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Mod 2: Histology Flashcards

1
Q

Innate immunity: passive vs active

Adaptive immunity: passive vs active

A

INNATE
Passive: mom ANTIBODIES move across placenta (IgG to fetus)/in breast milk (IgA to infant)
Active: ANTIBODIES for neutralization, opsonization, precipitation of toxin or pathogen (antidotes)
ADAPTIVE
Passive: immunization WITH BACTERIAL/VIRAL EPITOPES
Active: real-life exposure TO PATHOGEN

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2
Q

Differences b/w innate and adaptive immunity

A

Innate: both active and passive – Ab introduced to person
Adaptive: both active and passive – exposure to actual pathogen

Innate: no memory cells produced
Adaptive: memory cells produced

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3
Q

Initial vs repeat exposure timeline

A

More efficient and specific antibody molec during repeat exposure
Initial:
1. Innate immune sys EARLY inflammation (0-4 hrs)
2. Innate immune sys LATE inflammation (4-5 days)
3. Adaptive immune sys (14 days)
4. Pathogen removal/tissue repair

Repeat

  1. Innate immune sys EARLY inflammation (0-4 hrs)
  2. Innate immune sys LATE inflammation (2-3 days) SHORTER
  3. Adaptive immune sys (5-7 days)
  4. Pathogen removal/tissue repair
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4
Q

MHC I vs MHC II

A

MHC I: on all nucleated cells of body

MHC II: on phago WBC that have been activated (engulfed a pathogen)

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5
Q

Where are MHC I molec synthesized?

A 
RER
TGN (trans golgi network)
membrane
embedded in plasma membrane
**MHC I always produced by our cells**
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6
Q

PRR

What cells are they located on?

A 
Toll receptors -- recognize PAMPs
located on:
neutrophils
periph tissue macrophages
periph tissue NK
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7
Q

PAMPs

A

surface molec with repeated/identical protein (glycoprotein) subunits on pathogens

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8
Q

Proinflammatory cytokines

A

histamine (basophils, mast cells) – vasodilation, inc cell permeability
prostaglandin (damaged cells) – smooth muscle in blood vessel wall contracts, vasodilation, inc cell permeability

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9
Q

Bonds that hold light chains to heavy chains

heavy chains to heavy chains

A

disulfide

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10
Q

Structure of heavy and light chains of Ab

A

Heavy and light chains both have variable and constant region
2 heavy and 2 light chains per antibody
variable region is where antigen epitope binds

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11
Q

Functions of antibodies – initial binding

A

Neutralization: Ab covers biologically active part of microbe/toxin
Agglutination: Ab cross-links cells – forms clump
Precipitation: Ab cross-links circulating particles to form an insoluble complex
enhance recognition and diminish disease-causing properties

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12
Q

Antibody functions – after binding

A

Complement fixation: Fc region of antibody binds complement proteins, complement is activated
Opsonization: Fc region of antibody binds to receptors of phago cells, triggering phagocytosis
Activation of NK cells: Fc region of antibody binds to NK cell, triggering release of cytotoxic chemicals
facilitate removal of pathogen

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13
Q

Functions of immune-lymphatic sys

A

Transport medium (moves WBC and immunesignalling molec b/w blood, periph tissues, immune sys organs)
Circulation of digested/absorbed lipids (from GI tract to heart)
Recognition, degradation, and removal of antigens

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14
Q

MBL vs classic pathway

A

MBL: day 1, does not require Ab
classic: day 5-7, REQUIRES Ab

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15
Q

Where are complement proteins produced?

A

liver (they are soluble plasma proteins)

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16
Q

What are the pro-inflammatory cytokines?

A

C3a

C5a

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17
Q

What opsonizes the pathogen?

A

C3b

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18
Q

When do monocytes become macrophages?

A

when exit bloodstream and enter periph tissue

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19
Q

Unique resident pop of macrophages

A

Langerhan’s: skin/epidermis
Kupfer: liver
Microglia: brain/SC

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20
Q

Cells involved in innate vs adaptive response

A

Innate:

  • -neutrophils
  • -monocytes/ macrophages/ dendritic cells

Adaptive:

  • -B cells
  • -T cells
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21
Q

PAMP – PRR interactions result in…

A

inflammatory cytokines released
increased numbers of phago cells
number of pathogens dec

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22
Q

CD4+

CD8+

A

CD4+ on helper T cell

CD8+ on cytotoxic (killer) T cell

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23
Q

NK cells as a “tweaker”

A

intermediate in specificity

bridge b/w innate and adaptive immune responses

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24
Q

Describe flow of lymph fluid

A 
unidirectional
away from periph tissue
toward lymph node
toward heart
returned to blood at brachiocephalic vv
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25
Q

Describe structure of lymphatic vessels

A

thin walls of smooth muscle (1-2 layers)

valves

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26
Q

Most lymph fluid drains to…

A 
thoracic duct 
(drains into left subclavian v/ brachiocephalic v)
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27
Q

Right arm and head lymph fluid drains to…

A

right lymphatic duct

drains to right subclavian v/ brachiocephalic v

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28
Q

Higher number of lymph nodes in…

A 
Cervical
Axillary
Breasts
Abdominal
Inguinal regions
(at major intersections in body where there are aa and vv/ areas where there is direct access to outside world)
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29
Q

Size of lymph nodes

A

1-25 mm in diameter

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30
Q

Hilum of lymph node

A

entry/exit point of lymph node
entry for arterial blood
exit for venous blood
exit for filtered lymph fluid (EFFERENT lymphatic vessels)

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31
Q

Afferent vs efferent lymphatic vessels

A

Afferent: to
Efferent: away (efferent becomes afferent as passes to next node)

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32
Q

Structure of lymph node

A

covered by thin, fibrous capsule
subcapsular space (filled with lymph fluid)
collagen fibers from capsule invaginate to form trabeculi in stroma of node
lymph fluid moves through trabecular sinuses toward central region (which is filled with lymph fluid)
medullary sinus

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33
Q

Residents of subcapsular sinus

A

follicular dendritic cells (these are the best macrophages/APCs)

  • -pathogen debris or APC presents to follicular dendrites
  • -pathogen material attaches to follicular dendritic cells –> activate WBC for specific response
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34
Q

Functions of respiratory sys

A 
Main site of gas exchange
--conduct, warm, moisten air
--exchange air from environment with CO2 produced by cells of the body
Acid-base balance of body
Phonation (larynx)
Pulmonary defense (thick lamina propria with immune cells)
Metabolism
Olfactioin
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35
Q

Components of conducting portion of resp sys

A
  • -nasal cavity
  • -nasopharynx
  • -larynx
  • -trachea
  • -primary bronchi
  • -terminal bronchioles
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36
Q

Features of conducting portion of resp sys

A

Passages that deliver air to lung
No alveoli
Warm, moisten, and filter air b/f reaches resp portion

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37
Q

Components of resp portion of resp sys

A

Resp bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Alveolar sacs
Alveoli (primary site of gas exchange)

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38
Q

Upper resp sys structures

A

Sphenoidal sinus
Frontal sinus
Nasal cavity
Pharynx

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39
Q

Lower resp tract contents

A

Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs

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40
Q

Amount of mucous removed by beating cilia per minute

A

10 mm per minute

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41
Q

Purpose of lysozymes, IgA in secretions from Bowman’s glands

A

prevent pathogens from gaining intracranial entry

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42
Q

Functions of the larynx

A

Close trachea during swallowing (epiglottis is in the larynx)
Produce sound – true vocal cords

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43
Q

Ventricle

Ventricular folds

A

Ventricle: elongated space that separates TRUE vocal cords and FALSE vocal cords (ventricular folds)
Ventricular folds: FALSE vocal cords

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44
Q

Vestibule of larynx

A

area above the vocal cords

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45
Q

Functions of trachea

A

conduit for air

remains open

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46
Q

Cell types at bronchioalveolar duct junction

A

clara cells

cuboidal cells

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47
Q

ACE

A

Angiotensin converting enzymes (ACE, CD143)
transmembrane ectopeptidase
angiotensin I –> II
Inactivates kinins
Important for regulation of vascular tone and BP

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48
Q

What kind of immunity is occurs in lymph nodes?

A

Adaptive immunity

–specific cells become activated and mobilized against single pathogen

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49
Q

Residents of subcapsular sinus

A

follicular dendritic cells
(pathogen debris or APC present to follicular dendritic cells)
(pathogen material attaches to follicular dendritic cells –> activate WBC for specific immune sys)

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50
Q

Bacterial infection pathway in lymph node

A

Activate APC
Activates Th2
Th activates B cell –> plasma cell produces Ab

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51
Q

Viral infection pathway in lymph node

A

Th1 activates cytotoxic (killer) T cells
Killer T cell leaves lymph node –> goes through venous blood to site of infection
Release perforin at cells with MHC I displaying viral epitope

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52
Q

What is the difference b/w action of plasma cells of bacterial infection and cytotoxic T cells of viral infection?

A

Plasma cells do not leave the node, only Ab produced by plasma cell leave the node
Cytotoxic T cells leave the node

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53
Q

HEV

A

high endothelila venules – where gas and nutrient exchange occurs in lymph node

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54
Q

Some of the fluid in the lymph node is absorbed directly back into the blood stream – why is this important?

A

Less fluid moving through the lymph node allows for SLOWER flow through node – so WBC can better examine pathogen debris

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55
Q

Afferent and efferent lymph vessel valves

A

both afferent and efferent lymph vessels have valves – except in the head and neck

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56
Q 
Cells in:
subcapsular sinus
paracortex
lymphatic nodules
medullary cords
A

subcapsular sinus: dendritic cells
paracortex: Th cells
lymphatic nodules: B cells
medullary cords: macrophages, Th and killer T cells, plasma cells

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57
Q

Cells in parts of the lymphatic nodule
Primary follicle
Germinal center of secondary follicle
Plasma cells move to…?

A

Primary: resting B cells
Germinal center of secondary follicle: activated/dividing B cells
Plasma cells move to medullary cords

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58
Q

CD4+ vs CD8+ cells

A

CD4+: Th1 and Th2

CD8+: cytotoxic killer T cells

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59
Q

Primary lymphoid organ

A

Primary: give rise to or help mature lymphocytes (red bone marrow and thymus)

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60
Q

Structures formed from lateral plate/splanchnic mesoderm in 3 week old embryo

A

Pericardial sac (fibrous CT)
Cardiac muscle (contractile, conducting, neuroendocrine)
Fibrous skeleton (fibrous CT)
–AV valves, semi lunar valves, tendinous cords
Blood vessels of heart
Blood cells to circulate

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61
Q

In what week are there rudimentary organs of every sys?

A

week 8

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62
Q

RBC begin development where? What time? Features?

Then start production in embryo…where? time? features?

A

Day 21: RBC with NUCLEUS produced in extraembryonic meso covering yolk sac
Week 5: RBC WITHOUT nucleus produced in embryo in splanchnic meso near organs

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63
Q

Vasculogenesis vs angiogenesis

A

Vasculo: formation of NEW blood vessels
Angio: formation of new blood vessels FROM EXISTING blood vessels
BOTH REQUIRE VEGF

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64
Q

Receptors for vasculogenesis

A

Flk-1: vasculogenesis –> hemangioblasts (clusters of MSCs)

Flt-1: vasculogenesis –> capillary tube formation

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65
Q

Locations of blood cell development during embryonic/fetal life

A

yolk sac
liver/spleen
bone marrow

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66
Q

Due to the embryology of the development of the heart and diaphragm…

A

heart attached to skeletal muscle of diaphragm via fibrous connection

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67
Q

Mesothelium

A

single layer of simple squamous epithelium with underlying aerolar CT found in one of the closed ventral body cavities (thoracic, abdominopelvic)

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68
Q

Purkinje fibers are what kind of cell

A

modified cardiac m cells

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69
Q

Intecellular junctions in cardiac muscle

A 
fascia adherens = zonula adherens (belt desmosome)
macula adheres (spot desmosome)
Gap junctions at longitudinal portion of intercalcated discs
(gap junctions on steps, adherens on risers)
70
Q

Myofilaments arranged in what shape?

A

hexagonal arrangement

71
Q

Fascia adherens of cardiac muscle are the same as…

A

zonula adherens

72
Q

every cell in the body is … cell widths from blood supply

A

2 cell widths

73
Q

Capillaries follow the … axis of cardiac myocytes

A

long axis

74
Q

All conducting cells in heart linked by what kind of junctions?

A

gap junctions

75
Q

SA node location

A 
right atrium (superiorly on back wall of right atrium)
Where R nodal a comes in and disperses oxy blood to right atrial wall (from R coronary a)
76
Q

Parasym ganglion in SA node comes from what nerve?

A

Vagus CN X (postganglionic neurons here)

Ach released – slow HR

77
Q

Contractile vs conducting cells in cardiac muscle

A

Contractile: parallel rows of mito, organized sarcomeres
Conducting: lack organized sarcomere arrangement – conduction of ions to surrounding contractile myocytes

78
Q

Bundle of His located…

A

embedded in interventricular septum AKA atrioventricular bundle

79
Q

Do purkinje fibers extend into what kind of muscles in the ventricles?

A

Papillary muscles

cusps of AV valves – cause papillary muscles to contract

80
Q

Type of stimulation that inc cardiac output
Dec cardiac output
Also NT involved?

A

Inc: sym – more rapid and forceful contraction
–epinephrine/norepinephrine (postgang)
Dec: parasym – back to normal HR
–Ach (pre and postgang)

81
Q

Normal HR

A

60-100 bpm

82
Q

Bradychardia

A-fibrillation

A

Bradychardia: abnormally slow HR

A-fib: no atrial contraction (no P wave)

83
Q

How does heart demonstrate auto-rhythmicity

A

SA nodal cells – resting membrane potential more pos than other excitable cells in body
Leaky Na+ channels allow slow creep towards threshold potential
Nodal cells have a long refractory period (compared to contractile m cells in atria and ventricles)

84
Q

3 internodal pathways from SA –> AV nodes

A

Ant
Middle
Post
*internodal cells histologically similar to purkinje fibers (smaller in diameter –> conduction velocity is slower)

85
Q

Resting HR w/ and w/o sym stimulation

A

w/ sym stimulation: 80 bpm
w/o sym stimulation: 60 bpm (freq rate of SA node)
freq rate of AV nodal cells: 40-60 bpm
freq rate of bundle/purkinje fibers: 15-40 bpm

86
Q

Sympathetic neurons that transmit en passant neuronal impulse
What NT involved?
Where is this used?

A

multiple bulbous enlargements along length of axons where NT stored/ released
more rapid stimulation/ more coordinated contraction
sym post-gang neuron –> norepinephrine
Important in heart and GI tract

87
Q

Fibrous skeleton of heart is what kind of tissue?

A

dense irregular CT with SSqE

88
Q

Histology of heart valves

A

fibrous CT
collagen (mostly)
some elastic fibers
generated from endocardial cushions

89
Q

Describe layers of tissue of heart valve

A 
Endothelial lining (simple squamous)
Spongiosa (loose CT/aereolar)
Fibrosa (dense irreg CT)
Ventricularis (dense irreg CT)
Endothelial lining (simple squamous)
90
Q

Layers of chordae tendinae

A

endothelium on outer surface

dense regular CT at core (no blood supply)

91
Q

Simple pathway
Arteriovenosus shunt
Portal sys (arterial vs venous)

A

Simple: artery –> capillary bed –> vein
Arteriovenosus: artery –> vein (bypasses capillary bed)
–used in distal extremities when exposed to large drop in ambient temp
–vasoconstriction – dump blood back to heart
Portal sys: 2 capillary beds in between artery and vein
–ARTERIAL portal sys: 1st capillary bed has no gas or nutrient exchange, just collect molec from surrounding cells –> artery –> 2nd capillary bed where molec can diffuse out and gases and nutrients are exchanged here
–VENOUS portal sys: gases and nutrients exchanged in 1st capillary bed –> vein –> more waste products and CO2 picked up in 2nd capillary bed, nutrients that were picked up in 1st can now diffuse out

92
Q

Arteries vs veins

A

aa: thicker walls, narrower lumen, deep to vv
vv: thinner walls, wider lumen, more superficial than aa – protection
- -blood in vv at lower pressure/lower resistance

93
Q

Edema vs hypertension – ICF, blood plasma, ECF balance

A

Edema: lower blood plasma, higher extracellular fluid
Hypertension: higher blood plasma, lower extracellular fluid

94
Q

Layers of arteries and veins

A

Tunica intima/endothelium: simple squamous/basement membrane with thin aerolar layer just below surface lining
Tunica media: smooth muscle
Tunica externa/adventitia: fibrous connective tissue (vascularized in larger blood vessels)

95
Q

Compare histology of aa and vv

A

**all aa and vv have same 3 layers
**vasa vasorum in both aa and vv
Tunica media thicker in aa
Adventitia thinner in aa

Tunica media thinner in vv
Adventitia thicker in vv
vv have valves

96
Q

blood vessels from heart and aorta, proximal to aorta (large aa) are … aa due to …
blood vessels distal to aorta (medium aa) are … aa

A

proximal to aorta (large): elastic aa due to high pressure of AV pump
–intima has internal elastic layer + endothelium
distal to aorta (medium): muscular aa
–intima only endothelium

97
Q

Where are elastic fibers in elastic aa?

A

Tunica media

Embedded b/w smooth muscle

98
Q

Muscular aa – describe tunica media

Elastic aa – describe tunica media

A

Muscular: single sheet of elastic fibers sandwich tunica media
–internal and external elastic lamina
Elastic: elastic fibers embedded in tunica media

99
Q

Larger vv in extremities – how move blood

A

valves (thin flaps of simple sq epithelium)

skeletal muscles

100
Q

Valves derived from what layer of bv?

A

tunica intima (extensions of simple squamous epithelium/endothelium)

101
Q

Glomus bodies/carotid bodies

A

embedded in wall of common carotid a (elastic a)
chemoreceptive (changes in O2, CO2, H+) –> release NT onto dendrites of sensory afferents of CN IX –> medulla oblongata

102
Q

What junctions hold simple squamous epithelial cells of capillaries together?

A

zonula adherens (belt desmosome)

103
Q

External lamina

A

“basement membrane” surrounding anything in periph tissues
collagen IV
located b/w skeletal m, smooth m, adipocytes, indiv simple squamous endothelial cells

104
Q

Components of ECM

Function of components?

A

GAGs, proteoglycans – trap water

105
Q

Attributes of all endothelial cells

A
  1. Microvilli: inc SA – rely on diffusion for cell viability
  2. Pinocytic vesicles: “sampling of local lumen contents” – detect chem changes in local environment
  3. Weibel-Palade bodies: storage for von Willebrand clotting factor
  4. ICAMS (P and E selectins)
  5. Cell-to-cell adhesion complexes
106
Q

Weibel-Palade bodies

A

store von Willebrand clotting factor
–binds to factor VIII prevents degradation
VIII –> X –> prothrombin –> thrombin –> fibrinogen –> fibrin

107
Q

How can water/water soluble substances move through capillary?

A 
intercellular cleft (b/w endothelial cells)
transcytose from inside cell to periph EC fluid
108
Q

Endothelial cell properties and functions

A
  1. Prostacyclin/Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2): inhibits platelet activation and inc vasodilation –> non-thrombogenic surface (smooth surface)
  2. Synthesis of local/transient mediators of blood flow (factors cause vasodilation/constriction)
  3. Synthesis of blood clotting transporter proteins (tissue factors and von willebrand’s factor)
  4. Synthesis of P and E selectins (WBC diapedesis during inflammation)
109
Q

3 major types of capillary networks

A

Continuous (most) – tight junctions (occluding)
Fenestrated: in portal sys (CONTINUOUS external lamina with THINNING in certain regions of phospholipid bilayer creates small pores which allow for more rapid diffusion of particles)
Sinusoids/discontinuous: larger spaces b/w adj cells; DISCONTINUOUS external lamina (in liver)

110
Q

Pericytes

A

capillary-associated cells
firmly attach/contribute to basement membrane
repair dmaged bv – remodel during angiogenesis
ensheathed in external lamina
contribute to:
–embryonic development of vasculature (MSCs)
–neurovascularization (after menstruation, pregnancy)
–regulation of blood flow
–tumor vasculature (upregulation of metabolic activity in cells – bv grow in this area)

111
Q

Autonomic regulation of blood flow controlled by what div of NS?

A 
Sym
vasomotor reflexes change diameter of periph blood vessels
myogenic tone (smooth m cells in tunica media)
--usually slightly contracted -- can relax these m cels or restrict them more
112
Q

Precapillary sphincters

Controlled by what NS div?

A

can close off capillary branches to direct blood through thoroughfare to more metabolically active tissues
SYM div

113
Q

Pre-Capillary sphincters open/closed when there is low/high metabolic demand

A

Low metabolic demand: sphincters CLOSED – blood moves only through thoroghfare channel
High metabolic demand: sphincters OPEN – blood moves through entire plexus

114
Q

Pathway for prostacyclin?

NO?

A

prostacyclin: PKA pathway
NO: PKG pathway

115
Q

MALT

2 div of MALT

A

MALT: mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (interactions of WBC that respond to pathogens occur here)

  • -O-MALT: organized (lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils; Peyer’s patches in ileum)
  • -D-MALT: diffuse
116
Q

Organized WBC clusters in lamina propria/submucosa include:

A

Naive and activated macrophages/dendritic cells/B and T cells
Plasma cells
Th and Tc cells

117
Q

DMALT in diff organs

WBC located here?

A 
GALT (gut)
BALT (bronchus)
NALT (nose)
CALT (conjunctival)
VALT (vulvo-vaginal)
***B cells and macrophages
118
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Primary: red bone marrow, thymus (WBC produced and mature here)
Secondary: spleen and lymph nodes (mature WBC sequestered to ensure optimal interactions for pathogen recognition and WBC activation to occur)

119
Q

B cells and T cells derived from what precursor?

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes?

A

Lymphoid: B and T cells
Myeloid: neutro, baso, eosinophils, monocytes
–granulocytes include neutro, baso, eosino
–agraunolcytes include monocytes

120
Q

Mast cells

A

cells that are similar to basophils and are derived from the same lineage but are localized to PERIPH tissues (loose CT)

121
Q

Germinal center

A

sites where activated B cells (plasma cells) are producing Ab

122
Q

Primary vs secondary lymphoid nodules

A

Primary: do NOT have germinal centers
Secondary: HAVE activated germinal center

123
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

lymphoid nodules that extend from lamina propria –> submucosa
(primary: w/o germinal center or secondary: w/ germinal center)

124
Q

Tonsils

A

organized aggregates of WBCs inthe submucosa

125
Q

Waldeyer’s ring and its components w/ locations

A

lymphoid nodules form a ring of lymphoid tissue at the opening of the pharynx
Include:
–pharyngeal tonsil/adenoid (nasopharynx)
–palatine tonsils – paired (oropharynx)
–tubal tonsils – paired (oropharynx)
–lingual tonsils (tongue)

126
Q

Describe change in thymus from child –> adult

A

dec in size after puberty

involution complete by middle age – adipose replaces most of specialized glandulr epithelium and deeper lymphoid tissue

127
Q

Lymph fluid is derived from…

A

blood plasma

128
Q

Superficial vs deep lymph nodes

A

Superficial: embedded in subcutaneous adipose/superficial fascia and the parietal membranes of closed body cavities
Deep: embedded in deep fascia –b/w skeletal muscles in extremities and neck (also closely asociated with NAV bundles in closed body cavities)

129
Q

Clonal expansion

A

after WBCs activated, undergo rapid mitosis – this is clonal expansion

130
Q

Th1 cells activate…

Th2 cells activate…

A

Th1 activate CD8+ (killer T cells)

Th2 activate B cells

131
Q

Spleen has lobes – T or F?

A

False, spleen does NOT have lobes

132
Q

What types of muscle cells use gap junctions?

Where are gap junctions located in these muscle types?

A

cardiac (longitudinal part of intercalcated discs)

smooth (densely clustered in plasma membranes b/w adj smooth muscle cells)

133
Q

What aa are elastic?

A

Aorta
left common carotid
left subclavian
brachiocephalic

134
Q

How is blood vessel diameter regulated?

A

sym div of NS or
local chemical regulation produced by simple sq epithelial cells of bv (endothelin-1 – vasoconstriction and NO – vasodilation)

135
Q

Vasa vasorum

A

blood supply to muscular layer of bv

136
Q

Nervi vascularis

A

autonomic nerve supply to muscular layer

137
Q

Locations where 3 types of capillaries are found

A 
Continous:
--muscle
--lung
--skin
--CNS
Fenestrated: 
--ant pituitary gland
--glomerulus of kidney (filtration)
--intestinal villi (nutrient absorption)
Discontinuous/sinusoids:
--lymph nodes
--spleen
--red bone marrow
--liver
138
Q

Terminal bars

A

tight junctions + belt desmosomes

adhere 2 intestinal cells together

139
Q

Plicae of jejunum vs duodenum and ileum

A

pliacae more well defined and larger than plicae in duodenum and ileum

140
Q

Distinguish recto-anal junction from esophageal-cardiac junction

A

recto-anal: no glands in lamina propria or submucosa

esophagus: both esophageal and esophageal cardiac glands

141
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter
function
from what muscle layer

A 
regulates rate of bolus of food enters stomach
usually closed (prevents reflux of gastric contents into esophagus)
thickening of inner circular layer of muscularis externa
142
Q

Pepsinogen activated to…by…

Pepsinogen stored in…which are located in….

A

Activated to pepsin by low pH in gastric juices

Stored in chief cells which are located in the fundus/body of the stomach

143
Q

Gastric acid

A

facilitates digestion (of proteins and absorption of Ca, Fe, vit B12)
suppresses bacterial growth
prevent GI tract infections and bacterial overgrowth in SI
**present in all vertebrates

144
Q

glands in what part of the stomach have the deepest pits?

A

pyloric stomach

145
Q

Stem cells in stomach vs intestine

A

stomach: neck of gland
intestine: base of crypt

146
Q

What is the advantage of the digestive and absorptive functions of enterocytes in SI?

A

end products of digestion closer to site of absorption

**terminal digestion via enz in microvilli

147
Q

Protein degradation stomach vs duodenum

A

Stomach: pepsin
Duodenum: trypsin

148
Q

GALT

A

diffuse lymphatic tissue and lymphatic nodules
Immunological barrier
Throughout length of GI tract

149
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

in ileum
OMALT
lamina propria, submucosa
extensive aggregates of nodules

150
Q

Peyer’s patches organized into 3 parts

A

Follicle associated epithelium: M cells, enterocytes
Domes: B cells, macrophages, plasma cells
Germinal centers: plasma cells and B cells

151
Q

Valve b/w SI and LI

A

ileocecal valve

152
Q

Functions of LI

A

absorption (of electrolytes, fluids, water)
houses bacteria (vit B12 and K production)
produces mucus
compact feces

153
Q

Key features of colon

A 
no villi
no plicae circulares
no paneth cells
MANY goblet cells
MANY crypts
154
Q

Tenia coli from what muscle layer?

A

outer longitudinal

155
Q

Liver is from what germ layer?
Glisson’s capsule?
Kupffer cells?

A

liver: endoderm
glisson’s capsule: meso
kupffer: meso

156
Q

all glands have what kind of tissue?

A

epithelial tissue – it is avascular

why surrounded by CT w/ NV bundles

157
Q

Kupffer cells

A

macrophages in liver

monocyte derived

158
Q

What lobe of liver is closest to gallbladder?

closest to IVC?

A

closest to gall bladder: quadrate

closest to IVC: caudate

159
Q

Lobes of liver?

How many sections based on venous blood flow?

A

R, L, caudate, quadrate

8 sections

160
Q

Porta hepatis

A

hepatic portal v
hepatic a proper
hepatic duct

161
Q

Glisson’s capsule

A

fibrous CT layer of liver

162
Q

Falciform lig has what lig that is embryo remnant?

A

ligamentum teres (From umb v)

163
Q

Type of blood in hepatic portal v vs hepatic a?

Type of blood in central v

A

v: deoxy but nutrient rich (From GI wall)
a: oxy blood
Central v: deoxy and nutrient depleted

164
Q

Describe structure of hepatocytes in liver

Describe structure of lobules

A

Hepatocytes: vertical stacks
Lobules: hexagon with micro portal triad at each corner

165
Q

M1 vs M2 macrophages

A

M1: inflammation (IL-1 and TNF alpha)
M2: repair (IL-10 and TGF beta)

166
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed in GI tract?

A

stomach wall b/c very lipid soluble

then moves to hepatic portal v –> liver

167
Q

What histo layer is absent in gallbladder?

A

muscularis mucosa

168
Q

What structure of the gallbladder is linked with inc likelihood of developing gall stones?

A

many RA crypts (from mucosa, penetrate lamina propria)

169
Q

Accessory pancreatic duct dumps into what opening?

Main pancreatic duct?

A

accessory: minor duodenal papilla
main: major duodenal papilla

170
Q

Mechanisms that prevent autodigestion of pancreas

A

dig enz packaged in VESICLES
dig enz inactivated by low pH in vesicles
dig enz stored as PROENZYMES
INHIBITORY MOLEC (trypsin inhibitor keeps dig enz inactive in pancreas)

hds (14 decks)

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