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HLTH 231 > Module 10: Considering Your Reproductive Choices and Protecting Against Infectious Diseases and STDs > Flashcards

Module 10: Considering Your Reproductive Choices and Protecting Against Infectious Diseases and STDs Flashcards

1
Q

define fertility

A
  • person’s ability to reproduce
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2
Q

what percent of pregnancies in the US are unintended

A

51%

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3
Q

define contraception

A
  • methods of preventing conception
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4
Q

define conception

A
  • fertilization of an ovum by a sperm
  • takes place in fallopian tube
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5
Q

what 3 conditions are necessary for conception

A
  • a viable egg: 24-16 hours after release into fallopian tube
  • a viable sperm: 48 hours to 1 week after reaching fallopian tube
  • access to the egg by the sperm
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6
Q

difference between contraceptives and birth control

A
  • contraceptives: devices, behaviors, or drugs that prevent conception
  • birth control: any method reducing the likelihood of pregnancy and childbirth; including contraceptives, contragestion, and abortion
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7
Q

what two concepts evaluate the effectiveness of a particular contraceptive method

A
  • perfect-use failure rate
  • typical-use failure rate
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8
Q

define perfect-use failure rate

A
  • number of pregnancies that are likely to occur in the first year of use if the method is used perfectly
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9
Q

define typical-use failure rate

A
  • number of pregnancies that are likely to occur in the first year of typical use
  • normal number of errors, memory lapses, and incorrect or incomplete use
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10
Q

what are categories of present methods of contraception

A
  • barrier methods
  • hormonal methods
  • intrauterine methods
  • behavioral methods
  • permanent methods
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11
Q

define barrier methods

A
  • block the egg and sperm from joining
  • physical or chemical
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12
Q

examples of barrier methods

A
  • male condom
  • female condom
  • jellies, creams, foams, suppositories, and film
  • diaphragm with spermicidal jelly or cream
  • cervical cap with spermicidal jelly or cream
  • contraceptive sponge
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13
Q

define male condom

A
  • thin sheath designed to cover the erect penis and prevent semen from entering the vagina
  • can be lubricated or have spermicide
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14
Q

what are most male condoms made of

A
  • latex
  • some can be polyurethane, polyisoprene, or lambskin
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15
Q

how much space should be left at the tip of the condom and why

A
  • 1/2 inch space
  • catches ejaculate
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16
Q

advantages of male condoms

A
  • only temporary means of birth control for men
  • only barriers that effectively prevent STIs
  • inexpensive and readily available
  • no negative health effects
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17
Q

disadvantages of male condoms

A
  • potential for user error
  • may ruin spontaneity of sex
  • may decrease sensation
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18
Q

define female condom

A
  • single-use, soft, lubricated, loose-fitting sheath meant for internal vaginal use
  • one flexible ring at each end: one holds in place over the cervix, other remains outside to protect labia
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19
Q

advantages of female condoms

A
  • can prevent STIs, including those transmitted by external genital contact
  • can be inserted in advance to not disrupt sex
  • more personal control for females
  • less loss of sensation than male condom
  • inexpensive and readily available
  • no negative health effects
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20
Q

disadvantages of female condoms

A
  • potential for user error
  • may be disruptive, odd-looking, or difficult to use
  • some women have reported external or vaginal irritation
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21
Q

define jellies, creams, foams, suppositories, and film

A
  • spermicides
  • jellies, creams, and foams: applicators for insertion into the vagina to the cervix; chemical and physical barrier
  • suppositories: capsules inserted into the vagina
  • film: thin film with spermicidal gel covers the cervix
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22
Q

advantages of jellies, creams, foams, suppositories, and film

A
  • inexpensive
  • readily available
  • simple to use
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23
Q

disadvantages of jellies, creams, foams, suppositories, and film

A
  • most effective when used with another method
  • messy
  • may cause irritation or allergic reactions
  • not effective against some STIs
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24
Q

define diaphragm with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • soft and shallow cup made form thin latex rubber
  • sits behind pubic bone in front of the cervix and over the back of the cervix
  • spermicidal cream or jelly applied to the inside of the diaphragm before insertion
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25
Q

is a diaphragm effective without spermicide

A
  • no
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26
Q

advantages of diaphragms with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • lower typical-use failure rate than other barrier methods
  • less disruptive than other methods because it can be inserted up to 6 hours in advance
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27
Q

disadvantages of diaphragms with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • may require visit to healthcare provider to have one fitted
  • difficult to insert and remove
  • cannot be used during menstrual period
  • can cause toxic shock syndrome if left in for longer than 48 hours
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28
Q

define cervical cap with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • clear silicone cup that fits snuggly over the entire cervix
  • held in place by suction created during application
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29
Q

advantages of cervical caps with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • relatively effective
  • inexpensive
  • less disruptive than other barrier methods
  • suitable for people allergic to latex
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30
Q

disadvantages of cervical caps with spermicidal jelly or cream

A
  • difficult to insert
  • requires initial fitting by physician
  • cannot be used during menstrual period
  • may cause toxic shock syndrome if left in for over 48 hours
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31
Q

define contraceptive sponge

A
  • small, round pillow of polyurethane foam
  • moistened with water prior to insertion to activate spermicide
  • protection lasts for 24 hours
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32
Q

advantages of contraceptive sponges

A
  • convenience: doesn’t require trip to physician for fitting
  • more spontaneity than other barrier methods
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33
Q

disadvantages of contraceptive sponges

A
  • less effective for women who have given birth
  • may cause allergic reactions
  • risk of yeast infection and STIs
  • cannot be used during menstruation
  • difficult and messy to remove
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34
Q

define hormonal methods

A
  • contain synthetic estrogen, progestin, or both
  • synthetic estrogen: prevents ovulation
  • synthetic progestin: thickens cervical mucus and prevents fertilized egg from implanting
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35
Q

examples of hormonal methods

A
  • oral contraceptives
  • contraceptive skin patch (xulane)
  • vaginal contraceptive ring
  • contraceptive injections
  • contraceptive implants
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36
Q

define oral contraceptives

A
  • birth control pill
  • must take pill at same time everyday
  • does not protect against STIs
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37
Q

what is the most commonly used birth control method among college women

A

oral contraceptives

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38
Q

what are the two types of oral contraceptive pills

A
  • combination
  • progestin-only
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39
Q

define combination pills

A
  • both syntenic estrogen and synthetic progestin
  • 3 week cycle of pills; some have extended cycles
  • still have menstrual period but it is lighter
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40
Q

advantages of combination pills

A
  • highly effective at preventing pregnancy
  • lessen menstrual difficulties
  • lowers risk of some cancers, ovarian cysts, PIV, and anemia
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41
Q

disadvantages of combination pills

A
  • risk of health problems in older women
  • many side effects
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42
Q

define progestin-only pills

A
  • only have progestin; no estrogen
  • 28-day packs
  • ovulation may occur but it still thickens cervical mucus and interferes with fertilized egg implantation
  • used for people who have estrogen-relates side effects and those older than 35
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43
Q

advantages of progestin-only pills

A
  • highly effective at preventing pregnancy
  • no estrogen-related cardiovascular risks
  • less side effects than combination pills
  • light or no periods
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44
Q

disadvantages of progestin-only pills

A
  • super important that you take them at the same time every day
  • still some side effects
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45
Q

define contraceptive skin patch (xulane)

A
  • transdermal adhesive patch
  • worn for 1 week and replaced for 3 consecutive weeks
  • delivers continuous levels of estrogen and progestin into the blood stream
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46
Q

advantages of contraceptive skin patches (xulane)

A
  • easier to remember to replace weekly than to take a daily pill
  • may offer reduction in risk of certain health conditions
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47
Q

disadvantages of contraceptive skin patches (xulane)

A
  • requires exam from physician and prescription
  • expensive
  • no protection against STIs
  • estrogen in it causes cardiovascular risks
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48
Q

define vaginal contraceptive ring (nuvaring)

A
  • soft, flexible plastic hormonal contraceptive ring
  • inserted into vagina and stays for 3 weeks; removed for one week
  • releases steady flow of estrogen and progestin
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49
Q

advantages of vaginal contraceptive rings (nuvaring)

A
  • lower risk of user error
  • no need for physician to fit it
  • rapid return of fertility once use is stopped
  • lower dose of estrogen than patch and some combination pills
  • potential health benefits
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50
Q

disadvantages of vaginal contraceptive rings (nuvaring)

A
  • requires physician exam and prescription
  • expensive
  • no STI protection
  • side effects of vaginal discharge, vaginal irritation, infection
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51
Q

define contraceptive injections (depo-provera)

A
  • IM or subq
  • long acting progestin injected every 3 months
  • prevents ovulation, thickens cervical mucus, and thins uterine lining
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52
Q

advantages of contraceptive injections (depo-provera)

A
  • little user error
  • light or no menstrual period
  • no estrogen-related health risks
  • potential health benefits
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53
Q

disadvantages of contraceptive injections (depo-provera)

A
  • requires initial exam and prescription
  • follow up visits every 3 months for injections
  • no STI protection
  • irregular bleeding
  • weight gain
  • loss of bone density
  • side effects may linger for up to 6 months after last shot
  • fertility may not return for up to 1 year after final injection
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54
Q

define contraceptive implants (nexplanon)

A
  • small, soft plastic capsule inserted beneath the skin of the upper arm
  • releases low, steady dose of progestin for up to 3 years
  • suppresses ovulation
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55
Q

advantages of contraceptive implants (nexplanon)

A
  • discreet
  • highly effective
  • only needs to be replaced every 3 years
  • light or no menstrual periods
  • lack of estrogen-related side effects
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56
Q

disadvantages of contraceptive implants (nexplanon)

A
  • insertion and removal must be done by healthcare provider
  • higher initial cost
  • side effects of irritation, allergic reaction, swelling around area of insertion
  • less effective in women who are overweight
  • irregular bleeding
  • no STI protection
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57
Q

define intrauterine methods

A
  • interfere with sperm movement and egg fertilization
  • small device inserted into the uterus
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58
Q

examples of intrauterine methods

A
  • paraguard
  • mirena
  • skyla
  • liletta
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59
Q

define paraguard IUD

A
  • copper around the shaft
  • contains no hormones
  • can be left in place for 12 years
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60
Q

define mirena IUD

A
  • releases small amounts of progestin
  • effective for 5 years
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61
Q

define skyla IUD

A
  • lower dose and small sized version of mirena IUD
  • designed for women who have not yet had a baby
  • effective for 3 years
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62
Q

define liletta IUD

A
  • more affordable than other IUDs
  • effective for 3 years
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63
Q

advantages of IUDs

A
  • safe, discreet, and highly effective
  • paraguard: contains no hormones so it has none of the potential negative health impacts
  • skyla, mirena, liletta: same benefits as other progestin only methods, light or no periods
  • fully reversible after removal
  • no need to remember anything daily or weekly
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64
Q

disadvantages of IUDs

A
  • discomfort during insertion and removal
  • expensive
  • no STI protection
  • paraguard: heavy menstrual flow, acne, mood changes, cramps
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65
Q

define behavioral methods

A
  • temporary or permanent abstinence or planning intercourse around fertility patterns
  • require more self-control, diligence, and commitment
  • more prone to user error
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66
Q

examples of behavioral methods

A
  • withdrawal
  • abstinence and “outercourse”
  • fertility awareness methods
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67
Q

define withdrawal

A
  • removing penis from vagina just before ejaculation
  • high risk of pregnancy and STI transmission
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68
Q

define abstinence and “outercourse”

A
  • abstinence includes avoiding oral, vaginal, and anal sex
  • outercourse includes oral sex and mutual masturbation
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69
Q

what is the only form of avoiding pregnancy and STIs that is 100% effective

A
  • abstinence
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70
Q

define fertility awareness methods

A
  • altering sex behavior during certain times of the month
  • observing female fertile periods and abstaining from sex during times when a viable sperm and egg could meet
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71
Q

common forms of fertility awareness methods

A
  • cervical mucus method: examining consistency and color of vaginal discharge
  • body temperature method: body temperature rises after ovulation
  • calendar method: keeping record of menstrual cycle
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72
Q

define permanent methods

A
  • sterilization
  • surgically block the sperm’s ability to fertilize the egg
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73
Q

define female sterilization

A
  • tubal ligation: fallopian tubes cut or tied
  • essure: placement of microcoils into fallopian tubes which promote scare tissue that blocks tubes
  • adiana: silicone insert placed into fallopian tubes creating scar tissue that blocks the tubes
  • hysterectomy: removal of uterus
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74
Q

advantages of female sterilization

A
  • highly effective
  • one time expense
  • no use of hormones
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75
Q

disadvantages of female sterilization

A
  • risks with tubal ligation surgery
  • long-term risks of essure and adiana are unknown
  • no STI protection
  • initially expensive
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76
Q

define male sterilization

A
  • vasectomy
  • small incision into scrotum and tying off vas deferens
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77
Q

advantages of male sterilization

A
  • highly effective
  • simple procedure
  • one time expense
  • no hormones used
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78
Q

disadvantages of male sterilization

A
  • no STI protection
  • surgery related risks
  • initially expensive
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79
Q

define emergency contraception

A
  • prevents pregnancy after unprotected sex, sexual assault, or failure of other birth control method
  • often are combination pills
  • must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex
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80
Q

define abortion

A
  • termination of a pregnancy by expulsion or removal of an embryo or fetus from the uterus
  • right to abortion from Roe v. Wade
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81
Q

what are the types of surgical abortions

A
  • suction curettage (vacuum aspiration or dilation and curettage)
  • dilation and evacuation
  • intact dilation and extraction
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82
Q

define suction curettage (dilation and curettage)

A
  • majority of abortions in the US
  • cervix dilated, long tube inserted into the uterus, gentle suction removed fetal tissues
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83
Q

define dilation and evacuation

A
  • abortion method during second or third trimester
  • cervix dilated, fetal tissue is scraped and vacuumed from uterus
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84
Q

define intact dilation and extraction

A
  • late term abortion procedure
  • body of fetus is extracted up to the head and contents of the cranium are aspirated
  • illegal in US
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85
Q

define medical abortion

A
  • termination of pregnancy using hormonal medications (mifepristone)
  • medicine blocks progesterone and uterine lining is expelled
  • performed before 9 weeks
  • must have follow up visits and observations by physicians
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86
Q

what should you evaluate before planning to have a baby

A
  • emotional health
  • finances
  • maternal age
  • maternal and paternal physical health
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87
Q

what is the average cost of raising a child to 18

A

$241,080

88
Q

what are age-related risks of pregnancy

A
  • down syndrome
  • miscarriage
89
Q

why is maternal physical health important when having a baby

A
  • fetus is susceptible to problems within the first 4 to 10 weeks of development, before prenatal care
  • must practice healthy behaviors such as nutrition when planning for a pregnancy
90
Q

define pregnancy testing

A
  • positive indicates presence of human chorionic gonadotropin
91
Q

what are early signs of pregnancy

A
  • missed period
  • breast tenderness
  • emotional upset
  • sleeplessness
  • nausea and vomiting
92
Q

what happens during the first trimester

A
  • few noticeable changes in mothers body
  • morning sickness
  • embryo develops organ systems starting with nervous and cardiovascular and becomes a fetus
93
Q

what happens during the second trimester

A
  • physical changes in the mother are more visible
  • placenta becomes well established
94
Q

what happens during the third trimester

A
  • greatest fetal growth
  • layer of fat develops
  • organs all dully develop
95
Q

what are essential parts of prenatal care

A
  • nutrition
  • exercise
  • avoiding drugs and alcohol
  • prenatal testing and screening
96
Q

define teratogenic

A
  • causing birth defects
  • refers to drugs, environmental chemicals, radiation, or diseases
97
Q

define fetal alcohol syndrome

A
  • pattern of birth defects, learning, and behavioral problems in a child caused by the mother’s alcohol consumption during pregnancy
98
Q

define toxoplasmosis

A
  • disease caused by an organism found in cat feces that, when contracted by a pregnant woman, may result in stillbirth or birth defects.
99
Q

define ultrasonography (ultrasound)

A
  • common prenatal test that uses sound waves to create a visual image of a developing fetus
  • determines fetal size and position
100
Q

define chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

A
  • prenatal test that involves snipping tissue from the fetal sac to be analyzed for genetic defects
101
Q

define triple marker screen (TMS)

A
  • common maternal blood test that can be used to identify certain birth defects and genetic abnormalities in a fetus
102
Q

define amniocentesis

A
  • test in which small amount of fluid is drawn from amniotic sac to test for down syndrome and other genetic abnormalities
103
Q

define the 3 stages of labor

A
  • stage 1: dilation of cervix
  • stage 2: baby’s head pushes through birth canal and baby is delivered
  • stage 3: delivery of placenta
104
Q

define episiotomy

A
  • incision in mother’s perineum to prevent the baby’s head from tearing vaginal tissue
105
Q

why might a C section be performed

A
  • labor lasts too long
  • baby is in physiological distress
  • maternal blood pressure is high
  • placenta separates before baby is ready to come out
106
Q

define preeclampsia

A
  • high blood pressure, protein in urine, and edema
  • causes strokes and seizures if untreated
107
Q

define miscarriage

A
  • caused by meiotic failure, genetic abnormalities, maternal illness, or infections
108
Q

define ectopic pregnancy

A
  • implantation of fertilized egg outside of the uterus
  • must be terminated
109
Q

define stillbirth

A
  • death of fetus after 20th week of pregnancy but before delivery
110
Q

define colostrum

A
  • yellow fluid secreted the first two days after birth
  • before milk starts to flow
  • contains antibodies
111
Q

advantages of breast feeding

A
  • baby gets antibodies and recovers from sickness faster
  • less likely to be obese later in life
  • fewer allergies
  • may be more intelligent
112
Q

define sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

A
  • unexpected death of child under 1 year for no apparent reason
  • exact cause is unknown
113
Q

define infertility

A
  • inability to conceive after a year or more of trying
114
Q

causes of infertility in women

A
  • polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
  • premature ovarian failure
  • endometriosis
  • pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
115
Q

causes of infertility in men

A
  • low sperm count
  • environmental factors
  • overweight
  • wearing excessively tight underwear
116
Q

define fertility drugs

A
  • stimulate ovulation in women who are not ovulating
  • have many side effects
  • increases risk of ovarian cysts and liver damage
117
Q

define alternative insemination

A
  • insemination of a woman with her partners sperm or sperm of anonymous donor
118
Q

define in vitro fertilization (IVF)

A
  • eggs and sperm mixed in lab to fertilize and transferred to the women’s uterus
119
Q

define surrogacy

A
  • woman hired to carry another person’s pregnancy to term
120
Q

what are the 2 types of adoption

A
  • confidential
  • open
121
Q

define confidential adoption

A
  • birth parents and adoptive parents never know each other
122
Q

define open adoption

A
  • both parents and adoptive parents know some information about each other
  • different levels of openness
123
Q

what are most infectious diseases

A
  • multifactorial
  • caused by interaction of several factors inside and outside the person
124
Q

define epidemiological triad of disease

A
  • host must come into contact with a pathogen
  • host must be susceptible to infection
  • environment must be hospitable to the pathogen
125
Q

define opportunistic infection

A
  • infections occurring in people with compromised immune systems
126
Q

define contact transmission

A
  • direct: skin or sexual contact
  • indirect: infected blood or body fluid
127
Q

define foodborne or waterborne transmission

A
  • eating, drinking, washing, and unsanitary food preparation
128
Q

define airborne transmission

A
  • infection spread by inhaling droplets from and infected person’s sneezes or coughs
129
Q

define vector-borne transmission

A
  • blood-sucking insects such as mosquitoes, fleas, flies, or ticks pass along pathogens when they bite human victims
130
Q

define perinatal transmission

A
  • similar to contact infection
  • happens as a baby passes through the birth canal or through breast feeding
131
Q

define autoinoculate

A
  • transmit pathogen from one part of your body to another
  • touching herpes sore on your lip and then touching your eye
132
Q

define zoonotic infections

A
  • animal-borne
  • rare in occurrence
  • dogs, cats, livestock, wild animals
  • lyme disease, rabies
133
Q

how can you reduce your risk of infectious disease

A
  • limit exposure to pathogens
  • exercise regularly
  • get enough sleep
  • stress less
  • optimize eating
134
Q

what risk factors for infection are not controllable

A
  • heredity
  • age
  • environmental conditions
  • organism virulence and resistance
135
Q

why is antibiotic resistance on the rise

A
  • overuse of antibiotics in food production
  • improper use of antibiotics by people
  • misuse and overuse of antibacterial soaps and other cleaning products
136
Q

what is the most critical early defense system from infection and why

A
  • skin
  • physical barrier
  • acidic pH discourages microbe growth
  • sweat and oil gland secretions kill many bacteria
137
Q

what protections does out body have against infections

A
  • skin
  • mucous membranes
  • cilia in respiratory tract
  • tears
  • earwax
138
Q

define antigen

A
  • substance capable of triggering an immune repsonse
139
Q

define antibodies

A
  • substances produced by the body that are individually matched to specific antigens
  • destroy or weaken the antigen
140
Q

define humoral immunity

A
  • aspect of immunity that is mediated by antibodies secreted by white blood cells
141
Q

define toxins

A
  • poisonous substances produced by certain microorganisms that cause various diseases
142
Q

define cell-mediated immunity

A
  • aspect of immunity that is mediated by specialized white blood cells that attack pathogens and antigens directly
143
Q

define lymphocyte

A
  • type of white blood cell
  • involved in immune response
  • main defense against viruses, fungi, parasites, and some bacteria
  • includes B lymphocytes (B cells) and T lymphocytes (T cells)
144
Q

define macrophage

A
  • type of white blood cell
  • ingests foreign material
145
Q

describe the role of the following lymphocytes: helper T cells, killer T cells, suppressor T cells, memory T and B cells

A
  • helper T cells: activate B cells to produce antibodies and other T cells and macrophages
  • killer T cells: directly attack infected cells
  • suppressor T cells: turn off activity of B cells, killer T cells, and macrophages
  • memory T and B cells: enables body to recognize and respond quickly to subsequent attacks by the same organism
146
Q

describe the body’s immune repsonse

A
  • antigens invade the body by breaking through protective barriers
  • helper T cells recognize the invading antigens and trigger the production of killer T cells and B cells
  • killer T cells destroy infected cells and B cells produce antibodies that attach to antigens and mark them for destruction by macrophages
  • suppressor T cells stop the activity of B cells, killer T cells, and macrophages and memory B and T cells are reserved
147
Q

define autoimmune disease

A
  • disease caused by overactive immune response against the body’s own cells
148
Q

symptoms of the inflammatory response

A
  • redness
  • swelling
  • pain
  • heat
149
Q

define vaccine

A
  • killed or weakened versions of pathogens
  • produces antibodies to help future attacks
  • artificially acquired active immunity
150
Q

what are the 6 categories of pathogens

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • protozoans
  • parasitic worms
  • prions
151
Q

define bacteria

A
  • unicellular
  • 3 major types: cocci, bacilli, spirilla
  • 100 known to cause disease in humans
152
Q

define staphylococci

A
  • present on skin or in nostrils
  • usually cause no problems
153
Q

define colonization

A
  • presence of infectious organisms on or in a person without infection
  • may spread organism to others
154
Q

define methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

A
  • bacteria that has grown resistant to methicillin antibiotic
  • one of the leading health care associated infection
  • appears as skin infection inflamed and painful with pus
155
Q

define clostridium difficile

A
  • leads to major inflammation of the colon and watery diarrhea
  • often caused by using antibiotics for other reasons and C. diff flourishes
156
Q

define streptococal infections

A
  • group A: strep throat, scarlet fever, flesh-eating strep
  • group B: illness in newborns, pregnant women, older adults, and adults with illnesses
157
Q

define meningitis

A
  • inflammation of meninges (membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord)
  • can be bacterial, viral, parasitic, and fungal
158
Q

what is the most serious infectious form of meningitis

A
  • bacterial meningitis
  • meningococcal meningitis
159
Q

how is bacterial meningitis spread

A
  • contact with saliva, nasal discharge, feces, or respiratory secretions
160
Q

symptoms of meningitis

A
  • sudden fever
  • headache
  • stiff neck
161
Q

define pneumonia

A
  • wide range of conditions that result in inflammation of the lungs and difficulty breathing
  • bacterial, viral, fungal
162
Q

define tuberculosis

A
  • airborne transmission
  • fever, cough, fluid and blood-filled lungs
  • has antibiotic resistant strains
163
Q

what are tick-borne bacterial diseases

A
  • lyme disease
  • babesiosis
  • ehrlichiosis
  • rickettsia: rocky mountain spotted fever, typhus
164
Q

define escherichia coli

A
  • one of 170 types of e. coli
  • most e. coli are harmless
  • e. coli O157:H7 produces toxin
  • food-borne or from swimming in contaminated water
165
Q

define viruses

A
  • smallest known pathogens
  • invade and inject their own DNA or RNA into host cells
166
Q

define incubation period

A
  • time between exposure to disease and appearance of symptoms
167
Q

define the common cold

A
  • many viruses responsible; mostly rhinovirus
  • endemic throughout the world
  • airborne, contact
168
Q

define influenza

A
  • many types
  • prevent through vaccination every year
169
Q

define hepatitis

A
  • inflammation of the liver
  • several forms (A, B, C, D, E)
170
Q

define hepatitis A

A
  • foodborne, waterborne, sexual contact, needles
  • declining rates since vaccine was developed
171
Q

define hepatitis B

A
  • spread through body fluids, sexual contact, or mother to baby
  • vaccine is available
172
Q

define hepatitis C

A
  • blood transfusion, organ transplants
  • epidemic rise in many regions of the world
  • vaccine not yet available
173
Q

examples of fungal infections

A
  • candidiasis (yeast infection)
  • athletes foot
  • ringworm
  • toenail fungus
  • valley fever
174
Q

examples of protozoan infections

A
  • malaria
  • african sleeping sickness
  • giardiasis
175
Q

examples of parasitic worms

A
  • pinworms
  • tapeworms
176
Q

define prion

A
  • self-replicating
  • protein based agent
177
Q

examples of prion infection

A
  • bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)
  • variant creutzfeld-jakob disease
178
Q

why have rates for many infectious diseases increased within the past decade

A
  • overpopulation
  • inadequate health care
  • increasing poverty
  • environmental changes
  • drug resistance
179
Q

examples of emerging and resurgent diseases

A
  • measles and mumps
  • west nile virus
  • avian and swine flu
180
Q

define chlamydia

A
  • bacterial
  • most commonly reported STI in the US
181
Q

signs and symptoms of chlamydia

A
  • men: painful urination, pus-like discharge from the penis
  • women: yellow discharge, spotting between periods
182
Q

chlamydia complications

A
  • men: injury to prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands; arthritis-like symptoms; inflammatory damage to blood vessels and heart; epididymitis
  • women: injure cervix or fallopian tubes; cause sterility; pelvic inflammatory disease
183
Q

diagnosis and treatment of chlamydia

A
  • sample of urine or fluids from vagina or penis collected and tested
  • easily treatable with antibiotics
184
Q

define gonorrhea

A
  • bacterial
  • primarily infects urethra, genital tract, pharynx, and rectum
  • can spread to eyes
185
Q

signs and symptoms of gonorrhea

A
  • men: milky discharge from penis; painful urination; epididymitis
  • women: most are asymptomatic; vaginal discharge, painful urination
186
Q

gonorrhea complications

A
  • men: spreads to prostate, testicles, urinary tract, kidneys, and bladder; may cause sterility; painful curvature during erection
  • women: spread to fallopian tubes and ovaries; causes sterility; PID, can spread through blood and infect the joints, heart valves, or brain; can be transmitted to baby
187
Q

diagnosis and treatment of gonorrhea

A
  • sample of urine or fluid from the vagina or penis
  • treatable in early stages but it has begun to develop resistance
188
Q

define syphilis

A
  • bacterial
  • high prevalence in african americans and men who have sex with men
  • transferred only through direct sexual contact or form mother to baby
  • known as great imitator because its symptoms resemble those of several other infections
189
Q

describe the first stage of syphilis

A
  • primary syphilis
  • development of chancre: oozing sore located at site of infection
190
Q

describe the second stage of syphilis

A
  • secondary syphilis
  • month to year after chancre disappears
  • rash or white patches on skin or mucous membranes
  • hair loss
  • enlarged lymph nodes
191
Q

describe the third stage of syphilis

A
  • latent syphilis
  • syphilis invades body organs
  • causes lesions called gummas
  • rarely transmitted to others
192
Q

describe the fourth and final stage of syphilis

A
  • tertiary/late syphilis
  • years after syphilis entered the body
  • heart and central nervous system damage
  • blindness
  • deafness
  • paralysis
  • dementia
193
Q

syphilis complications

A
  • pregnant women can experience premature births, miscarriages, stillbirth, or transmit infection to baby
194
Q

diagnosis and treatment of syphilis

A
  • blood test or chancre sample
  • easily treated with antibiotics, usually penicillin
195
Q

define herpes

A
  • viral
  • sores or eruptions on skin
  • transmitted through sex, kissing, or sharing eating utensils
  • two types of the virus: 1 in 6 americans have HSV2; half of all adults have HSV1
196
Q

signs and symptoms of herpes

A
  • redness at site of infection
  • blister filled with clear fluid
  • virus will be dormant until immune system is compromised; blister will reform
197
Q

herpes complications

A
  • can be passed to baby during birth; c-section needed
198
Q

diagnosis and treatment of herpes

A
  • collecting sample from sore or performing blood test
  • no cure; antiviral medications can prevent or shorten outbreaks
199
Q

define human papillomavirus (HPV)

A
  • viral
  • causes genital warts and can lead to cervical cancer
  • many different types of viruses
200
Q

signs and symptoms of human papillomavirus (HPV)

A
  • incubation period: 6 to 8 weeks
  • genital warts: series of bumps or growths on the genitals
201
Q

human papillomavirus (HPV) complications

A
  • cervical cancer
  • cancer around the tonsils
  • possible risk factor for coronary artery disease
  • transmitted to baby during delivery
202
Q

diagnosis and treatment of human papillomavirus (HPV)

A
  • visual examination of genital warts; pap smear in women
  • treatment for low-risk forms that cause genital warts; topical medication; frozen with liquid nitrogen
203
Q

define candidiasis

A
  • fungal
  • yeast infection in vagina
  • thrush in mouth
  • normal in vagina
  • multiply and cause fungal disease when normal chemical balance of vagina is disturbed
204
Q

signs and symptoms of candidiasis

A
  • severe itching and burning of vagina
  • white cheesy discharge
  • white patches in mouth
205
Q

diagnosis and treatment of candidiasis

A
  • collecting vaginal sample
  • antifungal drugs applied to surface or by suppository
206
Q

define trichomoniasis

A
  • protozoan
  • sexual contact and items with discharged fluid on them
207
Q

signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis

A
  • men: most are asymptomatic; irritation inside the penis; mild discharge; slight burning after urination
  • women: yellow discharge; burning sensation; itching; painful urination
208
Q

diagnosis and treatment of trichomoniasis

A
  • collecting fluid samples from penis or vagina
  • oral medications
209
Q

define public lice

A
  • parasitic
  • often called crabs
210
Q

signs and symptoms of public lice

A
  • itchiness
  • bluish-gray skin color in pubic region
  • sores in genital area
211
Q

diagnosis and treatment of public lice

A
  • exam by health care provider
  • washing clothes, furniture, and linens that may arbor eggs; takes 2 to 3 weeks to kill all larval forms
212
Q

define human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A
  • virus that causes AIDS
  • majority infected in sub-saharan africa
213
Q

how is HIV transmitted

A
  • body fluids: semen, vaginal secretions, blood
  • sexual contact, contact with infected blood through needles, mother to child
214
Q

signs and symptoms of HIV/AIDS

A
  • opportunistic infections: infections when immune system in compromised
  • pre-AIDS: colds, sore throats, fever, tiredness, nausea, night sweats
  • progressing HIV: wasting syndrome, swollen lymph nodes, neurological problems
  • AIDS: dangerously low CD4 cell count
215
Q

testing for HIV

A
  • blood test ELISA detects antibodies
  • PCR test detects genetic material of HIV
  • rapid HIV tests using blood or oral fluids
216
Q

treatments for HIV

A
  • combination of drugs: protease inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors

HLTH 231 (14 decks)

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