in complete paralysis
275
Q

T/F snout gives rise to the size of binocular vision

A

True

276
Q

Describe Cat vs Horse binocular vision?

A
  • Cat has smaller snout so has bigger binocular vision also aided by eyes being more to the front of the head
  • Horse has smaller binocular vision and larger monocular vision as eyes on side of the head and big snout meaning there is also overlap of vision
277
Q

What is the role of the lacrimal gland?

A

They secrete saline tear. This fluid cleans and lubes the front of the eye during blinking. It also prevents cornea from drying out and frost injury during cold weather.

278
Q

What does the lacrimal fluid contain to protect against infections?

A

Lysozyme and immunoglobulin A

279
Q

What are the 2 axis of the eye and their functions?

A
  • Optical axis gives most optically clear image
  • Visual axis to fovea gives best colur vision
280
Q

What happens to light when it passes from across the cornea, lens and viterous humor?

A

It bends

281
Q

When going through the lens of the eye what happens to the light?

A

The light info is refrected and focused at a focal point

282
Q

what determines the distance from the focal point behind the lens?

A

The distance to the image

283
Q

How do we maintai the image at the back of the retina?

A

Achieved through ciliary bodies that contract and relax muscles

284
Q

What is seen when there is relaxion of ciliary bodies?

A

Expansion of the lens where it narrows leading too an enchanced image detection

285
Q

What is seen when there is contraction of the ciliary bodies?

A

The muscles relax which decreases wlongation of the lens leading to the ability to adjust visual detection

286
Q

Why must horses move their heads to see things near and far?

A

As they dont have the ability to adjust ciliary muscles

287
Q

It objects are close to horse how will the horse move its head?

A

Raise its head

288
Q

It objects are distant to horse how will the horse move its head?

A

Head depressed

289
Q

What does retinal detachments mean?

A

LOss of blood supply to retina and rods/cones will start to die unless re-attachment is quick

290
Q

Describe what happens to light at the retina?

A
  • pass through anumber of different cells
  • BInd to photoreceptor (rods and cones)
  • light info back to the front of the eye via bipolar cells and retinal ganglion cells
291
Q

What is the type of photoreceptor cell that retinal ganglion cells express and its function?

A

Melanospins and they are critical for the integration of ligh informations used for biological rhythms

292
Q

In rods what happens once light is detected?

A

It is detected at the outer segment, info then travels down inner segment through nucleus to synaptic endings where neurotransmitters are being released

293
Q

What is rhodopsin involved in?

A
  • Involved in light detection and irradiance
  • It had retinol and when lught is beinf detected there is a shape chnage in protein making it a tri isomer
294
Q

What happens when light hits rhodopsin?

A
  • Isomerisation of retinal
  • Activation of alpha subunit of transducin
  • Activation of phosphodiesterase (PDE)
  • Decreases cGMP levels and closes ion channels
  • Tbis all hyperpolarises the receptor cell
295
Q

In retina what is the blind spot of photoreceptors?

A

It is whre all the axons of different ganglion cells are converging to form optic nerve

296
Q

What are rods and cones more senstive?

A
  • Rods are much more sensitive to light (irradiance)
  • Cones provide much more detailed info like colour
297
Q

What happens when light is provided to the centre of recptive feild?

A

You will have a higher activity to stimulus and the outer bit has inhibition of ap

298
Q

What does the pulpillary reflex indicate?

A

A functional state of the affernet and efferent that control the pupil - allows you to identify damage to visual pathway

299
Q

How do you know from pupillary reflex if optic nerve is intact?

A

If light into left eye elicits a consensual constriction in the right eye we can be sure the optic nerev is intact as its info is being convey to reposnse

300
Q

What does the dazzle reflex test?

A

Cranial nervels 2, 7 and part of midbrain

301
Q

What does an absence in response to dazzle reflex indicate?

A

Blindness

302
Q

Describe the neural circuit from retina to lateral geniculate nucleus

A

Light - retina - down optic nerve - projects into lateral geniculate nucleus in thalamus

303
Q

What are parvocellular cells?

A

They are small and integrate signals from cones and are neccessory for colour to form

304
Q

What are magnocellular cells?

A

They are large, integrate signals from rods, involved in movement, depth and irradiance

305
Q

From the LGN what cells project into the primary visual cortex at the back of the brain and what are their function?

A

Simple - responds to stimulus with correct orientation
Complex - respond to moving stimulus of correct oreintation
Hyper-complex - shows end stopping and responds to objects of a particular size

306
Q

What does happens to these LGN cells in the primary visual cortex?

A

They are integrated and then try to form visual perception

307
Q

In absence of light what do you get with LGN cells?

A

None other than basement membrane

308
Q

What LGN cells have an on off response?

A

Simple and complex

309
Q

Decribe the neural circuit for vision?

A

LGN - V1 - can go dorsally to partietal lobe and have a higher level of visual perception or can go ventrally to temporal lobe

310
Q

what does the dorsal stream from V1 to V5 elicit?

A

Guides moevemnts such as the hand postures for grasping a mug or pen

311
Q

What happens if there is damage to the ventral stream?

A

Prevents identification of objects

312
Q

What happens if there is damage to the dorsal stream?

A

Results in optic ataxia

313
Q

what are the 4 pathways that arise from the optic tract?

A
  • LGN = visual cortex = visual feild
  • Rostral collliculi = dazzle relfex = blink
  • pretectum, pons = pupillarilary light relex
  • suprachiasmatic nucleus = hypothalamic pineal gland = control of movement systems
314
Q

Whys is dogs colour vision restricted?

A

Due to the number of cones in retina

315
Q

What is colour vision represented by in the cortex?

A

Blobs

316
Q

What are the two measures in which a pure tone is described?

A
  • Amplitude or intensity as sound pressue
  • Frequency or number of cycles per second of vibration
317
Q

What is amplitude measured in and what is it percieved as?

A
  • decibels
  • percieved as loudness
318
Q

What is frequency measured in and what is it percieved as?

A
  • Hertz
  • Percieved as pitch
319
Q

T/F most animals can chnage orientation of ears to maximise sound

A

True

320
Q

What muscles allow pinna to move?

A

Auricularis muscles

321
Q

What is the function of ossicles?

A

They connect the typmainc membrane to the inner ear via oval window

322
Q

What effect does sound have on tympanic membrane?

A

sounds moves membrane and That moves ossicles which amplify pressue communicated to inner ear

323
Q

What are the two muscles that act to improve perception and sound protection?

A
  • tensor tympani
  • stapedius
324
Q

How do tensor tympani and stapedius percept and project?

A

Contract and stop bones from moving when loud sounds are made and when your talking so you dont hear yourself

325
Q

What are the three parallel fluid flilled cavities of the cochlea?

A
  • vestibulo
  • media
  • tympani
326
Q

What causes the fluid within the cavities of the cochlea to move?

A

The staples vibrations against the oval window

327
Q

Whats is the round window?

A

A moveable membrane that is required to accomodate pressure that arises when the oval window is pushed

328
Q

What Is the structure responsible for converting the vibrations produced by the ossicles into nural activity?

A

Organ of corti

329
Q

What are the three componebts of the organ of corti?

A
  • The sensory cells (hair cells)
  • The auditory fibers that mak up the vestibulocochlear nerve
  • other supporting cells
330
Q

T/F there are inner and outer hair cells in organ of corti?

A

True

331
Q

What do the hair cells of the organ of corti transmit?

A
  • Transmit the perturbation in the basilar membrane
  • Transmit this info to the vestibulocochlear nerve
332
Q

Describe the differences between the inner and the outer hair cells?

A

Inner
- assocaited with many auditory nerves
- invoved in sound perception

outer
- associated with few auditoru nerves
- Not primarily involved in sound detection but instead they fine tune by changing tension in basilar membrane

333
Q

Describe what inner ear hair cell movement causes?

A
  • fluid moves so the hair cells move
  • when hair cells move it causes rapid chnages in ion channels
  • respond with graded potentials
334
Q

How can the auditory nerve respond to specific frequency?

A

It has cells that selectively respond to specif freqencies

335
Q

Describe how the auditory pathways link the brain stem to brain

A
  • The superior olivary nucleus is the first stage - when inputs from both R and L cochear nuclei are integrated
  • The inferior colliculus is the primary auditory center in the midbrain which sends outputs to the medial geniculate nuclei in the thalamus
  • The MGN then projects to the auditory cortex
336
Q

What do females display more of in activity patter?

A

Display greater activation in the right proterior temporal lobe

337
Q

What does intensity differences result from?

A

The differences in loudness that reaches the ears

338
Q

What sounds are more susceptible to intensisty differences?

A

HIgher frequency sounds

339
Q

What does latency differences result from?

A

The difference in the arrival times of the sound waves

340
Q

What is onset disparity?

A

Difference in two ears

341
Q

What is ongoing phase disparity?

A

Continouos mismatch of all frequency peaks

342
Q

What causes the onset of disparity and ongping phase disparity?

A

One ear aleays beinf a little closer to the sound than the other

343
Q

What are the two divisions of the superior olivary nucleus?

A
  • Lateral superior olive processes intensity differences
  • Medial superior olive processes latency differenes but encodes sound by relative activity (l and r)
344
Q

What are common causes of conduction deafness in the external ear and middle ear?

A

E - cerumen and otitis externa
M - fluid accumulation in the eustachain tube

345
Q

Where does densorineural deafness originate from?

A

Cochlear or auditory nerve lesions

346
Q

What is central deafness and hearing loss caused by?

A

Brain lesions

347
Q

two types of central deafness?

A

word and cortical

348
Q

Define word deafness

A

Unable to recognise spoken words, speech production and simple sound discrimination are still functional

349
Q

Define cortical deafness?

A
  • Difficulty in recognising audiitory stimuli
  • rare bilateral damage to the auditory cortex
350
Q

what is the function of the vomeronalsal organ?

A

Detection of olfactory info

351
Q

Describe the structure of the olfactory epithelium

A
  • bowmans glands secrete mucous that lines epithelium
  • odorants receptors on the cilia
  • basal stem cells instead of receptor cells
352
Q

Describe the detection and intracellular activation of odorants

A
  • receptors detect odour
  • opens up Na and K channals
  • Ions come in and bind
  • This results in a graded response
353
Q

At the olfactory bulb decribe the cells and receptors

A

There are large numbers of receptors and small number of mitral cells

354
Q

What happens at the olfactory bulb?

A

It is the primary process in which physiological response becomes neurological responses and representaion of odours start to occur

355
Q

What does olfaction detect?

A
  • Prey
  • Predators
  • Poisons
  • Mates
356
Q

why do dogs have better sense of smell?

A
  • They have larger olfactory epithelium so more receptors
  • Twice as many active receptor porteins
  • olfactory bulb is much larger
  • vomeronasal organ show low functionality in humans
357
Q

what are the two types of taste receptors?

A
  • small uncharges particles or ions for salty or sour
  • molecules bind to receptors for sweet and bitter
358
Q

what is vision?

A

It is the consciuos perception of infro from the eyes

359
Q

What is the visual system?

A

The part of the CNS which gives organisms the ability to process information that is conatined in visible light

360
Q

what 4 things can we use to asses vision?

A
  • observation of animal in unfamiliar enviroment
  • ability to track
  • visual placing
  • menence response
361
Q

summerise the visual pathway

A

Retina - optic nerve - optic chiasm - optic tract - lateral geniculate nucleus gets information - optic radiation is the axon that connects LGN and optical cortex

362
Q

What is the optic chaism?

A

Where there is a cross over of information

363
Q

Define visual feild

A

The total area in which objects can be seen in the peripheral vision as you focus your eyes on a central point

364
Q

what is the difference between predtor and preys visual fields?

A

Prey have a smaller visual fleild seen by both eyes compared to predator

365
Q

Why is the PLR a reflex?

A

There is no cortical involvement

366
Q

Describe how the Pupillary light relex works?

A
  • Its starts at the retina when there is a flash of light
  • Info goes to optic nerve (CN 2)
  • Then it goes via iptic chiasm where there is some cross over
  • Then onto the optic tract
  • Does not go to cortex from here rather the pretectal nucleus in the brain stem
  • Then efferent pathway via the parasympathetic nucleus of cranial nerve 3
  • This creates bilateral pupil constriction
367
Q

Describe how the menence response works?

A
  • The beginning is the same as pupillary relfex pathway until at the level of the optic tract info goes to LGN
  • From LGN it goes to the optic cortex then to motor cortex
  • This activates the pontine nucleus
  • Cerebellum is then involved to make everyting smooth
  • Then goes to the facial nerve nuclei which closes eyelid
368
Q

What can distrupt the results of the menenece response?

A

If you make too much air as it will cause them to blink becuase of that and not hand

369
Q

What is the type of blindness without apparent lesion of the eyes and involves processing system?

A

Central cortical blindness

370
Q

Where are the lesions in Central blindness?

A
  • LGN
  • Optic radiation
  • Occipiral cortex
371
Q

What can be seen clinically when there is central blindness?

A
  • normal PLR as in 1st part of pathway
  • absent menance response as it is 2nd part of pathway
  • blind
372
Q

What is the type of blindness where it involves collection and distrubtion system so eye and 1st part of pathway?

A

peripheral blindness

373
Q

Where would you see lesions in peripheral blindness?

A
  • eye
  • optic nerve
  • optic chiasm
  • optic tract
374
Q

What clinically would you see with peripheral blindness?

A
  • absent PLR as in frist part of pathway
  • absent Menence response
  • blind
375
Q

Describe the dazzle reflex?

A
  • First bit same as PLR but the differnece comes when it goes to pretectal nuclues it goes to cranial nerve 3 to constrict pupil and goes through facial nerve nuclei to close eye lid
  • results in bilateral blinking
376
Q

what nerve innervates the dorsal, medial, ventral rectus muscles, ventral oblique muscle and levator plapbrae muscles of the eye?

A

Cranial nerve 3 - occulomotor

377
Q

what innervates the dorsal oblique muscle of the eye?

A

Cranial nerve 4 - trochlear

378
Q

What innervates the lateral rectus muscle and the retractor bulbi muscle of the eye?

A

Cranial nerve 6 - abductant

379
Q

what happens when a cranial nerve becomes damaged and what is it called?

A

It decreases the tone of the muscles that it innervates so that the ones still working pull eye in one direction

380
Q

what is it called when you get abnormal alingment of eyes?

A

strabismus

381
Q

What are semicircular ducts cirtical for?

A

Our control of balance and acceleration and deacceleration

382
Q

What induces change of fluid in the semicircular canals?

A

head movement

383
Q

What does a change of fluid lead to in semicircular canals?

A

Leads to change in hair cells involved in the sense of chnages of rotation

384
Q

what happens when head moves to the left?

A
  • Fluid goes to the right and orientation of hair cells in the ampulla will be pushed to right
  • leads to excitation and increase in firing
385
Q

what happens if the head moves to the right?

A
  • Fluid moves right to left but orientation of the haie cells is different
  • leads to inhibition of hyperpolaristation and decrease of firing
386
Q

What is specific about macula in each urticle?

A

Has specificity for different horizontal accelerations - if in opposite direction it inhibits hair cell

387
Q

What way are sacular macula orientated?

A

Vertically and are senstive to accesleration thats vertical and highly sensitive to gravity

388
Q

What does the bilateral orgnaisation of the vestibular system provide?

A

Ample information to CNS that conveys both rotation of the head, accesleration and anatomy.

389
Q

What are the 4 major nuclei of the vestibular tract?

A

Inferior, lateral, medial and superior

390
Q

What nuclei conveys info about head rotation?

A

Everything but inferior

391
Q

What nuclei conveys info about accelaration and gravity?

A

Everything but superior

392
Q

What does the lateral nucleus send down the cervical and lumbar section of the spinal cord and to regulate what?

A
  • lateral vestibulospinal projections
  • To regulate flexor and extensor muscles
393
Q

What does the medial nucleus send to cervical regions of sponal cord and to regulate what?

A
  • medial vestibulospinal projections
  • To regulate axial muscles
394
Q

Describe what happens when the head turns in an anti clockwise rotations

A
  • excites horizontal semi-circular canal
  • output signals via lateral and medial vestibular nuclei to same side oculomotor nucleus and opposite side abducens nucleus to produce eye movemtn to the right
395
Q

When are vestibular reflexes activated?

A

When the position of the head is changed relative to the vertical axis

396
Q

When are tonic reflexes activated?

A

When the position of the head relative to the rest of the body is altered

397
Q

what would you look to see in vestibulospinal reflexes?

A

There should be no difference between head and trunk position - both rotation induces left leg extension and rught leg flexion (or opposite)

398
Q

What is the righting reflex in cats?

A

Where normal posture is restored in an animal that has fallen or unbalanced

399
Q

what is postural equilibrium?

A

The regulation of posture with respect to gravity

400
Q

What is static equilibrium?

A

State in which all forces acting on the body are balanced so that body rests in an intended postition

401
Q

What is dynamic equilibrium?

A

The ability to progress through an intended movement without losing progress

402
Q

To maintain balance what must happen to voluntary movements?

A

must be procedeed by counterbalance movement

403
Q

What do decending projections from cerebral cortex regulate?

A

Regulates spinal cord either directly or indirectly

404
Q

why does the basal ganglia interact with the thalamus?

A

To incorporate sensory feedback for motor plans like learning

405
Q

what are medial brain stem pathways essential for?

A

activation of movement

406
Q

What are lateral brainstem pathways essentail for?

A

Adjustments of movements

407
Q

describe the anatomy of muscles spindles?

A

Encapsulated sensory receptors and function to signal chnage in the length of the muscle

408
Q

What are the 3 intrafusal muscke fibres?

A
  • single la sensory fibre
  • static motor neurons
  • dynamic motor neuron
409
Q

what is la sensory fibers response dependent on?

A

Motor neuron stimulation

410
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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