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HDS > Mod 1: Anatomy > Flashcards

Mod 1: Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Kyphosis

A

primary curvature

thoracic and sacral

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2
Q

Lordosis

A

secondary curvature

cervical and lumbar

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3
Q

Where does sc end in adult?

A

L2

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4
Q

What spinal cord segments correspond to…

cervical and lumbar enlargements?

A

Cervical: C4-T1
Lumbar: L2-S3

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5
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

How many at each level?

A 
31 total
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
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6
Q

Epidural sac contains

A

fat and veins – post vertebral venous plexus (outside the dura mater)

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7
Q

Clincal significance of vertebral venous plexuses

A

valveless, so blood can flow sup or inf depending on BP gradients
serve as routes for metastasis of cancer from pelvis –> vertebrae, vert canal, cranial cavity

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8
Q

Where do lumbar punctures occur?

A

below conus medullaris

no possibility of piercing spinal cord

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9
Q

Functions of upper and lower limbs

A

Upper: mobility and manipulation (not wt bearing)
–sternoclavicular joint is only attachment (ant)
Lower: stability and locomotion (wt bearing)
–pelvic girdle connects to ant skeleton ant (vert column) and post (sacrum)

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10
Q

Similarities of upper and lower limb

A

segmented
connected to axial skeleton via girdles
developmental homologies (similar development)
dermatomes
fascial compartments that ensheathe limbs and subdivide them into muscular compartments

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11
Q

Homologous elements in upper and lower limbs

A 
scapula -- hip
humerus -- femur
RADIUS -- TIBIA
ULNA -- FIBULA
carpals -- tarsals
metacarpals -- metatarsals
phalanges -- phalanges
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12
Q

Developmental rotations of upper and lower limbs

A

Week 5
–upper and lower limbs protrude from body wall and face laterally (upper first, lower second)
Week 6
–upper and lower bend at elbow and knee (palms and soles face trunk)
Week 7
–elbows rotate caudally to face post
–knees rotate cranially to face ant

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13
Q

What joint connects upper limb to axial skeleton?

A

sternoclavicular

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14
Q

Mvmts of forearm bones vs leg bones

A

Radius and ulna: pronate and supinate

leg bones: fixed

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15
Q

Supination vs pronation

A

supine: palm up
pronate: palm down

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16
Q

Functions of clavicle

A

suspend scapula and upper extremity from axial skeleton
protect large nerve trunks and vessels passing from neck to axilla
transmit sudden impacts from upper extremity to axial skeleton

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17
Q

Scapula located over what ribs?

A

T2-T7

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18
Q

Fossae of scapula

Ant or post?

A

Ant: subscapular
Post: supraspinous and infraspinous

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19
Q

Why use CT scan for trauma of shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle, and skull?

A

scapula difficult to interpret on film

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20
Q

Most frequent bone broken in newborns?
How frequent in kids, adults?
Why?

A

Clavicle
Kids: 7% (top 5)
adults: 3% (top 10)
Why:
small, strut-like
only bone connecting upper limb to axial skeleton
first bone to ossify (5th week) – more mineralization so more stiff

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21
Q

How do Clavicular fractures present?

Why do they occur in middle of bone?

A
  1. medial segment of clavicle sup
  2. upper limb depressed, adducted, medially rotated (sagging shoulder)
    Middle of bone b/c ends anchored by strong ligaments
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22
Q

Are medial or lateral rotators larger?

A

medial are larger

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23
Q

Joint that is only connection b/w axial skeleton and upper limb

A

sternoclavicular

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24
Q

Sternoclavicular articular surfaces covered in…
Acromioclavicular…
Tough or loose?

A

Sternoclavicular: fibrocartilage and intra-articular disc
–tough
Acromioclavicular: fibrocartilage
–loose

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25
Q

Glenoid labrum

A

fibrocartilaginous rim attached around the margin of the glenoid cavity
deepens glenoid fossa

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26
Q

Capsule of glenohumeral joint pierced by what tendon?

A

long head of biceps

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27
Q

what forms a protective structure limiting sup displacement in glenohumeral joint

A

coracoacromial arch

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28
Q

Shoulder separation vs dislocation

joint involved, cause, presentation

A

Separation
–dislocation of acromioclavicular joint
–direct, forceful impact on shoulder or fall on outstretched arm
–prominence on shoulder (clavicle extends above acromion)
Dislocation
–dislocation of glenohumeral joint
–lat rotation of humerus
–humerus dislocated ant to make intact AC joint more prominent

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29
Q

What muscle forms medial wall of axilla?

A

serratus ant

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30
Q

What are the scapular arterial anastamoses?

A

Dorsal scapular (from thyrocervical trunk)
Suprascapular (from subclavian)
Circumflex scapular (from subscapular)
Intercostal (from thoracic aorta)

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31
Q

Brachial plexus arises from what roots?

A

VENTRAL rami of C5-T1

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32
Q

If brachial plexus starts at C4 or ends at T2, what are these called?

A

Prefixed or postfixed

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33
Q

Ventral roots carry what kind of nerve?

Dorsal roots?

A

Ventral: motor
Dorsal: sensory
come together to form mixed spinal nerve –> dorsal and ventral rami (ventral rami are brachial plexus)

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34
Q

What part of the brachial plexus passes under the clavicle?
What parts are supraclavicular?
Infraclavicular?

A

divisions

supra: roots and trunks
infra: cords and terminal branches

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35
Q

Anterior divisions innnervate…

A

Flexors (ant compartment of fore limb)

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36
Q

Posterior divisions innervate

A

Extensors (post compartment of fore limb)

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37
Q

Cords are named based on their relationship to what structure?

A

axillary a

lateral, post, medial cords

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38
Q

Which is more lateral in the body?

Med or lat pec nerve?

A

Medial pec nerve is more lateral than lateral pec nerve (flipped b/c named according to origin)

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39
Q 
Musculocutaneous innervates
Axillary
Radial
Median 
Ulnar
A 
Musculocutaneous: ant compartment of arm
Axillary: deltoid and teres minor
Radial: post compartments of arm and forearm
Median: ant compartment of forearm
Ulnar: ant compartment of forearm
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40
Q

Dermatomes for thumb and fingers

A

Thumb: C6
index and middle: C7
ring and pinky: C8

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41
Q

Upper brachial plexus injury

Lower

A

Upper: Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter’s tip hand)
Lower: Klumpke paralysis

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42
Q

Path of long head of triceps brachii in axillary region

A

passes ant to teres major
passes post to teres minor
medial to axillary n and post to circumflex humoral a

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43
Q

Retromammary space

A

space behind breast and in front of pec major

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44
Q

What lymph vessels run with great saphenous v?

Small spahenous v?

A

Great: sup inguinal nodes, deep inguinal nodes, or external iliac nodes
Small: popliteal nodes, deep lymph vessels

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45
Q

Cloquet’s node

A

most sup of the deep inguinal nodes or most inf of the ext iliac nodes (sampled to test for metastasis of cancer from lower limb to more proximal regions)

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46
Q

What hip bone do these attach to?
Gluteal
Post compartment of thigh
Med compartment of thing

A

Gluteal: ilium
Post compartment of thing: ischium
Med compartment of thigh: pubis

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47
Q

What are attachments for ligaments to make notches into foramina?

A

sacrospinous (ischial spine) – lesser scientic foramen

sacrotuberous (ischial tubercle) – greater sciatic foramen

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48
Q

Obturator formed by what bones?

A

ischium and pubis

covered by obturator membrane (obturator nav run through here)

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49
Q

Ligaments that reinforce hip joint

A

iliofemoral
pubofemoral
ischiofemoral

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50
Q

When is hip joint dislocation most likely to occur?

A

flexed
abducted
externally rotated
(prevent by iliofemoral ligament)

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51
Q

How does hip dislocation present?

Hip fracture?

A

Dislocation: shorter and internally rotated
Fracture: shorter and externally rotated

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52
Q

3 types of hip fracture

A

subcapital (intracapsular) – most complications
trochanteric
subtrochanteric

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53
Q

Sesamoids

A

ossifications in tendons near a joint (always one at the metacarpo-phalangeal joint of thumb) (can occur in other places too)

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54
Q

Only extensor of the leg

A

quads femoris

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55
Q

Largest and most powerful muscle in body

A

quads femoris

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56
Q

Muscles of ant compartment of leg

A 
iliopsoas
pectineus
sartorius
quads femoris
--rectus femoris
--vastus lateralis
--vastus medialis
--vastus intermedius
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57
Q

Longest muscle in human body

A

sartorius

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58
Q

Locations of thigh muscle compartments in relation to intermuscular septa

A

Ant: b/w lat and med
Med: b/w post and med

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59
Q

Muscles of med compartment of leg

A 
adductor longus
adductor brevis
adductor magnus
gracilis
obturator externus
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60
Q

What is the most ant of the adductor muscles in the thigh?

A

adductor longus

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61
Q

What is the largest adductor muscle?

A

Adductor magnus (made of 2 muscles)

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62
Q

Which muscle of post compartment has half of its length made up by a cord-like tendon?
Which one has a broad, flat tendon of distal attachment?

A

Long cord-like tendon: semitendinosus

Broad, flat tendon: semimembranosus

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63
Q

What is the only muscle in the body innervated by the common fibular nerve?

A

SHORT HEAD of biceps femoris

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64
Q

Muscles of post compartment of leg

A

semitendinosus
semimembranosus
biceps femoris (long head and short head)
**short head is NOT in the hamstrings

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65
Q

Muscles of pes anserinus

A

sartorius
gracilis
semitendonosus

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66
Q

Nerves supplying compartments of thigh (with exceptions)

A

Ant: femoral n (exception: psoas major innervated by ventral rami of L1-L3)
Med: obturator n (exception: ischiocondylar/hamstring portion of adductor magnus innervated by tibial portion of sciatic n)
Post: sciatic n, tibial div (exception: short head of biceps femoris innervated by sciatic n, common fibular div)

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67
Q

How many nerve fibers can be innervated by a single axon?

A

one or many

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68
Q

Motor unit

A

single nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers that it innervates
–all muscle fibers contract at once (on or off)

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69
Q

Difference b/w fine control and course mvmts

A

Fine: fewer muscle fibers per axon
Courser: more muscle fibers per axon

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70
Q

Henneman’s size principle

A

inc force by recruiting additional motor units

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71
Q

Describe structure of NMJ

A
  • -myelinated motor nerves pass through perimysium giving off several terminal nerve axons
  • -axons lose myelin and become dilated at presynaptic button (site of innervation)
  • -primary and secondary synaptic clefts
  • -axons covered by thin layer of Schwann cells at motor end plate
  • -axon terminal has mito and synaptic vesicles with acetylcholine
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72
Q

Primary synaptic cleft

A

dilated nerve endings sit in trough of muscle fiber

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73
Q

Secondary synaptic cleft

A

deep junctional fods of sarcolemma – this is the motor unit end plate
–junctional folds have acetylcholine receptors

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74
Q

What NT at NMJ?

A

acetylcholine

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75
Q

T-tubules

A

invaginations of sarcolemma into fiber
encircle A and I bands in regular order
carry depolarization signal into fiber

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76
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

branching network in skeletal and smooth muscle
surrounds each myofibril
terminal cisternae bracket T-tubules
regulates Ca flow
Passively releases Ca to filaments, initiating contraction and transports Ca back to cisternae ending contraction

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77
Q

Triad

Diad

A

Triad: skeletal muscle –T tubule and 2 sarcoplasmic terminal cisternae
depolarization of T tubules transmitted to SR at triads
Diad: cardiac muscle – one T tubule w/ 2 SR cisternae (diads located at Z lines)

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78
Q

When muscle contracts, each …shortens, but the … remain the same length

A

sarcomeres, Z bands, and I bands shorten, but actin and myosin (A bands) remain the same length
–thin filaments slide past thick filaments – overlap

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79
Q

Concentric vs eccentric contraction

A

Concentric: sarcomeres shorten
Eccentric: sarcomeres lengthen
**actin and myosin do not change length in either

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80
Q

Sliding filament theory

A

cross-bridging of actin and myosin slide thin filaments past thick ones (I bands shorten)

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81
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

encapsulated bundles of Type I collagen in tendons near muscle fiber insertions
Recieves sensory info (NOT motor)
contraction of muscle compresses collagen
golgi tendon organs sense change in tension – relays info to CNS on muslce tension to help coordinate muscle contraction

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82
Q

Muscle spindles

A

encapsulated proprioceptors
CT space containing fluid and intrafusal fibers
sensory neurons penetrate capsule to detect changes in lenght and relay info to SC
Reflex pathways initiated
–bag and chain fibers
–sensory and gamma motor nerves

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83
Q

Cardiac muscle derived from what germ layer?

Smooth muscle?

A

Cardiac: splanchnic mesoderm (lateral plate) surrounding the heart tube
Smooth: splanchnic (gut), neural crest cells (eye m), local mesoderm (vascular)

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84
Q

Difference b/w fusion of skeletal vs cardiac muscle

vs smooth

A

Skeletal: syncytial
Cardiac: fuse to form complex junctions at ends
–chain like arrays that can bifurcate and join other arrays (results in “wringing out of the heart ventricles)
Smooth: fusiform cells w/ single nuclei

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85
Q

Layers of cardiac muscle

A

epicardium (w/ bv, nn, fat)
myocardium (muscle)
endocardium – thinner than epicardium)

86
Q

Fuel for cardiac muscle cells

A

lipids and mito

87
Q

Tissue types of Layers of Cardiac Muscle

A

Epi: aerolar CT + simple squamous epithelium
Myo: cardiac muscle
Subendocardium: fibrous/dense CT
Subendothelium: aereolar CT
Endocardium/endothelium: simple squamous epithelium

88
Q

Intercalcated discs

A

dark staining transverse lines crossin gchains of cardiac cells at reg intervals
Junctions

89
Q

Transverse portion of intercalcated disc

A

ATTACHMENT
right angle to fiber attachment
fascia adherens – anchors actin and represents half a z-band
desmosome (macula adhers): bind cardiac cells preventing them from pulling apart during contraction

90
Q

Lateral portion of intercalcated disc

A

COMMUNICATION
gap junctions (ionic)
cells in chain contract in wave

91
Q

Cardiac muscle innervation

A 
Heart beat:
--up regulate (sym)
--down regulate (para)
Free nerve endings b/w myofibers transmit pain from myocardium
SA, AV nodes
Atrioventricular bundles
Purkinje fibers
92
Q

Purkinje fibers

Why do they appear lighter?

A

modified cardiac muscle cells
help coordinate rhythmic contraction
fewer myofibrils, more glycogen (appear lighter)

93
Q

Compare ventricle and atrial muscle fibers

A

Ventricle: typical fibers, many mito, glycogen, lipids
Atrial: smaller fibers, fewer T tubules

94
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor

A

acts on kidneys to cause Na and water loss
opposes hormones that promote sodium and water conservation (aldosterone and antidiruetic hormone)
in Right atrium

95
Q

Phospholamban

A

transmembrane protein in cardiac SR
regulates transport of Ca into cardiac SR (regulation via PHOSPHORYLATION OF PLN)
inhibitory causes dilated cardiomyopathy/ congestive heart failure

96
Q

What structures at poles of smooth muscle cells?

A 
mito
polyribosomes
ER cisternae
golgi complexes
rudimentary SR
NO T-tubules
97
Q

What muscle type does not have T-tubules?

No troponin?

A

smooth muscle does not have either T tubules or troponin

thin filaments are actin and tropomyosin

98
Q

Organization of thick and thin filaments in diff muscle cell types

A

Skeletal and cardiac: striations

Smooth: criss-cross

99
Q

2 types of dense bodies in smooth muscle

A

membrane
cytoplasm
both have alpha actinin and act similar to Z line
thin and intermed filaments insert into dense bodies to help transmit force to adj cells and reticular fibers
dense bodies create corkscrew nucleus effect

100
Q

Desmin

A

protein component of intermed filaments in cytoplasm of smooth muscle cells – connected to dense body

101
Q

Vimentin

A

protein component of intermed filaments in cytoplasm of vasculature (smooth muscle cells)
connected to dense body

102
Q

Innervation of Smooth muscle

A

Autonomic

  • -sym (adrenergic)
  • -parasym (cholinergic)
103
Q

Myoepithelial cells

A

contractile cells in exocrine glands (sweat, mammary, salivary)
contain actin and myosin

104
Q

Origin
Innervation
Location
Junctions of myoepithelial cells

A

Neuroectodermal
Autonomic innervation
spindle-shaped origin located b/w basal lamina and secretory cells
Gap junctions and desmosomes

105
Q

What artery is the main supply to the thigh muscles?

A

deep artery of thigh (profunda femoris)

106
Q

What a is the main supply to femoral head?

A

medial femoral circumflex

107
Q

Course of perforating aa

What do they supply?

A

Pierce adductors to enter post compartnent and supply hamstrings

108
Q

What is the last a given off by femoral a b/f passes through adductor hiatus

A

Descending (sup) genicular a

109
Q

Cruciate anastamosis

A

inf gluteal a
lat circumflex femoral a (transverse branch)
med circumflex femoral a (transverse branch)
first perforating a from profunda femoris)
b/w femoral a and internal iliac via inf gluteal
–insufficient to compensate for obstruction of prox femoral a

110
Q

Genicular anastamosis

A

b/w brancehs of popliteal a, femoral a, and ant tibial a that provides collateral circulation around knee joint

111
Q

2 mechanisms that stabilize knee joint

A 
muscular contraction (quads)
external and internal ligaments
112
Q

External ligaments of knee joint

A 
Tibial collateral
Fibular collateral
Patellar
Oblique popliteal
Arcuate popliteal
113
Q 
Which of the collateral ligaments (external) of the knee joint is weaker?
Cruciate ligaments (internal)?
A

tibial collateral

ant cruciate

114
Q

Mvmts restricted by tibial collateral and fibular collateral lig?

A

Tibal: restricts abduction
Fibular: restricts adduction

115
Q

Patellar tendon is extension of what?

A

quads tendon

116
Q

What are the attachments for the tibial collateral ligament?

Fibular collateral?

A

Tibial: med femoral epicondyle –> medial shaft of tibia
Fibular: lat femoral epicondyle –> lateral fibular head

117
Q

Internal ligaments of knee joint

A

Ant cruciate ligament
Post cruciate ligament
Med and lateral menisci

118
Q

Attachments of ant and post cruciate lig?

A

Ant: ant intercondylar fossa of tibia –> lat femoral condyle
Post: ant intercondylar fossa of tibia –> medial femoral condyle

119
Q

What ligament is the expansion of the semimembranosus insertion?

A

oblique popliteal

120
Q

What movements do ant and post cruciate ligaments restrict?

A

Ant: backward movement of femur, hyperextension
Post: forward movement of femur, hyperflexion

121
Q

What structures to med and lat menisci receive?

Why are they important?

A

femoral condyles

menisci relieve mismatch b/w curved femoral condyles and flat tibial plateau

122
Q

2 joints b/w tibia and fibula

A
  1. sup tibiofibular (plane jt b/w fibular head and lat condyle of tibia)
  2. Tibiofibular syndesmosis (inf tibifibular): inf fibrous attachment of tibia and fibula that prohibits mvmt b/w the bones
123
Q

What is the only tarsal bone to articulate with the leg (tibia and fibula)?

A

Talus (articulates in ankle joint)

– wt transferred from tibia to talus

124
Q

Sustenaculum tali

A

shelf of calcaneus that supports head of talus

125
Q

Spring joint

A

attached to sustenaculum tali ( of calcaneus) and navicular to form hammock which supports navicular

126
Q

What bone of ankle is homologous to scaphoid of wrist?

A

talus – why have 7 tarsals (vs 8 carpals)

127
Q

Groove for tendon of flexor hallucis longus on what bone?

Groove for fibularis longus tendon on what bone?

A

flexor hallucis longus: calcaneus

fibularis longus: cuboid

128
Q

What bone of foot has 2 sesamoid bones?

A

head of the metatarsal of big toe

129
Q

What are the retinaculum of the ankle?

Function?

A

Sup and inf retinaculum

prevent bowstringing of ant compartment muscles

130
Q

Ant compartment of leg

n, a, action

A

deep fib n
ant tib a
dorsiflexion/extension

131
Q

Attachment of inf retinaculum

A

calcaneus

med maleolus

132
Q

What ligament is shaped like a Y?

A

inf retinaculum

133
Q

Parathesia

A

tingling

134
Q

Triceps surae

A

includes gastrocnemius and soleus

135
Q

What muscles attach at calcaneal tendon?

A

Gastroncnemius
Soleus
Plantaris

136
Q

Another name for ankle joint

A

Talocrural joint – makes the mortise

137
Q

What kind of joint is ankle joint?

A

hinge synovial (b/w tibia, fibula, talus)

138
Q

What are the actions of the ankle joint?

A

dorsiflexion (ant compartment)

plantarflexion (post compartment)

139
Q

At what part of the talus does the tibia transfer wt?

A

Trochlea of talus

140
Q

Forefoot

A

metatarsals and phalanges

141
Q

Midfoot

A

navicular
cuboid
3 cuneiforms

142
Q

Hindfoot

A

talus and calcaneus

143
Q

Tarsus

A

midfoot + hindfoot

144
Q

What artery is in the anatomical snuff box?

A

radial

145
Q

Medial or lateral plantar arteries is larger?

A

Lateral is larger

Medial is smaller

146
Q

Deep plantar arch is anastamosis of what 2 arteries?

Dorsal pedal arch?

A 
DEEP PLANTAR:
Lat plantar (from post tibial) and
Deep plantar (from dorsalis pedis from ant tibial)

DORSAL PEDAL:
Lat tarsal
Arcuate

147
Q

What artery of the dorsum of the foot is absent in 12% of people?

A

arcuate

148
Q

What muscle also known as flexor accessorius?

Why?

A

Quadratus plantae

b/c supplements action of flexor digitorum longus (inserts on flexor digitorum longus)

149
Q

Med and lat plantar nn and aa run b/w what muscle layers of foot?
Lat plantar n and a then dive deep to what muscle b/w what layers?

A

Med and lat plantar nn and aa run b/w 1st and 2nd layers

Lat plantar n and a then dive deep to flexor digiti minimi b/w 3rd and 4th layers

150
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

A 
Tendon of tibialis post
Tendon of flexor digitorum longus
Post tibial a
Post tibial v
Tibial n
Flexor hallucis longus

Overexertion causes swelling of tendons leading to tibial n compression – tingling on back of heel and bottom of foot

151
Q

Tarsal tunnel bound by what structures?

A

Calcaneus
Medial malleolus
Flexor retinaculum

152
Q

Windlass mechanism

A

Occurs as:
dorsiflexion at MTP tightens plantar aponeurosis (via attachments to sup transverse metatarsal lig at the fibrous digital flexor sheaths of toes)
strain on plantar fascia pulls attachment sites closer together
raising the bones of the long arch and strengthening the foot for push-off

153
Q

Pes planus

A

Flatfoot

  • -Rigid flatfeet: due to bony deformation
  • -Acquired (flexible) flatfoot: relaxation of spring ligament causes head of talus to drop inferomedially and visibly bulge on med side of dorsal foot
154
Q

Plantar fasciitis

A

Inflammation of plantar fascia (at attachments – med calcaneus and metatarsal heads)
Associated with heel spurs, but relationship is not direct
Spur usually located in the prox attachmets of muscles deep to plantar fascia (flex digit brevis, abductor digiti minimi, quadratus plantae)
Caused by lack of arch support

155
Q

2 arches of foot

A

Longitudinal (med and lat)

Transverse

156
Q

Passive mechanisms of arch support

A 
bone shapes (transverse arch)
fibrous elements (long arches)
--plantar aponeurosis
--long plantar ligament
--short plantar ligament (deep to long plantar)
--spring ligament
157
Q

Importance of spring lig

A

supports head of talus
resists tendency of body wt to use talus as a wedge to drive calcaneus and navicular apart (this would collapse the med long arch)

158
Q

Muscles involved in flexion of wrist?
Extension
Abduction
Adduction

A

Flexion: flexor carpi radialis and ulnaris, forearm flexors, palmaris longus
Extension: extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis, ulnaris, forearm extensors
Abduction: flexor and extensor carpi radialis (long and brev), abductor pollicis longus
Adduction: flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris

159
Q

Extensor retinaculum attaches at…

Flexor retinaculum…

A

Extensor: radius –> prox carpals
Flexor: pisiform/hook of hamate and trapezium/scaphoid

160
Q

What muscle attaches to palmar aponeurosis?

A

Tendon of palmaris longus

161
Q

Extrinsic muscles of hand

A

flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus

162
Q

Stenosing tenosynovitis

A

AKA trigger finger
inflammation of synovial tendon narrows space for tendon to glide smoothyl during mvmt – inc friction
Lubricating fluid thinckes, dries out, and forms nodules that catch on fibro-osseus pulleys
As nodules grow, tendons may pop in tunnels
Fingers lock in bent position
Risk factors: repetitive motion, diabetes, gender (more female), infection
Treatment: avoidance, splinting, NSAIDs, surgery
Usually contained b/c each digit has separate synovial sheaths

163
Q

What nerve has no muscle innervation in hand?

What is its sensory innervation in hand?

A

Radial

Sensory to lat 2/3 of dorsum, dorsum of thumb, and part of digits 2 and 3

164
Q

Extrafusal muscle fibers innervated by….

A

alpha motor neurons

165
Q

3 types of skeletal muscle fibers

A

Type I: slow, red fibers
Type IIa: intermediate
Type IIb: fast, glycolytic fibers

166
Q

What are the largest skeletal muscle type?

Smallest?

A

Largest: Type IIb: fast glycolytic
Smallest: Type I: slow

167
Q

Long distance exercise inc the number of … skeletal muscle fibers

A

Type I (slow)

168
Q

Epimysium, peri, endo CT types in each

What each surrounds

A

Epi: dense CT – many fascicles
Peri: loose CT – one fascicle
Endo: reticular fibers – muscle fiber

169
Q

BV and nn to muscles carried by…

A

CT

170
Q

Main protein of M line

A

Creatine kinase (ADP)

171
Q

SR found in what muscle types?

A

skeletal and smooth

172
Q

Ryanodine sensitive Ca channels

A

located in SR

release Ca into sarcomere when depolarization (carried by T tubules) reaches them

173
Q

Calsequestrin

A

binds Ca in SR

Reduces Ca levels for binding to TnC – stop contraction

174
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

present in synaptic cleft and degrades Ach–stops initiation of contraction signal from nerve

175
Q

What type of collagen is in golgi tendon organs?

A

Type I

176
Q

Triad vs diad location

A

Triad: b/w A and I bands
Diad: at Z line

177
Q

Transverse vs lateral portion of intercalcated disc

A

Transverse: fascia adherens and macula adherens (desmosomes)
Lateral: gap junctions

178
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

modified cardiac muscle cells
help coordinate rhythmic contraction
fewer myofibrils, more glycogen (appear lighter)

179
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor

A

causes sodium and water loss in kidneys (opposes aldosterone and antidiuretic which promote sodium and water conservation)
Precursor of ANF in right atrium

180
Q

Extrafusal muscle fibers innervated by….

A

alpha motor neurons

181
Q

3 types of skeletal muscle fibers

A

Type I: slow, red fibers
Type IIa: intermediate
Type IIb: fast, glycolytic fibers

182
Q

What are the largest skeletal muscle type?

Smallest?

A

Largest: Type IIb: fast glycolytic
Smallest: Type I: slow

183
Q

Long distance exercise inc the number of … skeletal muscle fibers

A

Type I (slow)

184
Q

Epimysium, peri, endo CT types in each

What each surrounds

A

Epi: dense CT – many fascicles
Peri: loose CT – one fascicle
Endo: reticular fibers – muscle fiber

185
Q

BV and nn to muscles carried by…

A

CT

186
Q

Main protein of M line

A

Creatine kinase (ADP)

187
Q

SR found in what muscle types?

A

skeletal and smooth

188
Q

Ryanodine sensitive Ca channels

A

located in SR

release Ca into sarcomere when depolarization (carried by T tubules) reaches them

189
Q

Calsequestrin

A

binds Ca in SR

Reduces Ca levels for binding to TnC – stop contraction

190
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

present in synaptic cleft and degrades Ach–stops initiation of contraction signal from nerve

191
Q

What type of collagen is in golgi tendon organs?

A

Type I

192
Q

Triad vs diad location

A

Triad: b/w A and I bands
Diad: at Z line

193
Q

Transverse vs lateral portion of intercalcated disc

A

Transverse: fascia adherens and macula adherens (desmosomes)
Lateral: gap junctions

194
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

modified cardiac muscle cells
help coordinate rhythmic contraction
fewer myofibrils, more glycogen (appear lighter)

195
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor

A

causes sodium and water loss in kidneys (opposes aldosterone and antidiuretic which promote sodium and water conservation)
Precursor of ANF in right atrium

196
Q

Muscles in lateral (gluteal) region of thigh attach to which of the bones in the innominate bone?
post compartment?
Med compartment?

A

Lat: ilium
Post: ischium
Ant: pubis

197
Q

Greater sciatic notch: female vs male

Pubic symphysis?

A

both greater sciatic notch and pubic symphysis more obtuse in female

198
Q

What bony landmark delineates greater and lesser sciatic notches?O

A

ISCHIAL spine

199
Q

What is the wt-bearing part of the hip bone during sitting?

What attaches here?

A

ISCHIAL tuberosity

sacrotuberous lig and hamstrings attach here

200
Q

What lig attaches at pubic tubercle?

A

inguinal lig

201
Q

Obturator foramen formed by what bones?

What travels through it?

A

ischium and pubis

obturator NAV

202
Q

What is the strongest ligament in the body “scalpel breaker”?

A

iliofemoral lig

203
Q

Spiral course of ligaments of hip joint – significance

A

tighten hip during extension, stabilizing it, but limiting extension 10-20 deg

204
Q

Sacrospinous or sacrotuberous lig more transverse?

Significance?

A

Sacrospinous is more transverse and ant to sacrotuberous
Sacrotuberous transforms greater sciatic notch into foramen
Sacrospinous forms lesser sciatic foramen

205
Q

What gluteal n is propriceptive?

A

piriformis

206
Q

Triceps coxae includes…

A

obturator internus, sup and inf gemelli

207
Q

What structures emerge inf to piriformis?

A 
inf gluteal n and a
sciatic n
post cut nerve of thigh
pudendal n
internal pudendal a, v (wrap around sacrospinous lig to enter lesser sciatic foramen --> perineum)
208
Q

Smooth muscle in eye derived from…

Vascular smooth muscle derived from…

A

Eye: neural crest cells
Vascular: local mesoderm

209
Q

Smooth muscle does not have…

A

T tubules, but does have rudimentary SR

210
Q

Caveolae

A

invaginations into sarcolemma (smooth muscle)

–facilitate Ca flow during contraction (assist SR)

211
Q

Myoepithelial cell derived from
Location?
Connected by?

A

Neuroectoderm
spindle shaped, b/w basal lamina and secretory cells
Connected by gap junctions and desmosomes

HDS (14 decks)

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