Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Medicine 1 > Module 9 (part of test 4) > Flashcards

Module 9 (part of test 4) Flashcards

1
Q

Leukemia is characterized according to cell ______ and ______

A 
type
maturation (age)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What Leukemia is most common in children?

A

Acute Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which Leukemia has a large number of MATURE WBC’s?

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute Leukemia has a large number of ______ WBC’s?

A

immature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the 7th most common malignancy?

A

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 types of Lymphomas?

A

Hodgkins
Non-Hodgkins
Burkitt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma is a disorder of the _____ and _____ cells?

A

T

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma is an aggressive _____ Cell proliferation?

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient with Burkitt’s may have what on their mandible?

A

osteolytic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If we are seeing a patient with a WBC disorder we need a ________ and possibly ______ before treatment?

A

MD consult

premedication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common causes of urticaria in adults and in kids?

A

Adults- drugs

Kids- food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of anaphylactic death?

A

bee sting
wasp sting
penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Allergic reactions result from a _______ reaction to a _______?

A

immune

antigen (non-infectious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What cells process the presence of an antigen?

A

T-lymphocytes

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What cells recognize the antigen and are the primary lymphocyte in humoral immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

B-cels make what 2 things?

A

Plasma cells

Memory B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Plasma cells make?

A

antibodies (immunoglobulins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of hypersensitivity involves the humoral immunity and occurs soon after the 2nd contact/exposure?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is _____ mediated?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most serious type 1 allergic response?

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 2 substances in L/A could a patient be allergic to?

A

Parabens

Sulfites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What medication generally doesn’t cause a true allergic reaction?

A

Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the 1st generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

A

Benadryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What was the 2nd generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

A

Allegra, Claritin, Zyrtek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Flonase, Nasonex, and Rhinocort are examples of?

A

Intranasal Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What immune system is referred to as “delayed”

A

Cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What cells play the central role in cellular immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T-cells produce?

A

cytokines and memory t-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ______ is the largest organ. It weighs ____ lbs and is located in the ______Quadrant?

A

liver
3
UR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A compromised liver means a decreased synthesis of _________ factors?

A

coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are 3 causes of hepatitis?

A

virus
Acetaminophen
Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted through what route?

A

fecal - oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does Hepatitis A have a carrier state?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis A?

A

yes- harrivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is Hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Blood (direct/indirect contact)

36
Q

_________transmission of Hepatitis B is NOT important

A

airborne

37
Q

Hepatitis B has a ____ onset and _______duration compared to Hepatitis A

A

slower

longer

38
Q

A Hepatitis B immunoglobulin shot can be administered how long after exposure?

A

24-48 hrs

39
Q

Is there a Hepatitis C vaccine?

A

no

40
Q

What is the most chronic blood borne infection in the U.S.

A

Hepatitis C

41
Q

Hepatitis _____ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis B?

A

D

42
Q

Hepatitis ______ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis C?

A

G

43
Q

Icteric means? and is due to?

A

Jaundice

billirubin buildup

44
Q

What precedes the onset of jaundice?

A

Pre-icteric phase (prodromal)

45
Q

The post-icteric phase is _________ and can last how long?

A

convalescent

6 mo

46
Q

_______ _________ liver is when hepatocytes get engorged with fatty lobules and distend?

A

Fatty Infiltrate

47
Q

______ _______ is when the liver goes through destructive cellular changes?

A

alcoholic hepatitis

48
Q

_______ is a progressive fibrosis of the liver and is irreversible?

A

cirrhosis

49
Q

If surgical procedures are necessary for hepatitis patients we need to have ______ ability evaluated?

A

clotting

50
Q

_______ is an alcohol sensitizing drug which increases the effects of a hangover?

A

Antabuse

51
Q

What drug works like antabuse but is safer?

A

Temposil

52
Q

How much hydrochloric acid do we produce a day?

A

2 liters

53
Q

A well defined break in the GI mucosa is called a?

A

peptic ulcer

54
Q

Most ulcers are located in the?

A

duodenum/stomach

55
Q

1st degree relatives have a _____risk of GI ulcers?

A

3 fold

56
Q

What is the main cause of GI diseases?

A

Overproduction of Acid

57
Q

What is the 2nd cause of GI diseases?

A

H-pylori bacteria

58
Q

Stomach discomfort occurs how long after eating?

A

90min-3hrs

59
Q

What are 3 common drugs used in the treatment of H-pylori bacillus GI disorders?

A

Amoxicillin
Biaxin
Zantac

60
Q

Pepto-bismol, Tums, Zantac, and Tagamet are OTC drugs that _____ of gastric secretions?

A

raise PH

61
Q

What OTC GI medication interfered with lidocaine and valium typically used in dental treatment?

A

Tagamet

62
Q

We need to avoid _____ and ______ OTC drugs when someone is taking GI medications?

A

Aspirin

NSAIDS

63
Q

Antacids may impair the absorption of what 2 antibiotics?

A

Tetracycline

Erythromycin

64
Q

What are 2 common oral complications with GI disorders?

A 
Oral Candidiasis ( due to antibiotics)
Enamel Erosion (due to vomiting)
65
Q

What GI disease is Serious and sometimes fatal and occurs from prolonged antibiotic use?

A

PC- pseudomembranous colitis

66
Q

Pseudomembranous Colitis is an overgrowth of?

A

Clostridium Difficile

67
Q

Broad Spectrum antibiotics cause _____ after taking them for 4-10 days?

A

diarrhea

68
Q

You should discontinue broad spectrum antibiotic use and switch to ____ or _____ with GI disorders?

A

Flagyl

Vancomycin

69
Q

Plavix alters ______ function?

A

platelet

70
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand’s

71
Q

Hemophilia A is a deficiency / defect of factor?

A

8

72
Q

Hemophilia B is also known as ____ and is a deficiency of factor _____?

A

Christmas Disease

9

73
Q

What medications do we recommend for dental management in patients with bleeding disorders?

A

Acetaminophen with/out Codeine

74
Q

`Aspirin therapy results can last how long after the patient stops taking it?

A

9 days

75
Q

Anemia is associated with _____ of RBC’s

A

number

76
Q

A normal RBC is ___% hemoglobin?

A

33

77
Q

The _____ is the sensor that determines the level of oxygenation of RBCs

A

Kidney

78
Q

Low oxygenation in RBCs tells the kidney to produce?

A

erythropoietin

79
Q

What is the most common Anemia?

A

iron deficiency

80
Q

Pernicious Anemia is a lack of ________ factor which is secreted from the _____ Cells?

A

intrinsic

parietal

81
Q

What is a genetic anemia most commonly found in African Americans?

A

Sickle Cell

82
Q

Radiographically the bone appears with ______ trabeculae arranged in a ______ pattern like a “_____ ____” in sickle cell patients?

A

widened
horizontally
step ladder

83
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease need an oxygen saturation of _____%

A

95

84
Q

Sickle cell patients _____ use Nitrous?

A

can

85
Q

Nitrous levels need to be at ______% oxygen for sickle cell patients?

A

50 or higher

Dental Medicine 1 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions