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pathology > module 3 traumatic 2 > Flashcards

module 3 traumatic 2 Flashcards

1
Q

appears on a plain radiograph as a sharp lucent line that is often irregular or jagged and occasionally branches

A

Linear skull fracture

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2
Q
  • often stellate (star-shaped) with multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point
  • tangential views are required to determine the amount of depression
A

Depressed

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3
Q
  • A break in bone at the base of the skull.
  • very difficult to demonstrate radiographically
  • air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus and/or clouding of the mastoid air cells are often the only radiographic finding suggesting a fracture
  • important to include erect or cross-table lateral skull radiography
  • CT and MRI are often used to better identify fractures and associated soft tissue damage within the skull
A

Basilar Skull Fractures

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4
Q

develops when the fracture line communicates with the mastoid air cells, resulting in blood accumulating in the cutaneous tissue.

A

postauricular ecchymosis

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5
Q

bleeding from a fracture site in the anterior portion of the skull base.

A

periorbital ecchymosis

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6
Q
  • maybe difficult to recognize initially because of the edema
  • may be indicated by clinical signs, which include black eyes, flattening of the cheek, and/or a restriction of the movement of the mandible
  • best demonstrated on underexposed films taken in the basal (submentovertical) projection (“jug handle” view)
A

Zygomatic Arch Fracture

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7
Q
  • generally detected by the patient’s inability to open the mouth and pain when moving the mandible
  • these fracture also cause a misalignment of the patient’s teeth
A

Mandibular Fractures

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8
Q
  • serious because of the adjacent nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, orbit and close proximity of the brain
  • the maxilla also transmits cranial nerves and major blood vessels
A

Fractures of the Maxilla

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9
Q

Maxillary fractures three major classifications:

A
  1. LeFort 1 (horizontal fracture)
  2. LeFort 2 (pyramidal fracture)
  3. LeFort 3 (transverse fracture)
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10
Q
  • refers to a separation of the body of the maxilla from the base of the skull above the palate and below the zygomatic process
  • results in a freely movable jaw
A

LeFort I (horizontal fracture)

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11
Q
  • involves vertical fractures through the maxilla at the malar and nasal bones, forming a triangular separation of the maxilla.
A

LeFort II (pyramidal fracture)

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12
Q

most extensive and serious type of maxillary fracture; it extends across the orbits

A

Lefort III ( transverse fracture)

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13
Q
  • results from a direct blow to the front of the orbit, thus transferring the force to the orbital walls and floor
  • occurs in the thinnest, weakest portion of the orbit, i.e., the orbital floor just above the maxillary sinuses
  • modified parietoacanthial projection (modified Waters method) is the preferred screening study
  • CT is the best modality for imaging the orbits
A

Blow-out

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14
Q
  • consists of fractures of the zygomatic arch and the orbital floor or rim combined with separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture
  • occurs when the zygomatic or malar bone is fractured at all three suture: frontal, temporal, and maxillary
A

Tripod

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15
Q
  • the most frequently fractured facial bone
  • usually transverse and depresses the distal portion of the nasal bones
  • may be accompanied by a fracture of the ascending process of the maxillae (anterior nasal spine) or of the nasal septum
A

Nasal Bone Fracture

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16
Q
  • results when a bone is out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation
  • Common sites for are the shoulders, hip, and acromioclavicular joints
A

JOINT DISLOCATION OR LUXATION

17
Q

most frequently dislocated joint of the body. Because it moves in several directions, your ____ can dislocate forward, backward or downward. The most common variety is a forward (anterior) dislocation.

A

Shoulder dislocation

18
Q

dislocation is described by which joint is affected and by the direction of the phalanx distal to the joint relative to the phalanx proximal to the dislocated joint (eg, dorsal dislocation at the PIPJ). It is important to assess for any associated fractures pre- and post-reduction:

A

Dislocations to the interphalangeal joints

19
Q
  • a partial dislocation, often occurring with fracture
  • ankle and the vertebral column are the common sites of ___
A

SUBLUXATION

20
Q
  • also referred to as nonaccidental trauma (NAT)
  • term associated with a physical form of child abuse
  • Physical child abuse often co exists with both emotional and sexual abuse
  • Physical signs include bruises, burns, abrasions, and fractures in various stages of healing
  • Radiographic signs of child abuse include hematomas, and single or multiple fractures of varying ages, especially in areas where it is difficult for the child to self-inflict the injury
A

BATTERED CHILD SYNDROME

21
Q
  • common form of avascular necrosis affecting the femoral head
  • the cause of this disorder is unknown
  • tends to occur in males between the ages of 4 to 10 years and often follows injury or trauma to the affected hip
  • clinically these patients present with a limp that is accompanied by little or no pain
  • Radiographically the bone in the center of the epiphysis is fragmented and the head of the femur is flattened.
A

LEGG-CALVE-PERTHES DISEASE

22
Q

causes of ____ injuries include direct trauma, hyperextension-flexion injuries (whiplash), osteoporosis or metastatic destruction.

A

VERTEBRAL COLUMN INJURIES

23
Q
  • most frequent type of injury involving a vertebral body
  • generally occur in the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
  • also associated with osteoporosis
A

COMPRESSION FRACTURES

24
Q
  • “burst fracture” of the first cervical vertebra (atlas)
  • generally occurs as a result of a severe axial force that causes compression, as in a diving accident
  • vertebral arch literally bursts
A

JEFFERSON FRACTURE

25
Q
  • fracture of the arch of the second cervical vertebrae and is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical vertebrae or the third cervical vertebrae
  • c2-c3
A

HANGMAN’S FRACTURE

26
Q
  • an avulsion fracture of a spinous process in the lower cervical or upper thoracic spine
A

CLAY SHOVELER FRACTURE

27
Q
  • exists when there is a cleft or breaking down, of the body of a vertebra between the superior and inferior articular processes (pars interarticularis).
  • occurs in the arch of the fifth lumbar vertebrae and appears radiographically as a “collar” or “broken neck” on the Scottie dog appearance and is demonstrated on an oblique projection of the lumbar spine.
A

SPONDYLOLYSIS

28
Q
  • forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebra that occurs because of spondylolysis
  • patient with this condition may present symptoms identical to those of a herniated disk
A

SPONDYLOLISTHESIS

pathology (16 decks)

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