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BVMS 2 > Module 12 Wk 1 > Flashcards

Module 12 Wk 1 Flashcards

1
Q

(PM - why and how?)

Describe how to perform and record a basic postmortem examination

A
  • skin to open up hips and axillae
  • then fully skin apart from limbs
  • open up abdomen and thoracic cavities
  • observe all
  • External examination
    (ID/Age/ breed/ sex/ Body condition/ weight)
  • Internal examination
    (dissection - skin to open up hips and axillae, then fully skin apart from limbs, open up the abdomen and thoracic cavities - Dorsal OR Lateral approach)
  • Observation in situ
  • Organ removal for visual inspection, palpation, and incision
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2
Q

Demonstrate safe working practices in the PM room

A
  • white wellies
  • lab coat
  • apron
  • blue gloves
  • long arm gloves
  • long white protective apron
  • disinfect boots
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3
Q

Describe how you would collect suitable samples for ancillary testing

A

Histopathology -1cm thick
bacteriology/ virology - 1 cm by 1cm cube
toxicology - 50g feces
parasitology - 100g feces

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4
Q

(Thermoreg, pyrexia and hypthermia)

Define Poikilotherms

A

Their temperature fluctuates with the enviro and their activity level is related to body/enviro temp

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5
Q

Define Homeotherms

A

They are animals that maintain a ‘steady’ body temp, either increasing or decreasing it. They remain active in all temps.

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6
Q

Define an Endotherm

A

Internal heat production, can change their metabolic rate.

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7
Q

Are ecto or endotherms broadly homeotherms

A

Endotherms

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8
Q

Define Ectotherm

A

They rely upon external heat sources. Have low metabolic rate

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9
Q

Are ecto or endotherms broadly Poikiolotherms

A

Ectotherms

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10
Q

If there is an excess increase or decrease in body temp it will lead to death, so what has to happen when there is an excess increase in temp? Decrease in temp?

A
  • heat loss must increase
  • heat production must increase
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11
Q

Why is the core body temp most important to regulate?

A

Due to all main important organs in the cranium, thoracic and abdominal cavity being there

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12
Q

In a healthy individual should the temperature range be narrow?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Why is skin temp not always representative of core temp?

A

Use skin to regulate core temp

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14
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

Rhythm with approx 24hr period - inherent rhythm of body temp

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15
Q

Describe seasonal variations in body temp

A

In winter body temp will be slightly lower than in summer

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16
Q

describe how digestion effets body temp

A

If you have just had a meal body temp will increase slightly due to specific dynamic actions where we take food into the body and process it, we burn ATP as we do resulting in some energy coming out in the form of heat.

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17
Q

What are the ways heat can be transferred?

A

Radiation
Conduction
Evaporation

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18
Q

Describe radiation

A

Energy, in the infrared portion of the spectrum given off or absorbed by an object

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19
Q

Describe Conduction

A

Energy is transferred between an object and the material next to the object by direct passage

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20
Q

what are conductive losses increased by?

A

air

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21
Q

Describe Evaporation

A

loss of water from an organism in the form of water vapor requires significant heat input

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22
Q

T/F anaimals can maintain body temp despite ambient?

A

True

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23
Q

Describe the control of thermogenesis?

A
  • Its is regulated at the level of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus
  • peripheral and central temp centers send info to the POA
  • POA acts as an integrating center and sends info about the error to heat promoting or losing center
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24
Q

What does a decrease in ambient temperatures necessitate effect?

A

It increases the rate of heat production which compensates hear loss to the enviro

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25
Q

Describe behavioral to decrease heat loss

A

Animals take a closed position decreasing the radiant heat loss to the environment by making themselves as small as possible - tail over nose as it’s not insulated, closed off armpits.

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26
Q

What are the 5 physiological changes that increase heat production/promotion?

A
  • cutaneous vasoconstriction
  • countercurrent exchange system
  • piloerection
  • Shivering Thermogenesis
  • Non-shivering thermogenesis
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27
Q

Describe how cutaneous vasoconstriction impacts heat production/promotion

A
  • peripheral vaso diverts blood to the core
  • periodic vaso pushes blood out to skin
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28
Q

What are the complications of vasoconstriction?

A
  • Hypovolemia - a condition that occurs when your body loses fluid, like blood or water
  • Frostbite - don’t have enough blood going out to the skin so it will die
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29
Q

What is the countercurrent exchange systems?

A

Where main arteries and adjacent veins deeo within tissue exchange heat so that blood out is also still warm

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30
Q

What is piloerection?

A

The contraction of small muscles at the base of hair follicles resulting in visible erection of hair.

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31
Q

Describe shivering thermogenesis

A

It is a spinal reflex causing small muscle movements building up ATP which releases heat

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32
Q

Describe non-shivering thermogenesis

A

Where SNS via beta-adrenoreceptors and T4 stimulate the sodium-potassium ATPase which in return increases metabolic rate and therefore heat production.

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33
Q

What are behavioral chnages that increase heat loss?

A
  • open posture
  • expose areas with low insulation
  • minimal touching
  • go to a cool loaction
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34
Q

What are the two physiological changes that increase heat loss

A
  • altering conductance
  • evaporative heat loss
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35
Q

Describe how altering conductance increases heat loss and what is the problem with it?

A
  • Cutaneous vasodilation increase skin temp
  • The problem with it is the effectiveness of conduction and convection decreases as ambient temp increases
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36
Q

Describe the different ways to increase heat loss via evaporation

A
  • sweating - not all animals have sweat glands
  • panting
  • the spread of saliva on the fur (pretty ineffective)
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37
Q

Describe Panting and the side effects (good and bad)

A
  • Movement of air in the ‘non-respiratory zone’ of airways ‘forced convection’
  • Bad side effects such as loss of CO2, more work, loss of salt and good as cools blood going to brain
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38
Q

In response to adverse environmental conditions there are a number of responses depending on temporal characteristics and magnitude of change, what are these?

A

Phenotypic Adaptation during lifetime
Genotypic Adaptation
Acclimatization in response to natural forces
Acclimation in laboratory

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39
Q

Describe adjustments to chronic cold temperatures

A
  • Increase thermal gradients
  • increase metabolic rate
  • decrease core temp ie hibernation
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40
Q

Describe adjustments to chronic hot temperature?

A
  • decrease thermal gradient
  • increase in core temp
  • decrease the metabolic rate
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41
Q

What is the normal protective mechanims against pyrexia?

A
  • promotes interferon activity
  • increase in metabolic rate and accelerate tissue repair
  • decreasing bacterial and viral replication
42
Q

Describe the mechanisms leading to Hyper/hypothermia

A

Stage 1 BT decreases to 35–37°C,

shivering, vasoconstriction. Breathing quick and shallow. Nausea, muscles become less responsive.

Stage 2 BT decreases to 33–35°C.

Shivering more violent. Muscle mis-coordination. Mild confusion. Surface blood vessels contract further. Extremities become blue.

Stage 3 BT <32°C.

Shivering stops. Cognitive impairment and physical inability present. Metabolic processes shut down. < 30°C, exposed skin, blue and puffy, muscle coordination very poor, incoherent/irrational behavior including terminal burrowing or stupor. Pulse and respiration rates ↓, heart rates ↑(ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation). Major organs fail. Clinical death occurs.

43
Q

(Principles of parasite identification: worms)

Why is diagnosis important?

A
  • What is the animal infected with?
  • To properly treat the animal
  • To understand where the infection came from
  • To limit spread of infection- Particularly if the infection is zoonotic
44
Q

Describe the basis of diagnosis of worms?

A
  • parasitology - based on morphological characteristics of the parasite
  • immunological - based on presence of antibodies or antigen (antibody less specific compared to antigen as indicates active infection)
  • molecular - based on PCR
45
Q

Describe the principles of diagnosis

A
  • The test should ideally be specific, sensitive, reliable and clinical history should be provided as can be very important
46
Q

What options do you have for sampling for worms in live animals?

A

blood or stool samples

47
Q

Describe a typical lifecycle of a nematode

A
  • adult worms in the intestine produce eggs (L1)
  • eggs pass out in feces
  • eggs hatch in enviro and larvae are ingested or egg ingested by another dog
  • development to adult
48
Q

describe the differences in stool samples when diagnosing

A
  • gastro worms diagnosed by eggs in stool
  • some are fecund and eggs seen on direct smear
  • some have to concentrate on eggs - flotation and quantitative
49
Q

Describe toxocaris leonina eggs

A

smooth egg shell

50
Q

decribe Toxocara canis/cati eggs

A

Rough pitted egg shell

51
Q

Describe typical egg of a hookworm

A

strongyle egg

52
Q

what does Trichuris eggs have?

A

bipolar plugs

53
Q

Is it important to distinguish between worm species in the dog?

A

Not super as treatment options are often the same for nematodes but some are zoonotic

54
Q

What is a McMaster slide used for?

A

Concentration and quantification of eggs to allow for counting of eggs per gram

55
Q

What is baermanns funnel?

A

Nematode larvae migrate from the faecal sample
downward in water through the gauze and collect in the tubing above the clamp

56
Q

Is E granulosus granulosus zoonotic? and what species of tapeworm is very similar?

A
  • It is zoonotic
  • Taenia species
57
Q

For antigen detection in stool what should you use?

A

ELISA or dipstick

58
Q

For DNA detection in stool, what should you use?

A

PCR

59
Q

What is detecting helminth parasites in the blood useful for?

A

Useful for microfilariae of Dirofilaria species - as they are found in blood stream where they are ingested by mosquitos IMH

60
Q

why is antigen tests alone for cats with heart worm not useful?

A

As it only detects sexually mature female worms which cats usually have few and are often sexually immature an antibody test as well is recommended.

61
Q

Describe the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis in sheep?

A
  • bright red placenta cotyledons
  • Ab in fetal fluids/pre colostral- lamb serum
  • Antibody test with paired samples or IgM detection in ewe
  • immunohistochemical/PCR detection of parasite in aborted tissue
62
Q

Describe how toxoplasmosis in cats is detected

A
  • transient dectection of oocysts in feces at 1-2 weeks
  • Serologically - IgG/IgM have a long-lived antibody response
  • Hematology/Biochemistry - alpha 1 glycoprotein
  • PCR/cytology of CSF or other samples
63
Q

What does Giardia cause clinically?

A

strong smelling, watery diarrhoea/vomiting weight loss wild and domestic animals

64
Q

Describe the transmission and the pathway of Gardia

A
  • Transmitted fecal orally via ingestion of cyst form
  • Liberate trophozoites attach to gut mucosa and comprise intestinal lining and absorption of nutrients. As it passes down GI generates a cyst wall, cyst is passed in feces.
65
Q

How is Gardia detected?

A

It is very difficult but

  • SNAP giardia test which is ELISA-based detection of parasite antigen in fecal sample
  • qPCR can sensitively and specifically detect Giardia infection
66
Q

T/F cryptosporidium oocysts difficult to detect in unstained fecal samples?

A

True - due to small size

67
Q

T/F Ziehl-Nielsen (acid-fast) staining improved detection of crypto?

A

True

68
Q

If not staining what are the other ways to detect crypto?

A
  • immunofluorescent antibody test
  • antigens in the feces can be detected by enzyme immunoassays
  • crypto PCR-based assays - genotyping species ID
69
Q

what protozo has their infective stage extracellular?

A

Trypanosoma spp.

70
Q

What protozoans have their infective stage within the blood cells?

A
  • Leishmania spp
  • Babesia spp.
  • Theileria spp.
71
Q

What is the most comment detection for vector born parasites?

A

Blood smear + clinical history of host

72
Q

What are the positives of the PCR-based diagnosis?

A
  • very specific
  • very sensitive
  • can differentiate mixed infections
73
Q

What are the Negatives of PCR-based diagnosis?

A
  • not that rapid and lab-based
  • easy to contaminate so needs controls for false positives
  • for quantification needs right thermal cycler
74
Q

How are zoonotic diseases transmitted?

A
  • ingestion of eggs from an animal or enviro
  • ingestion of infected foodstuff
75
Q

What are the routes of infection of Toxocara canis?

A
  • oral - L3 in egg
  • Transplacental
  • trans mammary!!
  • paratenic host - non obligative transport host (accidentally ingest)
76
Q

Outcome of infection od Toxocara canis in dogs?

A

This is dependent on the age of the animal.

If less than 3 months - liver/lung migration and develops into adults in SI
at 3 months of age larvae migrate to tissue

77
Q

Describe the features if T.canis egg

A
  • not immediately infective
  • very resistant and sticky
  • ling-lived
  • females are prolific egg layers
78
Q

why are T.canis eggs not immediately infective?

A

As they have to become larvae in the enviro which is temperature dependent.

79
Q

Describe the features of T.canis arrested larva

A
  • arrested L3 survive for life of bitch
  • resistant to commonly used anthelmintics
  • can commence development in bitch as well as pups
80
Q

what is the min PPP of Toxocara canis?

A

16 days from transplacental infection so should treat before parsite layes eggs

81
Q

Should you treat bitch at the same time as pups?

A

Yes with a high dose of fenbendazole 3 weeks prepartum to 2 days post-partum so no larvae reactivates

82
Q

T/F E. granulosus granulosus is a zoonoses involving dogs.

A

True - they are the final host

83
Q

What is the IMH of E.GG?

A

Sheep but humans can be an accidental IMH is ingest eggs from dog feaces

84
Q

How do we control the hydatid disease?

A
  • regular deworming of dogs
  • proper disposal of infected sheep carcusses
  • deny access of dogs to abattoirs
  • hygiene
  • wash veggies
85
Q

Describe Trichinella spiralis life cycle

A
  • L1 is infected stage
  • If L1 is ingested it will erupt forming cyst
  • Gets into GI tract
  • adults mate producing live L1, not eggs
  • these migrate into live tissue, blood and finally muscles and become cysts
86
Q

How is T. spiralis spread between pigs that is passed on via undercooked pork?

A
  • infected will
  • tail biting
  • rats
87
Q

Describe the diagnosis and control process pf Trichinella

A
  • Meat inspection. EU-mandatory screening of pork and digestion using perpsis/HCL
  • for control prohibition of uncooked food waste to pigs, control of rodent populations in piggeries and proper carcuss disposal
88
Q

what is the final host of T. Solium

A

human

89
Q

where do we usually see cysts of T. Solium?

A

eyes or CNS - neurocysticercosis

90
Q

(endocrine physiology)

Describe the 3 different regulations of hormone release

A
  • hormonal
  • neural
  • humoral
91
Q

what are some examples of positive feedback in reg of hormone release?

A

E2 - LH - ovulation
Oxytocin - birth

92
Q

What are the factors affecting the effectiveness of the endocrine system?

A
  • Binding proteins as must be ‘free’ to have an action
  • Receptor number, the change from FSH to LH receptors in the ovary
93
Q

What can we do for pet obesity?

A
  • Manage with Diet - Eat less, exercise more
  • owner complience
  • maybe pharmalogical intervention
94
Q

How does endocrine influence metabolism/energy partitioning?

A
  • The pancreas produces insulin/glucagon which regulates circulating glucose conc
  • pituitary gland produces growth hormone
95
Q

what does the growth hormones promote growth of?

A
  • promotes the growth of tissues
  • promotes growth of the skeleton
96
Q

what are many of the growth hormones effects mediated via?

A

somatomedins which are insulin-like growth factors produced in the liver

97
Q

What is the other effect Growth hormone can have other than growth?

A

Metabolic effects which support the growth

98
Q

What are the three different metabolic effects thats the growth hormone have?

A
  • increased protein synthesis
  • increased mobilization of FA
  • Decreased rate of glucose utilisation ‘insulin resistance’
99
Q

How does the brain regulate energy stores?

A
  • Drives animal to start and stop eating
  • The sight of food drives activity in the appetite centre of the brain and decreases satiety centre activity
  • Metabolic markers like glucose levels can be picked up in the brain leading to inhibition in LHA and increased satiety centre activity
    stretch inhibits appetite/hungar centre activity
100
Q

what effect does insulin has on brain?

A

It inhibits neuropeptide Y which normally inhibits satiety centre and promotes appetite centre

101
Q

what is the effect of cortisol at the level of the brain?

A

It inhibits corticotrophin releasing factor which normal promotes activity in the satiety centre and inhibits appetite centre

102
Q
A

BVMS 2 (18 decks)

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