Module 9 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. support
  2. protection
  3. movement
  4. mineral homeostasis
  5. hematopoiesis
  6. fat (energy) storage
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2
Q

The _______ is a bone stem cell and is the precursor to other bone cell types.

A

osteogenic cell

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3
Q

_______ are dividing cells. They are responsible for laying down the components of bone; we can distinguish them from other cells which all start with “osteo-“ by remembering that they are Bone Building Blasts.

A

Osteoblasts

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4
Q

Within spaces inside of bone, _______ (“bone cells”) maintain bone integrity.

A

osteocytes

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5
Q

Bone-Chewing _______ constantly tunnel through bone, dissolving the bone matrix as they go.

A

osteoclasts

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6
Q

What are the 4 cell types found in bone?

A

osteogenic;
osteoblast;
osteosyte;
osteoclast

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7
Q

Osteoblast and osteoclast activity is regulated by ______.

A

hormones

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8
Q

What are the 2 components of bone?

A

inorganic and organic

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9
Q

The inorganic portion of bone is primarily a mineral called ________, a compound of calcium, phosphate and hydroxyl groups.

A

hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

Bone is a composite material. The inorganic portion is ______. The organic portion is _______.

A
inorganic = mineralized;
organic = protein
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11
Q

If the bone has too much mineral, it becomes brittle and fractures easily. This happens in the disease _______, or “brittle bone disease”.

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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12
Q

If the bone has too much collagen, bones are soft and pliable, as in children with ______ or adults with _____.

A

rickets;

osteamalacia

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13
Q

What are the 2 main TYPES of bone?

A

spongy and compact

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14
Q

______ is, as the name suggests, compact. This hard, dense tissue provides structural support. It accounts for 80% of the total bone mass.

A

Compact bone

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15
Q

The basic structural unit of compact bone is the _____.

A

osteon

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16
Q

Each osteon consists of a series of concentric rings called ______. In the center of this structure is a canal that runs the length of the bone, carrying blood and lymphatic vessels.

A

lamellae (latin: thin plate)

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17
Q

Small spaces between the lamellae contain the osteocytes. Small channels (________) join adjacent lacunae.

A

canaliculi (latin: small canals)

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18
Q

______ (Volkman canals) run radially in long bones to join adjacent central canals.

A

Perforating canals

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19
Q

______ is found in the marrow cavity of long bones like the femur and humerus.

A

Spongy bone

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20
Q

_____ bone marrow is where blood cells are made.

A

red

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21
Q

_____ bone marrow is where fat is stored as energy.

A

yellow

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22
Q

Spongy bone is made up of _______.

A

trabeculae (latin: “little roof beam”)

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23
Q

The skeletal system is not all compact bone or spongy bone. Much of the skeleton is made up of ______.

A

cartilage

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24
Q

_______ gets its name from its resemblance to glass, shiny and translucent. It has a great deal of ground substance with no apparent structure, and the living cells that lay down cartilage are found in little spaces, again called lacunae, here and there amongst the glassy ground substance.

A

Hyaline cartilage

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25
Q

______ is, of course, more fibrous in appearance and structure. The ground substance has collagen fibers running through it. This is found in the disks between vertebrae; in the pubic symphysis where 2 halves of the pelvis are joined; and in the menisci of joints.

A

Fibrocartilage

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26
Q

______ has elastin fibers in place of the collagen fibers found in fibrocartilage, but otherwise, it has a similar structure. It is found in the ear and epiglottis, 2 structures that need to be flexible and snap back into shape when moved and released.

A

Elastic cartilage

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage found in the skeletal system?

A

Hyaline cartilage;
Fibrocartilage;
Elastic cartilage

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28
Q

Dense regular connective tissue is represented in the skeletal system by ______, band-like structures that strap one bone to another.

A

ligaments

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29
Q

A very important dense irregular connective tissue in the skeletal system is the _______, a thin membrane that surrounds all bones.

A

periosteum

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30
Q

The _______ lines the medullary cavity.

A

endosteum

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31
Q

_____ bones are longer than they are wide.

A

Long

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32
Q

Either end of the long bone has an ______; these are the knobby ends of the bone and form joint surfaces.

A

epiphysis (epi- “on top of”, -physis “nature”)

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33
Q

In the middle of the long bone is the _____. This is the shaft of the long bone.

A

diaphysis (dia- “through”, -physis “nature”)

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34
Q

Between the epiphysis and diaphysis is a transition in the middle, or ______.

A

metaphysis

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35
Q

`The specialized region inside the epiphysis is the _________. This is the site of bone growth as these long bones grow during development.

A

epiphyseal plate

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36
Q

In adults, who are done growing in height, the remnant of the epiphyseal plate is seen as the _______. It is often possible to see this as a landmark in conventional x-rays.

A

epiphyseal line

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37
Q

The growth of long bones at the epiphyseal plate, and the growth of bones in many other places, occurs through _______. This uses a cartilage “model” to shape the bone; the cartilage is eventually replaced with compact or spongy bone.

A

endochondral bone formation

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38
Q

In fetuses and very young children, many of the future bones are completely cartilaginous. At some point, a _______ appears in the center of the forming bone, where the diaphysis will be.

A

primary ossification center

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39
Q

Later in life, a ________ will develop near the joint surface.

A

secondary ossification center

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40
Q

Endochondral bone formation is one strategy. The other strategy used to form bone is _________.

A

intramembranous bone formation

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41
Q

In the intramembranous bone formation strategy, instead of a primary and secondary ossification center in the middle and ends of the bone, there are multiple ______ that start as islands and then spread outward. As they spread, they form spongy bone.

A

ossification centers

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42
Q

________ make bone. They lay down the organic and inorganic extracellular matrix of the bone. They are bone Builders.

A

Osteoblasts

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43
Q

______ break bone into pieces. They are bone Chewers.

A

Osteoclasts

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44
Q

_______ is released from a set of small, pea-shaped glands next to the thyroid. This hormone increases osteoclastic activity.

A

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

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45
Q

______ is made by parafollicular cells (C cells) in the thyroid gland. It is released when calcium is high, and inhibits osteoclasts.

A

Calcitonin

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46
Q

______ is hormonally active Vitamin D. It is released from the kidneys when blood calcium is too low. It works in the digestive system to increase the absorption of calcium from foods.

A

Calcitriol

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47
Q

What are the 2 D vitamins?

A
Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol);
Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)
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48
Q

The elderly may have very low levels of hGH and tend to have problems with calcium absorption and homeostasis. This may result in the disease _____, which weakens bones.

A

osteoporosis

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49
Q

The ______ consists of those bones that are in the center of the body, from head to coccyx. That is - the skull, vertebrae, ribs and sternum.

A

axial skeleton

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50
Q

The _______ is bones that form the structure of the upper and lower extremities. Thus, the bones of the arm, forearm, wrist, and hand, but we include the scapula and clavicle because these stabilize the shoulder girdle. Also, the bones of the thigh, leg, ankle, and foot. The pelvis is part of the lower extremity, as well, because it stabilizes the lower extremity and forms the socket of the hip joint.

A

appendicular skeleton

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51
Q

_____ are about as long as they are wide. They are shaped like a wooden block or a lego. They include the carpal bones of the wrist and the tarsal bones of the ankle.

A

Short bones

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52
Q

______ are the bone equivalent of the squamous cells; they are wide and thin. The sternum is an example.

A

Flat bones

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53
Q

_____ are a garbage category for bones that don’t have any definable shape. An example would be the vertebrae.

A

Irregular bones

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54
Q

A _____ is a small, round, flat bone that can arise as the result of mechanical stress or trauma to muscle. The only example is the patella.

A

sesamoid bone

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55
Q

orbit of the eye

A

lacrimal bone

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56
Q

upper jawbone

A

maxilla

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57
Q

lower jawbone

A

mandible

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58
Q

cheekbones

A

zygomatic bones

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59
Q

interior upper ceiling of the nasal sinuses

A

ethmoid bone

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60
Q

a horseshoe-shaped, “floating” bone in the neck

A

hyoid bone

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61
Q

small bone that forms the bridge of the nose

A

nasal bone

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62
Q

forms the roof of the mouth (hard palate)

A

palatine bone

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63
Q

In order for blood vessels to pass in and out of the skull, it is necessary to have large and small holes in the skull. These holes are called _______. There are also shallow depressions called ________.

A
holes = foramina (latin: "hole");
depressions = fossae (latin: "ditch")
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64
Q

In the nasal sinuses, nerves carrying smell information pass through _____ in the sponge-like _______.

A

olfactory foramina;

cribiform plate

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65
Q

In the sphenoid bone, the ______ forms a hole for the optic nerve to pass from the eye to the brain.

A

optic foramen

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66
Q

The ______ forms a ditch that holds the pituitary gland (hypophysis).

A

hypophyseal fossa

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67
Q

An oval-shaped hole (______) allows the passage of several nerves and blood vessels.

A

foramen ovale

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68
Q

The _____ of the occipital bone, a huge hole allows the spinal cord to exit the skull.

A

foramen magnum

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69
Q

_____ are stacked in a _____ which runs the length of the back. They are named by region and then numbered, from superior to inferior.

A

Vertebrae;

vertebral column

70
Q

neck

A

cervix (7 cervical vertebrae)

71
Q

chest

A

thorax (12 thoracic vertebrae)

72
Q

loin

A

lumbar (5 lumbar vertebrae)

73
Q

holy

A

sacral (2 sacral vertebrae, fused)

74
Q

tailbone

A

coccyx

75
Q

The largest part of a vertebrae is the _____.

A

body

76
Q

A joint between 2 adjacent bodies is filled with a disk of fibrocartilage that has a soft center, like a jelly donut. This is called the _______.

A

intervertebral disc

77
Q

Two _____ extend laterally; a ____ connects each of these to the body.

A

tranverse processes;

pedicle

78
Q

Along the midline, there is a ______ which protrudes posteriorly. This is joined to the transverse processes by ______.

A

spinous process;

laminae

79
Q

Taken together, the medial surfaces of the body, processes, pedicles and laminae form a large hole called the ______ that allows passage of the spinal cord.

A

vertebral foramen

80
Q

Your whole world is in your skull, and it’s the first cervical vertebrae (C1) that holds the whole world up. For this reason, C1 is called the _____.

A

atlas

81
Q

The joint between the occipital bone of skull and the atlas is called the ________. This joint allows us to nod.

A

atlanto-occipital joint

82
Q

The C2 vertebrae has the special name of _____. This articulates (forms a joint) with the atlas that allows for head rotation.

A

axis

83
Q

A ______ attached to the atlas wraps around a “tooth” (____) on C2.

A

transverse ligament;

dens

84
Q

One unique feature of cervical vertebrae is that the posteriorly-projecting spinous process (the one on the midline) is ______, that is, it has a “forked tongue”.

A

bifid

85
Q

The last of the cervical vertebrae, C7, is called ______ because it’s prominent.

A

vertebra prominens

86
Q

The 12 ribs make joint with the 12 thoracic vertebrae. There are 2 points at which each rib touches a vertebrae: the _____ of a vertebrae touches the _____ of a rib, and the body of a vertebrae touches the head of a rib.

A

transverse process;

tubercle

87
Q

Vertebrae makes joints with each other at _____ and ______.

A

inferior articular;

superior articular facets

88
Q

Ribs 1-7 are termed ____ because they connect with the ____ on the anterior surface of the thorax.

A

true ribs;

sternum

89
Q

The connection between true ribs and the sternum is _____, a type of hyaline cartilage.

A

costal cartilage

90
Q

Ribs 8-10 are called _____ because they use rib 7 to articulate with the sternum, rather than making that connection directly.

A

false ribs

91
Q

Ribs 11-12 are also false ribs and more specifically ____ because they “float”; there is no anterior connection to any other structure.

A

floating ribs

92
Q

collarbone

A

clavicle

93
Q

shoulder blade

A

scapula

94
Q

socket for the head of the humerus

A

glenoid fossa

95
Q

The longest and thickest bone of the upper extremity is the ______.

A

humerus

96
Q

The bones of the forearm, the ____ and _____, articulate with the distal humerus at the elbow joint

A

radius and ulna

97
Q

The bones of the wrist are called _____.

A

carpals

98
Q

The _____ are named because they line up like Roman soldiers in a phalanx formation.

A

phalanges

99
Q

thumb

A

pollux

100
Q

What are the 3 bones of the pelvis?

A

ilium;
ischium;
pubis

101
Q

large, flat, curved, flared bone of the pelvis

A

ilium

102
Q

hip

A

ischium

103
Q

groin

A

pubis

104
Q

The 2 parts of the pelvis form a large socket for the head of the femur. This depression is called the _____.

A

acetabulum

105
Q

The largest bone of the body is the ____, the large, long bone of the thigh.

A

femur

106
Q

kneecap

A

sesamoid patella

107
Q

larger, medial bone of the leg

A

tibia

108
Q

the smaller, more lateral bone of the leg

A

fibula

109
Q

ankle bones

A

tarsal

110
Q

great toe

A

hallux

111
Q

slit-like opening in a bone

A

fissure

112
Q

“trench / ditch”;

shallow deression

A

fossa

113
Q

“groove”;

shallow depression

A

sulcus

114
Q

tube-like opening

A

meatus

115
Q

smooth, concave or convex articular surface

A

facet

116
Q

rounded, articular projection supported by a neck

A

head

117
Q

“knuckle”;

round, articular

A

condyle

118
Q

“above” a condyle;

rough, non-articular

A

epicondyle

119
Q

“window”

A

foramen

120
Q

projection

A

process

121
Q

pointy projection

A

spine

122
Q

“runner”;

very large projection

A

trochanter

123
Q

pulley

A

trochlea

124
Q

“little potato”;

rounded projection

A

tubercle

125
Q

rough, variable-sized bump

A

tuberosity

126
Q

In the fetus and newborn, there are bands of fibrocartilage between the developing bones of the skull. These are called _____. This arrangement allows the head to fit through the birth canal and also allows for some continued growth of the brain after birth.

A

fontanels

127
Q

The easiest fontanel to find on a newborn is the _____, the place where the 2 frontal bones join the 2 parietal bones.

A

anterior fontanel

128
Q

The _____ is where the temporal, parietal and frontal bones are joined.

A

anterolateral fontanel

129
Q

The _____ is along the midline between the parietal and occipital bones.

A

posterior fontanel

130
Q

The _____ is where the parietal, occipital and temporal bones meet.

A

posterolateral fontanel

131
Q

In the first few months of life, the fontanels fuse and become bone, but the remnants of these joints remain as ____ of the skull, zigzag lines that hold the bones of the skull together tightly.

A

sutures

132
Q

In females, the angle between the ischial tuberosities, called the ____, is generally greater than *) degrees, while in males the angle is less than 90 degrees.

A

pubic arch

133
Q

The root “_____” means joint.

A

arthro

134
Q

_____ are not capable of functional movement.

A

Synarthrotic joints

135
Q

_______ are slightly moveable.

A

Amphiarthrotic joints

136
Q

_______ are fully moveable.

A

Diarthrotic joints

137
Q

_____ are made up of a band of dense irregular connective tissue. This is what holds together the bones of the skull; it is also what holds teeth in place.

A

Fibrous joints

138
Q

A _____, like that between the true ribs and the sternum, is where bones are held together by cartilage.

A

cartilaginous joint

139
Q

In a ____, a _______ is present and filled with synovial fluid.

A

synovial joint;

synovial cavity

140
Q

______ covers the bones where they are in contact.

A

Articular cartilage

141
Q

A set of membranes called the _____ holds the bones in the correct position and also encloses the fluid portion of the joint.

A

joint capsule

142
Q

At points where tendons and ligaments move across bone, there are slippery bags called _____ that allow these to move past each other without friction.

A

bursae

143
Q

Moveable joints can make 2 kinds of movements: _____ and ______.

A

gliding movements and angular movements

144
Q

_____ are side-to-side and do not change the angle of a joint.

A

Gliding movements

145
Q

_____ change the angle of the joint.

A

Angular movements

146
Q

Movements that decrease the angle of a joint are called ______.

A

flexion

147
Q

Movements that increase the angle of a joint are called _____.

A

extension

148
Q

If an extension movement reaches the anatomical position and keeps going, it is called __________.

A

hyperextension

149
Q

Since the vertebrae can bend sideways, the movement of _____ is possible for the back only.

A

lateral flexion

150
Q

A motion that takes your body away from the midline is _______.

A

abduction

151
Q

A motion that brings your body closer to the midline is _______.

A

adduction

152
Q

A circular movement with the shoulder or hip joint is _____.

A

circumduction

153
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A
planar;
hinge;
pivot;
condyloid;
saddle;
ball-and-socket
154
Q

example of planar joit

A

foot

155
Q

example of hinge joint

A

elbow

156
Q

example of pivot joint

A

between head of radius and radial notch of ulna

157
Q

example of condyloid joint

A

wrist

158
Q

example of saddle joint

A

base of thumb

159
Q

example of ball-and-socket joint

A

hip

160
Q

______ is an inflammation of the bursa which allows tendons and ligaments to slide past bones at joints.

A

Bursitis

161
Q

______ are microscopic tears in a ligament.

A

Sprains

162
Q

______ are tears in a muscle or the tendon that connects muscle to bone.

A

Strains

163
Q

The bone’s shaft or body – the long, cylindrical, main portion of the bone.

A

Diaphysis

164
Q

The proximal and distal ends of the bone.

A

Epiphyses

165
Q

The regions between the diaphysis and the epiphyses.

A

Metaphyses

166
Q

A thin layer of hyaline Cartlidge covering the part of the epiphysis where the bone forms an articulation (joint) with another bone.

A

Articulate cartilage

167
Q

A tough connective tissue sheath and it’s associated blood supply that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not covered by an articular cartilage

A

Periosteum

168
Q

A hollow, cylindrical space within the diaphysis that contains fatty yellow bone marrow and numerous blood vessels in adults

A

Medullary cavity or marrow cavity

169
Q

A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity

A

Endosteum

170
Q

This structure is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.

A

Periosteum

171
Q

A developing long bone generally has 2 _________.

A

Secondary ossification centers