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HDS > Mod 1: Histo and Cell Bio > Flashcards

Mod 1: Histo and Cell Bio Flashcards

1
Q

Components of plasma membrane

A

Phospholipids
Cholesterol
Proteins (integral and peripheral)
Oligosaccharides

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2
Q

TEM: proteins fixed with

lipids fixed with

A

proteins: glutaraldehyde
lipids: osmium tetroxide

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3
Q

Functions of plasma membrane

A
  1. Communication: receptors
  2. Intercellular connection: flexible boundary, protects cellular contents, supports cell structure
  3. Physical barrier: separates inside from outside
  4. Selective permeability
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4
Q

Functions of integral membrane proteins

A 
Pumps
Channels
Receptors
Linkers
Enzymes
Structural
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5
Q

Types of channel proteins

A 
Voltage gated (neurons)
Ligand gated (specific protein binds)
Stress activated (hypoxia, temp, etc)
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6
Q

Types of vesicular transport

A

Exocytosis

Endocytosis

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7
Q

Types of endocytosis

A 
Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis (constitutive)
Receptor-mediated endocytosis
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8
Q

Pathway of side chain cleavage of steroid hormone synthesis

A

Cholesterol
Pregnalone (via desmolase)
Progesterone, aldosterone, testosterone

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9
Q

Autophagy

A

proteins, organelles, and other cellular structures degraded in lysosomal compartment – prevents cell death

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10
Q

Mitophagy

A

selective degradation of mitochondria by autophagy. It often occurs to defective mitochondria following damage or stress

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11
Q

Ecto vs. endoplasm

A

Ecto: area of cytoplasm w/o organelles
Endo: area of cytoplasm w/ organelles

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12
Q

Polyribosomes

A

ribosomes associated with mRNA

–occur in cytosol or RER membranes

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13
Q

What proteins synthesized by RER?

A 
albumin
hormones
milk proteins
receptors
antibodies
collagen
enzymes
lipoproteins
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14
Q

Microsomes

A

don’t exist in cell life, only in lab
Homogenize organelles, centrifuge –> create microsomes
Use antibody against protein of interest/radioactive aa (Met)
Used to determine rate of protein synthesis, half life of protein

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15
Q

SER AKA …

In what cells

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells

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16
Q

4 major tissue types

A

epithelial
connective
muscle
neuronal

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17
Q

Hypertrophy

Atrophy

A

hypertrophy: cell size inc can result in inc organ size
atrophy: cell size dec can result in dec tissue/organ size

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18
Q

Hyperplasia

A

inc in cell numbers/cell density –> cell proliferation

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19
Q

Dysplasia

A

mature cell types are displaced by inc numbers of IMMATURE cells of the SAME type

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20
Q

Metaplasia

A

mature cell types are displaced by inc numbers of MATURE cells of a DIFF type

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21
Q

Anaplasia

A

reversion of cells to more primitive or de-differentiated form

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22
Q

Neoplasia

A

pathological process that results in the formation and growth of a neoplasm/tumor, which may be benign or malignant

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23
Q

Benign

A

abnormal cell prolif is encapsulated or physiologically constrained
metastasis is not possible
cell growth//division is slow and minimally invasive ot proximal tissues
cells do NOT progress to anaplastic state

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24
Q

Malignant

A

abnormal cell prolif with high deg of invasiveness, anaplasia and metastasis
untreated chromosomal instability inc with time
cells achieve autonomy (induce creation of own blood supply while repelling immune sys function)

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25
Q

Carcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm that originates from EPITHELIAL tissue

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26
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm that originates form GLANDULAR EPITHELIAL tissue

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27
Q

Sarcoma

A

malignant neoplasm that originates from NON-EPITHELIAL source tissue

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28
Q

Changes in cellular architecture

A 
hypertrophy
atrophy
hyperplasia
dysplasia
metaplasia
anaplasia
neoplasia
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29
Q

Loss of cellular architecture

A

inflammation
necrosis
apoptosis

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30
Q

Inflammation

A

response to tissue damage
vasodilation of proximal blood vessels
inflitration of proximal tissues by WBCs
(inflammation precedes tissue repair and death)

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31
Q

Necrosis

A

cell death characterized by loss of plasma membrane integrity
cellular contents released into surrounding tissue and many cause inflammatory response/amplify cell death numbers`

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32
Q

Apoptosis

A

cell death induced by enzymatic autolysis (caspases), followed by controlled membrane-enclosure of cytoplasmic and nuclear fragments
inflammatory responses are minimized

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33
Q

Intracellular accumulations

A 
lipids
proteins
glycogen
Ca/Ca salts
pigments
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34
Q

Intracellular accumulations: lipids

A

triglycerides
cholesterol
cholesterol esters
(fatty liver, atherosclerosis)

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35
Q

Intracellular accumulations: proteins

A

normal or abnormal conformations:
protein amyloids
tau proteins associated with neurodegenerative diseases
nemaline crystals (skeletal myopathies)

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36
Q

Intracellular accumulations: glycogen

A

(genetically acquired glycogen storage disorders – afffects organs that store glycogen)
liver
skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues

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37
Q

Intracellular accumulations: Ca/Ca salts

A

calcification/deposition of calcium phosphate crystals –> rigidity within cell/membrane
due to pathological release of Ca stores from intracellular storage sites

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38
Q

Intracellular accumulations: pigments

A

lipofuschin
hemosiderin
melanin
conjugated bilirubin

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39
Q

Extracellular accumulations

A

collagen

other insoluble proteins

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40
Q

Extracellular accumulations: collagen

A

excess collagen deposition (AKA fibrosis) can limit gas exchange in lung tissue
can minimize nutritive exchange b/w peripheral tissue cells and vascular supply

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41
Q

Extracellular accumulations: other insoluble proteins

A

amyloid proteins

tau proteins deposited in proximal extracellular space

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42
Q

Difference b/w organelle and cellular structure

A

organelle is enclosed in membrane

cellular structure is not (ex. ribosomes)

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43
Q

Cell membrane permeable to…

impermeable to…

A

Permeable: small gas molec, all non-polar molec

Impermeable (require transport): polar molec (water), charge ions

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44
Q

How can cell membranes differ among cells?

A 
phosphate head group 
specific fatty acids
amount of cholesterol
proteins in membrane
lipid rafts -- cluster protein receptors for specific ligands
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45
Q

Euchromatin vs heterochromatin

A

Eu: uncoiled for transcription (less electron dense/lighter)
Hetero:coiled (more electron dense/darker)

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46
Q

Describe nucleolus and processing/protein association of rRNA

A 
Nucleolus: where rRNA is synthesized using DNA from Nuclear Organizing Regions
Processing of rRNA occurs in...
1. nuclear organizing region
2. fibrillar region
3. granular region
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47
Q

Difference b/w proteins synthesized in cytoplasm vs. RER

A

Cytoplasm: remain in cell
RER: export from cell, remain in cell membrane

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48
Q

Presence of abundant RER indicates…

Abundant SER indicates…

A

RER: protein-secreting cell
–(RER makes proteins to be exported out of cell)
SER: produce lipids, cholesterol
–liver cells, steroid-producing cells
–skeletal and cardiac muscle cells –> store Ca in sarcoplasmic reticulum

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49
Q

Describe location of RER relative to cell

A

near nucleus

RER continuous with nuclear membrane

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50
Q

Describe diff faces of golgi and where located in relation to cell

A

Cis/forming face: convex and closest to nucleus

Trans/maturing face: concave and farthest from nucleus

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51
Q

Golgi function

A

oligosaccharides and polysaccharides synthesized in golgi

sugar chains attached to proteins from RER (glycosylation)

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52
Q

COP I vs COP II

A

COP I coated vesicles return proteins to RER (from golgi)

COP II coated vesicles direct modified proteins of golgi to appropriate compartment in the transport pathway

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53
Q

How can golgi faces be stained to distinguish them

A

trans/maturing face becomes dark after thiamine pyrophosphatase rxn
stain cis face with osmium

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54
Q

Mitochondrial fusion occurs…

A

embryological development

when cells have inc oxidative demands or local environmental stressors

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55
Q

Parkinson’s caused by…

A

imbalance b/w mitochondrial fusion and fission

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56
Q

Secondary lysosome

A

form when small primary lysosomes filled with ingested material fuse

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57
Q

How can you tell if a lysosome is active?

A

internal heterogenous appearance

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58
Q

Peroxisome

A

degradative organelle
potent oxidases and catalase enzyme
break down products of oxidative metabolism (H2O2)
budding/fission

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59
Q

Peroxisomes can be identified in non-human mammals by…

A

presence of urate oxidase crystals

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60
Q

Proteasomes located…

Function

A 
located in both the cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
function is "targeted" protein degradation (misfolded, viral, no longer necessary proteins tagged with ubiquitin label)
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61
Q

Changes in protein turnover may be indicative of…

A

Aging (dec)
Disease (dec)
Growth/recovery (inc)

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62
Q

Describe receptor mediated endocytosis with clathrin

A

ligand binds to receptor
adaptin binds to receptor
clathrin binds to adaptin (clathrin binding deforms membrane inward)
Dynamin constricts apical region to form vesicle
Clathrin and adaptin detach from vesicle and are recycled
Endosome fuses with lysosome

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63
Q

Cytoskeletal elements and what they are made of

A

Microfilaments (made from actin)
Intermediate filaments (made from keratin and vimentin)
Microtubules (made from tubulin subunits, hollow)

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64
Q

Dynamic properties of cytoskeleton due to…

A

rapid polymerization/depolymerization (except intermediate filaments)

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65
Q

Terminal web

A

formed by microfilaments (actin) that are densely concentrated hear the apical membrane
terminal web is meshwork that anchors a variety of membrane proteins, microvilli, and sterovilli

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66
Q

Microvilli formed by what protein subunit?
Cilia and flagella?
Stereocilia?

A

microvilli: actin
sterocilia: actin
cilia and flagella: microtubules

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67
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

do NOT undergo rapid polumerization
anchoring fibers for desmosomes (macula adherens)
protective barrier against mechanical damage and surface pathogens

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68
Q

Microtubules

A

largest diameter
Hollow
Alternating tubulin subunits (alpha and beta)
rapidly polymerize/depolymerize – MTOC (centrosome)

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69
Q

Tubulin subunits added/removed from…

A

free end (furthest from MTOC)

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70
Q

What motor proteins move along microtubules?

A

Kinesin: moves organelles AWAY from MTOC
Dynein: moves organelles TOWARD MTOC

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71
Q

How is cilia anchored to plasma membrane?

Describe structure of anchor and cilia

A

basal body
basal body is derived from MTOC and is comprised of 9-radially arranged triplets of microtubules
cilia structure then changes to 9+2 array (axoneme)
Cilia and flagella are both ensheathed by plasma membrane

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72
Q

Axoneme

A

9+2 arrangement of cilia and flagella

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73
Q

What cytoskeletal element forms spindle apparatus?

A

microtubules

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74
Q

How are microtubules arranged at centriole?

A

nine-triplet arrangement

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75
Q

Explain appearance of glycogen vs. ribosomes

A

Glycogen forms rosette aggregates (in cytoplasm of liver, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle cells)
Ribosomes: smaller than flycogen

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76
Q

Describe interactions of cadherin and other proteins at apical surface

A

Cadherin (which is Ca dependent) is bound to
Catenin proteins which connect to actin via actin binding proteins (vinculin, formin-1, alpha-actinin)
This protein complex connects to the apical surface of cell –> forms junction to hold cells together

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77
Q

Describe CAM structure

A

have 2-6 immunoglobulin like domains

Immunoglobulins are not Ca dependent

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78
Q

Major difference b/w cadherin and immunoglobulins

A

cadherin is Ca dependent

immunoglobulins are not Ca dependent

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79
Q

What happens if you remove Ca from tissues?

A

cannot be held together b/c cadherin is Ca dependent

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80
Q

Paracellular vs. transcellular pathways

A

Paracellular: transfer of substances across an epithelium by passing through the intercellular space between the cells
Transcellular: substances travel through the cell, passing through both the apical membrane and basolateral membrane.

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81
Q

What proteins in zonula occludens are the “zip lock bag”

A

occludin and claudin

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82
Q

Zonula occludens prevent what pathway?

A

paracellular (b/w cells)

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83
Q

What proteins involved in zonula occludens?

A 
Afadin
Nectin
JAMS
ZO-1
ZO-2
ZO-3
Occludin
Claudin
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84
Q

Nectin and JAMs are both

A

cis-homodimers
in immunoglobulin subfamily
stabilized by S-S bonds
trans-homo cell adhesion

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85
Q

JAMS determines

A

formation of cell polarity

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86
Q

What proteins involved in zonula adherins?

A 
Afadin
Nectin
Cadherins
--desmocolins
--desmogleins
Catenin complex
Plaque
--desmoplakin
--plakoglobin
--plakophilin
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87
Q

What are the types of cadherins in zonula adherins?

A

desmocolins

desmogleins

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88
Q

What are the types of plaques in zonula adherens?

A

desmoplakin
plakoglobin
plakophilin

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89
Q

What are the proteins involved in hemidesmosome?

A 
BPAG 1 (plakin family)
BPAG 2
Plectin (plakin family)
Integrin subunit Beta4 integrin
Plaque
Plate
Anchoring filament (laminin 5)
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90
Q

In hemidesmosome, what protein pairs are involved in connecting the basal lamina to intermed filaments?

A

BPAG1 and BPAG2

Plectin and Integrin subunit beta4 integrin

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91
Q

What autoimmune disorder caused by problem with hemidesmosomes? Symptoms?

A 
Bullous pemphigoid (BPAG =bullous pemphigoid antigen)
blisters b/w epidermis and dermis
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92
Q

How many monomers make connexon?

A

6 connexins

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93
Q

Hydrophilic or hydrophobic channel formed by connexons b/w cells?

A

hydrophilic

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94
Q

Primary cilia

A

nonmotile
each cell only has 1
9+0 arrangement
involved in signalling (control cell division and gene expression)
sense fluid flow in kidneys, liver, pancreas
hedgehog pathway

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95
Q

Hedgehog pathway

A

signalling in embryonic development

primary cilia involved in this

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96
Q

Disruption of primary cilium or basal body can lead to…

A 
Ciliopathies such as:
cystic kidneys
obesity
mental retardation
blindness
other developmental malformations
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97
Q

Characteristics of epithelial tissues

A

strong apical-basal polarity (involved in function)
avascular (blood supply is from connective tissue below)
attached to basal lamina in EM / basement membrane (basal+reticular laminae) in LM
attachments b/w cells maintained by specialized intercellular junctional complexes
high rate of turnover
high rate of mitosis after injury
prominent nerve supply and lymp vessels

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98
Q

Basal lamina vs
Reticular lamina
What type of collagen is in each?

A

basal: layer of extracellular matrix secreted by the epithelial cells, on which the epithelium sits
- -includes collagen type IV
- —produced by epithelial cells
reticular: thin layer below basal lamina that is mainly composed of collagen and serves to anchor the basal lamina to underlying connective tissue
- -includes collagen type III
- —produced by fibroblasts of adj connective tissue

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99
Q

Parenchyma

A

cells of a tissue/organ that are responsible for the specialized function of that tissue/organ
part of organ that carry “juice” around
made of epithelia
ex. GI tract, secretory acini and ducts

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100
Q

Stroma

A

internal support structure of gland/organ

contains blood vessels and nerves

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101
Q

Apical surface

A

in contact w/ outside world

ex. skin, GI tract

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102
Q

Blood supply to epithelial tissue in…

A

supporting tissues below basal lamina

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103
Q

Describe PAS staining of basal lamina/basement membrane

A

PAS stains hexos compounds in EC matrix

both basal lamina and basement membrane stain pos for PAS

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104
Q

Most cancers derived from what layer?

What makes the difference in the prognosis?

A 
Epithelial cells (ex. basal cell carcinoma -- rapid division and migration is normal part of function)
if metastasizing cells caught b/f cross basal lamina and reach blood vessels in underlying connective tissue, good prognosis
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105
Q

What germ layers are epithelial tissues derived from

A

all 3 germ layers

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106
Q

Functions of epithelial tissue

A

protection
absorption, filtration (selective absorption)
secretion/excretion
movement (myoepithelium associated with gland)

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107
Q

Myoepithelium

A

epithelial tissue involved in mvmt
in glands
contractile (actin and myosin)

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108
Q

General functions of…
squamous
cuboidal
columnar

A

squamous: absorption (less distance for diffusion), protection
cuboidal: active mvmt (space for cell machinery)
columnar: secretion and transport (space for cell machinery, apical modifications on surface inc SA)

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109
Q

What cell types usually have apical modifications?

A

columnar

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110
Q

Pseudostratified epithelium

A

all cells reach basal lamina
some reach surface
(usually only columnar cells)

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111
Q

Transitional epithelium

A

stratifed, but cells at lumenal surface take on diff shapes during diff functions (bladder – squamous when stretched)

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112
Q

Purpose of mucus

A

mucin and long chain carbs impede flow of water past cells (protect cells)

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113
Q

Stereocilia

A

nonmotile
long, branching
on pseudostratified columnar
reabsorb fluids from sperm development (epididymis

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114
Q

Describe shape changes in transitional epithelium

A

folded vesicles with plaques close to apical surface (pieces of fixed plasma membranes in vesicles)
folds like ping pong table up to plasma membrane
vesicles can resist chemicals in urine like urea

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115
Q

Merocrine

A

small part comes up to apical surface, then releases contents
exocytosis of both serous and mucous
no damage of cell, no change in homeostasis

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116
Q

Apocrine

A

bud of cell leaves, then lyses to secrete contents
cells lose cytoplasmic volume (must be replaced to remain viable)
ex. sweat glands of axilla and anogenital region

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117
Q

Holocrine

A

entire cell with secretory products leaves surface, then falls apart and releases contents
cells must undergo apoptosis, then degrade to release contents
ex. sebaceous glands in skin

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118
Q

Cytocrine

A

pass products from one cell to adj cell

melanocytes release melanin to keratinocytes directly

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119
Q

Exocrine vs endocrine gland

A

exo: retain duct and stalk
endo: lose duct and stalk – ductless, then angiogenesis; products move through basal lamina to blood vessel or moved through EC fluid

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120
Q

Unicellular exocrine gland

Unicellular endocrine gland

A

exo: goblet cells in resp epithelium
endo: DNES and APUD

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121
Q

DNES stands for

APUD stands for

A

DNES: diffuse neuroendocrine sys
APUD: amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (endocrine signalling, GI tract – products regulate gut motility)

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122
Q

Organization types of secretory cells

A

Tubular (simple, simple branched, simple coiled, compound)
Acinar = berry (simple, simple branched, compound)
Compound tubuloacinar

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123
Q

How to identify serous vs mucous cells under microscope

A

Serous stain darker due to proteins (enzymes)

Mucini stain lighter due to glycoproteins

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124
Q

Mesoderm gives rise to…EPITHELIAL tissues

A

lining of urinary tract
parenchyma of gonads
lining of ducts of repro sys
lining of heart and all blood and lymp vessels
serous membranes of thoracic and abdominal cavities
cells of adrenal gland – cortex

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125
Q

Endoderm gives rise to…EPITHELIAL tissues

A

line gut
line resp tract
epithelial parenchyma of accessory digestive glands (liver, pancreas, spleen)
endocrine glands inferior to the head (except adrenal glands)
all exocrine glands

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126
Q

Ectoderm gives rise to…EPITHELIAL tissues

A

epidermis

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127
Q

Basement membrane

A

acellular
proteinaceous
support medium
secreted by epithelial cells

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128
Q

Endothelium vs enterocytes

A

Endothelium: thin layer of SIMPLE SQUAMOUS cells that lines the interior surface of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels
–each cell is called an endothelial cell
Enterocyte: SIMPLE COLUMNAR epithelial cells in the intestine

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129
Q

Lamina propia

A

loose connective tissue that is adjacent to epithelial tissues
highly vascularized
below basement membrane

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130
Q

Function of keratin

A

prevent water loss

prevent damage from external injury

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131
Q

What cell types can be keratinized/nonkeratinized?

A

Stratified squamous

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132
Q

Basement membrane vs basal lamina

A

Basement membrane: LM

Basal lamina: EM

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133
Q

Proteins and glycoproteins of basal lamina

What are these produced by?

A 
laminins
collagen type IV
perlecan
nidogen
enactin
produced by epithelial cells
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134
Q

Type of collagen in basal lamina vs reticular lamina?

Collagen produced by?

A

Basal: type IV produced by epithelial cells
Reticular: type III produced by fibroblasts of connective tissue

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135
Q

Describe basal lamina in urinary filtration barrier of kidney

A

Basal laminae of 2 cells can fuse

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136
Q

Describe epithelium of small intestine

A

plicae covered in villi which are covered in sheet of simple columnar epithelium

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137
Q

Brush border structure

A

composed of microvilli
microvilli and their glycocalyx create a striated appearance
terminal web anchor microvilli (actin filaments that project from lateral membrane of epithelial cells at apical domain)

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138
Q

Terminal bar

A

made of zonula occludens and zonula adherens

near apical surface

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139
Q

3 cell types of respiratory epithelium that can be seen with LM
Describe each

A 
columnar cells (pseudostratified, covered in cilia)
basal cells (stem cells taht repopulate damaged/aging epithelia)
goblet cells (unicellular exocrine glands that secrete mucus)
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140
Q

How to distinguish cilia from microvilli in photomicrograph

A

cilia have darker staining basal bodies

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141
Q

How to distinguish diff cell junctions in EM

A

Zonula occludens: membranes of adj cells converge and fuse, obliterating the intercellular space
Zonula adherens: separated by small intercellular space
Gap junctions: membranes held closer together than desmosomes

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142
Q

Gap junctions found in what kinds of tissue?

A

cardiac muscle
smooth muscle
epithelial cells (cell-cell communication)

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143
Q

Epithelial cells comprise all types of multicellular glands (endocrine and exocrine) except for the…

A

adrenal glands

post pituitary gland

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144
Q

2 parts of exocrine gland

What does this have to do with classification?

A 
secretory unit (epithelial cells that synthesize and release the product)
excretory duct (lined by one or more layers of epithelial cells)
First term describes arrangement of excretory duct; second describes arrangement of secretory units (ex. simple tubular, compound tubular)
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145
Q

Epithelial Transition Zones

define and list locations

A

area where there is a dramatic transition b/w epithelial tissue types (occur within one-cell width)

  • -usually from stratified epithelium to simple columnar epithelium
    1. distal esophagus –> cardia region of stomach
    2. pyloric region of stomach –> duodenum
    3. ileum –> cecum (small intestine –> large intestine)
    4. rectum –> anal canal
    5. midpoint of the larynx
    6. endocervix –> ectocervix
    7. bulbar conjunctiva –> cornea of eye
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146
Q

What makes ETZ’s clincally relevant?

A

due to differing mitotic rates of 2 tissue types, dysregulation of mitosis is common –> cancer hotspots

  • -cells have diff receptors and have diff cell signalling cues
  • -cells in chronic state of inflammation (inc mitotic rate, inc loss of control of cell cycle)
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147
Q

Describe differences in mitosis in stratified epithelium vs. simple columnar epithelium

A

Stratified

  • -slower mitosis
  • -stem cells in lower layers
  • -vertical axis for mitosis (daughter cells pushed to lumen)

Simple

  • -faster mitosis
  • -stem cells distributed throughout
  • -horiz axis for mitosis (daughter cells produced adj to original cell)
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148
Q

Functions of integument and parts they are associated with

A
  1. barrier
    - -mechanical traumas, abrasions (cornified tissues of epidermis, CT of dermis, hypodermis)
    - -heat loss (adipose of hypodermis)
    - -UV (melanin in epidermis)
    - -toxic aqueous compounds, water loss (epidermal lipids)
    - -intrinsic and adaptive immune function (epidermis)
  2. transmitter
    - -sensory nerve endings in epidermis and dermis
    - -eccrine sweat glands (evaporative cooling)
    - -basal keratinocytes (absorb UV for vit D3 synthesis)
    - -apocrine sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair, nails, epidermis, hypodermis, olfactory and visual signals, sexual signals
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149
Q

What kind of secretion in eccrine sweat glands?

Describe eccrine gland structure, secretion, and location.

A

merocrine
simple, coiled structure
watery secretion (poor in proteins, contains NaCl, urea, and ammonia) – evaporative cooling
secretory portion located b/w reticular dermis and hypodermis

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150
Q

3 layers of integument and their features

A 
Epidermis
--keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
--from ectoderm
--avascular
Dermis
--DENSE connective tissue
--from mesoderm or ectomesenchyme
--vascular
Hypodermis
--LOOSE connective tissue
--from mesoderm or ectomesenchyme
--vascular
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151
Q

Skin and cutis refer to what layers?

A

epidermal and dermal only (not hypodermal)

152
Q

Dermis AKA

A

corium

153
Q

Hypodermis aka

A

tela subcutanea
subcutaneous fat
superficial fascia
Camper’s, Scarpa’s, Buck’s, Colle’s fascia etc

154
Q

2 classifications of skin and features

A 
thick skin
--volar surfaces (palms and soles)
thickness: 400 um - 1400 um
glaborous (hairless)
lacks pigment
eccrine sweat glands
155
Q

Type I Keratins

A

Acid keratins

K9-38

156
Q

Type II Keratins

A

Basic/neutral keraatins

K1-K8, K71-K86

157
Q

Keratinocytes synthesize…

what are their functions?

A

keratins
lamellar granules
keratohyaline granules
(lamellar and keratohyaline take keratins and reinforce them and the plasma membrane)

158
Q

Functions of keratinocytes

A

sequester melanin from melanocytes

mechanical, chem, UV protection to underlying tissues

159
Q

Describe dimer of keratin filaments

A

each dimer has 1 acid and 1 base keratin

160
Q

Permeability barrier on skin surface composed of…

which is developed by…

A

ceramide lipids are developed by lamellar granules (synthesized at base of skin, then released and form lipid coat on squames – metabolically dead)

161
Q

Keratohyaline granules
location
function

A

located in cells below squames

fix keratin against plasma membrane (ex. filaggrin, loricrin)

162
Q

Keratin pairs expressed at diff levels of skin

A 
Differentiated cells (K2 -- K10)
Stem cells (K1 -- K9/K10)
Basal cells (K5 -- K14)
163
Q

What proteins stabilize plasma membrane in keratinized tissues?

A

involucrin
small proline-rich proteins
loricrin

164
Q

What protein stabilizes keratin in keratinized tissue?

A

filaggrin

165
Q

How many melanocytes per keratinocytes

A

1 melanocyte per 6 keratinocytes

166
Q

Where are melanocytes located?

A

among cells of stratum basale

167
Q

What initiates melanogenesis?

A

signalling caused by DNA photodamage and repair in adj keratinocytes

168
Q

Coversion to melanin

A

Tyrosine –> DOPA –> melanin (packaged into melanosomes)

169
Q

Melanosomes are refractory. explain

A

last for a long time

170
Q

Functions of melanin

A

chelates toxins and excretes them

prevent damage to keratinocyte nuclei by forming “umbrella”

171
Q

What is a characteristic feature of dendritic cells in skin?

A

Birbeck granules

172
Q

What 2 epidermal cell types are derived from neural crest and are located among cells of stratus basale?

A 
melanocytes
tactile epithelial (merkel) cells
173
Q

Keratinocytes derived from…

A

ectoderm

174
Q

dendritic (langerhans) cells derived from…

A

monocytes

175
Q

Villose

where are cells with this capability found?

A

hair-bearing

thin skin

176
Q

Glaborous

where are cells with this capability found?

A

hairless

thick skin

177
Q

Why is stratum spinosum given this name?

A

Artifact of tissue preservation: shrink and pull on desmosomal attachments to make stellate/spiny appearance
(due to presence of spot desmosomes)

178
Q

What junctions hold layers of epidermis together?

A

spot desmosomes

179
Q

How are epidermis and dermis connected?

By what junctions?

A

Dermoepidermal junction
–high SA (epidermal/rete pegs point down and dermal papillae point up)
–interfingering – mechanical strength
Hemidesmosomes from keratinocytes to basement membrane

180
Q

Epidermal pegs are from what epidermal layers?

What do they connect with?

A

From stratum basale and spinosum

Connect with dermal papillae of dermis

181
Q

What part of papillary dermis ground substance is a loose connective tissue that impedes water flow?

A

glycosaminoglycans

182
Q

Anastamosis

A

artery passes directly to vein w/o passing to capillary bed first

183
Q

Hypodermis

A 
fatty and membranous layers
fatty layer (loose Ct invested with adipose tissue) -- CT conducts sup major nerves and vessels
184
Q

Integumentary appendages

A 
hair
eccrine glands (water for evaporative cooling)
apocrine glands
sebaceous glands (signalling)
nails
185
Q

Shaft of hair

A

cuticle
cortex
medulla (resistant hair keratins)

186
Q

Root of hair

A 
dermal papilla (signalling center) -- baldness affected by this
inner and outer root sheaths
187
Q

What structures are associated with hair follicle?

A

sebaceous gland and

arrector pili muscle

188
Q

What kind of stimulation do eccrine glands respond to?

A

cholinergic

189
Q

Describe staining of eccrine glands

A

stain dark

–high mito conc involved in ion transport

190
Q

Nails…
arise from:
describe:

A

Arise from an epithelial fold
Heavily keratinized
Grow from nail matrix at base of fold
Dermis beneath nail bed attaches to underlying phalanx (bone) as a skin ligament

191
Q

Free nerve endings

A

unmyelinated dendrites w/o a connective tissue capsule or associated epithelial cell

  • -nociceptive (pain)
  • -benign warmth (140 deg F), heat (greater than 140 deg F), and cold
  • -respond to mechanical, thermal, and chemical (bradykininin, histamine) stimuli
192
Q

Mammary glands

A

lobular (15-20 lobes separated by suspensory/Cooper’s ligaments)
Lobes empty into lactiferous ducts –> lactiferous sinus

193
Q

Inactive vs active mammary glands

A

Inactive: small ducts, few lobules, poorly developed secretory alveoli
Active: large ducts, numberous lobules

194
Q

Describe hormones during pregnancy and after childbirth

A

Pregnancy: estrogen and progesterone promote proliferation and activation of mammary gland tissue, but suppress prolactin
After parturition: declining estrogen and progesterone allow increased prolactin –> lactation

195
Q

What kind of secretion for lipids in milk?

proteins in milk?

A

Lipids: apocrine
Protein: merocrine

196
Q

Colostrum

A

rich in lipids
rich in immunoglobulins (secretory IgA) secreted by plasma cells that migrated to stroma during pregnancy (transcytosis of IgA)

197
Q

Oxytocin

A

stimulates milk EJECTION

198
Q

Organ

A

2 or more tissues that together form unique functions

199
Q

Is the hypodermis part of the integument?

A

No, it is the superficial fascia (deep fascia on muscle surface)

200
Q

Melanosome appearance under microscope

A

Granulated appearance

201
Q

Keratohyaline granules – baso or acidophilic?

A

Basophilic (stain blue)

202
Q

Tonofibrils

A

tonofibrils of keratinocytes are intermediate filaments that terminate in
desmosomes between adjacent cells
–create short, cytoplasmic extensions from adj cells to physically link cells together

203
Q

What kind of skin sense receptors in dermal papillae?

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

204
Q

Describe blood supply in dermal papillae

A

post-capillary venules which drain deoxygenated blood from extensive capillary networks in papillary region towards the venous sys in the deeper region of the reticular layer

205
Q

What changes cause mechanoreceptors to release NT’s to activate sensory neurons nearby?

A

deformations in plasma membranes of cells

206
Q

What is diff b/w thin and thick skin when viewed under microscope?

A

Thin skin has the same epidermal layers as those described for thick skin, however the
stratum lucidum is usually not visible with a light microscope but may be seen as or two
layers using an electron transmission microscope in thin skin

207
Q

How are hair follicle/sebaceous gland and nail matrix similar?

A

found in the dermis but
are comprised of invaginations of cells from the overlying epidermial layers –
stratum basale and stratum granulosum.

208
Q

What type of muscle is arrector pili?

What div of NS controls?

A

smooth m

autonomic

209
Q

Glands that supply hair follicles in gen body vs axilla/ano-genital regions?

A

Gen body: sebaceous glands via duct (holocrine)

Axilla/ano-genital regions: apocrine glands (apocrine)

210
Q

Eccrine sweat glands derived from…

A

epidermis during fetal development

211
Q

Thermoregulated sweating via …NS

Emotional sweating…

A

Thermoregulated: parasym
Emotional: sym

212
Q

What is exocrine gland classification for mammary glands?

A

compound tubuloacinar (tubuloalveolar)

213
Q

How many lobes in adult female breast?

A

15-20 lobes

each lobe has numerous terminal duct lobular units

214
Q

How do mammary glands drain?

A

lobe –> sinus –> duct –> nipple

215
Q

Prolactin secreted by what gland?

What does it induce?

A

ant pituitary

induces hypertrophy and inc mitotic rates of glandular and ductal epithelial cells

216
Q

How does cell-cell contact differ b/w epithelia and connective tissues?

A

epithelia: cells connect to each other to form a sheet
connective: limited cell-cell contact (floating in matrix of ground substance and fibular proteins)

217
Q

Functions of EC matrix

A 
organ support
force transmission and dissipation
developmental signalling
transient cell signalling
conducts mechanical stress
218
Q

Functions of ground substance of connective tissues

A

binds water to resist compressive stresses
mediates diffusion or binding or signalling molec
provides space and substrate for cell migration

219
Q

3 components of ground substance

A

GAGS (glycosaminoglycans = repeating linear disaccharide polymers)
Proteoglycans
Multiadhesive glycoproteins

220
Q

Proteoglycan

A

central chain of repeating units of hyaluronan – Core proteins w/ several GAG chains linked to central chain
(proteoglycans organize GAGs)
–lots of SA
–electrostatic charge –> bind water due to charge and mechanics (make up structures of ground substance)

221
Q

Proteoglycan vs glycoprotein

A

Proteoglycan: mostly GAGs with protein core (signalling and structure)
Glycoprotein: mostly protein that is glycated (signalling)

222
Q

Functions of fibrillar proteins of connective tissues

A

resiste tensile stresses
organization allows absorption or transmission of force
(strong in one direction, weak in another)

223
Q

Mesenchyme

A

undifferentiated CT

224
Q

What holds adipocytes together?

A

strands of aereolar tissue

225
Q

Collagen fibril, fiber, and bundle lengths

A

2 – 400 nm fibrils
5 – 30 um fibers
15 – 400 um primary bundles

226
Q

What is a major difference b/w collagen and elastin synthesis?

A

Collagen: some occurs inside cell, some outside
Elastin: all outside cell

227
Q

What proteins involved in elastin synthesis?

A

Fibulln 1

Fibrillins 1 and 2

228
Q

How to identify macrophages under microscope

A

irregular border (pseudopods, active phagocytosis)
numerous vesicles
eccentric nucleus

229
Q

How to identify mast cells under microscope

A

basophilic granules

230
Q

How to identify plasma cells under microscope

A

pale golgi
abundant basophilic RER
Clock face or cartwheel nucleus

231
Q

Connective tissue

A

widely spaced living cells embedded in nonliving matrix

produce and secrete EC matrix (ground substance and protein fibers)

232
Q

Multiadhesive glycoproteins named

A

laminin

fibronectin

233
Q

proteoglycans named

A

decorin
syndecan
aggrecan

234
Q

GAGs named

A

hyaluronan
chondroitin sulfate
heparin sulfate

235
Q

3 protein fiber types in ECM

A

collagen fiber bundles
reticular fibers
elastic fibers

236
Q

What is another name for reticular fibers?

How can they be distinguished under LM?

A

Collagen III

stain darker than other collagen types

237
Q

Where are reticular fibers found?

A 
lymphatic tissue
lymph nodes
tonsils
thymus
spleen
238
Q

Elastic fibers are complexes of…

A

elastin and fibrillin

fibrillin binds elastin – allows ECM to stretch then recoil to original shape

239
Q

Where are elastic fibers found?

A

dermis
nuchal ligament
ligamenta flava

240
Q

Fibroblasts/fibrocytes

A

connective tissue cells that produce ECM

blasts: active producer of ECM
cytes: maintain existing ECM

241
Q

blast vs cyte

A

blast: immature cell type that has a high metabolic rate and a high mitotic rate
cyte: mature cell type with baseline metabolic rate that usually divides infrequently and/or only when damaged

242
Q

Mesenchymal cells under microscope

A

spindle, star shape

243
Q

Synovial joint

A

freely movable joint

hyaline cartilage

244
Q

Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Metaphysis
Medullary cavity

A

Diaphysis: shaft of long bone
Epiphysis: expanded ends of long bone
Metaphysis: flared portion of bone b/w diaphysis nad epiphysis
Medullary cavity: cavity filled with bone marrow

245
Q

Lacunae vs lamellae in bone

A

Lacunae: contain osteocytes
Lamellae: layers of compact bone in osteon

246
Q

Blood vessels and nerves run in what in bone?

A

Haversion canals

Volkmann’s canals

247
Q

Trabeculae in bone

A

spongy bone arrangeemtn

248
Q

Osteoblast becomes osteocyte when…

A

osteoblast is surrounded by osteoid/bone matrix

249
Q

PTH role

What cells have PTH receptors?

A

secreted by parathyroid gland – regulates Ca and phosphate levels in EC fluid
Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and T cells have PTH receptors
(osteoclasts do NOT have receptors–indirect effect)

250
Q

Consistency and composition of bone and cartilage

A 
Cartilage -- all organic
--gel consistency
--40% collagen type II
--60% proteoglycans
Bone -- organic 50% and inorganic 50%
--rigid consistency
--95% collagen type I
--5% other GAG
--Ca-phosphate crystals
251
Q

Cartilage functions

A

support (embryonic skelton, airways)
shock absorption (IV disc, meniscus)
smooth sliding surface (joints)
framework (development and growth of bone)

252
Q

Cartilage and bone – vascular or avascular?

A

Cartilage: avascular - nutrients diffuse through ECM
Bone: vascular

253
Q

Appositional growth vs Interstitial growth

A

Appositional: chondrogenic cells grow from outside –> in

Interstitial growth: chondrocytes divide to make more chondrocytes (occurs lower down in tissue, w/in the cartilage)

254
Q

2 layers of perichondrium

A 
fibrous
chondrogenic (not yet differentiated, but do express Sox9)
255
Q

Chondrocyte cellular structure

A

secretory vesicles secrete EC matrix from chondrocytes

have many gogli, RER

256
Q

Types of cartilage and where found in body

A 
hyaline (ribs, trachea, larynx, articular cartilage)
Firbrocartilage (collagen type I): IV disc, pubic symphysis, attachment of tendons, meniscus
Elastic cartilage (elastic fibers): external ear, auditory canal, epiglottis
257
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

How is it treated?

A

Chondrocytes die, caritlage disruputed, bones rub against each other, calcification near joints
Synovial membrane thickens
Treat with anti-TNF alpha (TNF alpha is cytokine involved in inflammation)

258
Q

Pannus

A

projection of synovial membrane that is thickened and hyperperforated
macrophages and immune cells called to area

259
Q

If there is no Sox9…

A

prevents chondrogenic layer to differentiate into chondrocytes

260
Q

What substances are involved in osteoclast resorption of bone?

A

alpha3 beta3 integrin in sealing zone

Cathepsin K enzyme

261
Q

How does calcitonin affect bone remodeling?

A

calcitonin receptor on osteoclasts inhibit function

262
Q

RANKL

A

expressed by osteoCYTES

contribute to osteoCLAST differentiation

263
Q

Sclerostin

A

secreted by osteoCYTES to inhibit osteoBLAST function

264
Q

Why remodel bone?

A

allows bone to respond to loads
maintain materials properties
allows repair of microdamage
participates in serum Ca2+ regulation

265
Q

Perichondrium

Perichondrium is what kind of connective tissue?

A

fibrous connective tissue sheath that covers hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage
dense irregular
(has blood supply)

266
Q

What types of cartilage have perichondrium?

A

Hyaline and elastic

Fibrocartilage and articular (type of hyaline) does not have perichondrium

267
Q

Hyaline cartilage located

A 
Temporary skeleton of embryo
 Articular cartilage
 Respiratory tract (nose, larynx,
trachea, and bronchi)
 Costal cartilages
268
Q

Elastic cartilage located

A

External ear
 Epiglottis
 Auditory tube

269
Q

Fibrocartilage located

A 
Intervertebral disks (Outer
rings – Annulus fibrosus)
 Articular disks of the knee
(Menisci)
 Temporomandibular joint
(fibrocartilage discs partition
the joint capsule)
 Sternoclavicular joints
 Pubic symphysis
270
Q

Concentric vs interstitial lamellae

A

Concentric: surround Hav sys
Interstitial: located b/w Hav sys; indicate bone remodelling

271
Q

Endosteum

A

continuous b/w compact bone and trabecular bone
lines haversion canals and medullary cavities
covers entire surface of trabeculae
comprised of a thin layer of osteoprogenitor cells which form new trabecular bone

272
Q

Sharpey’s fibers

A

thick collagen type I fibers
located in periosteum and penetrate into outercircumferential lamellae of bone
adhere the periosteum (both layers) to the underlying bone

273
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

matrix of hyaline cartilage replaced with osteoid (which is produced by osteoblasts)
occurs in epiphyseal plate (growth plate)

274
Q

5 endochondral ossification zones

A 
Resting zone/quiescent zone
Proliferative zone
Hypertrophic zone
Calcified cartilage zone
Ossification zone
275
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

results in the formation of
flat bones from a precursor fibrous membrane (mesenchyme)
–forms b/w periosteum (sandwiched – diploe)

276
Q

What is the only long bone that is formed via intramembranous ossification?
Clinical relevance?

A

Clavicle

frequently fractured

277
Q

Plexuses of enteric NS

A

submucosal

myenteric

278
Q

Parietal membrane

Visceral membrane

A

Parietal: line closed body cavities
Visceral: continuous with membranes covering organs

279
Q

Serous membrane

A

comprised of mesothelium (simple squamous with underlying aerolar CT)
epithelial cells produce serous fluid

280
Q

Mesentery

A

specialized membranes comprised of 2 layers of mesothelia that ensheathe bv, nn, lymphatic vessels, and ligaments

281
Q

Adventitia

A

outer layer of dense irregular CT for attachment of organs to surrounding tissue

282
Q

What cytokine is involved in aging?

A

TGF - beta
inc amounts after injury
dec amounts when aging (red rates of collagen and elastic fiber production) – affects skin, joint capsules, bv (arteriosclerosis)

283
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

hardening/stiffening of arteries – inc resistence to blood flow and blood pressure (depletion of elastic fibers)

284
Q

2 types of cells in NS

A

neurons

glia

285
Q

Glia

A

supporting cells that help maintain a suitable microenvironment
for neurons. These cells are ten times more abundant than neurons

286
Q

What myelinating cell can for myelin sheath around only one cell?
Many cells?

A

One cell: schwann (PNS)

Many cells: oligodendrocytes (CNS)

287
Q 
alpha1 adrenergic receptors
alpha2
beta1
beta2
What NS do they stimulate?
A

Sym NS
alpha 1: contraction of smooth muscle
alpha 2: inhibit norepinephrine release (presynaptic terminals f postganglioic sympathetic neurons – feedback control)
beta 1: inc heart rate (cardiac muscle)
beta 2: relaxation of smooth muscle
beta 3: thermogeneisis and lipolysis in adipose tissue

288
Q

Nicotinic Ach receptors

Muscarinic Ach receptors

A

Skeletal muscle nicotinic: excitatory, found at somatic efferent endplates
Neuronal: excitatory, found at autonomic ganglia (parasym and sym)
Muscarinic M1: excitatory, found at postganglionic parasym targets
Muscarinic M2: inhibitory, found at postganglionic parasym targets

289
Q

Function of golgi

A 
synthesis of proteins and lipoproteins
form acrosome in sperm
lysosome formation
sort proteins
post-translational modification of proteins
process carbs
addition of sugar, sulfate, phosphate residues
pack proteins in granules
process acid hydrolases
290
Q

How does lysosome maintain acidic interior?

A

proton pump

291
Q

Function of lysosome

A

heterophagy (break down bacteria)
breakdown of bone during remodeling (via osteoclasts)
Autophagy (destroy worn-out organelles)
Form thyroid hormone
Remodel tissue
Endocytosis of LDL and release of cholesterol

292
Q

Function of peroxisome

A 
lipid metabolism (beta oxid of long chain fatty acids)
synthesize cholesterol, plasmalogens
Degrade H2O2 (product of oxidative rxns)
293
Q

Lysosomes originate from what organelle??

Peroxisomes

A

Lysosomes: golgi
Peroxisomes: ER

294
Q

Lipofuscin

A

yellow-brown pigment that accumulates with age in cells,

295
Q

Cell arrangement for

Consititutive vs regulated secretion

A

Constitutive: not polarized
Regulated: apical/polarized

296
Q

During conversion of myoblasts to myotubes, … is lost in processing

A

glycogen lost in center due to processing

297
Q

Type I muscles are red because

A

myoglobin content

meant to contract all of the time

298
Q

Long distance exercise inc what type of skeletal muscle?

A

Type I (slow) increase

299
Q

What type of skeletal muscle can convert to another type?

A

Type II can convert to type I

Hypertrophy of type IIb fibers, not inc in number

300
Q

Intrafusal vs extrafusal SKELETAL fibers

A

Intra: contain encapsulated proprioceptors (muscle spindles)
Extra: innervated by alpha-motor neurons and generate tension during contraction

301
Q

Compare innervation of intrafusal and extrafusal fibers

A

Intra: sensory and gamma motor neurons
Extra: alpha motor neurons

302
Q

Functions of CT in skeletal muscle?

A

transmit blood and lymph vessels, nerves

transmit muscle forces

303
Q

A band vs I band

A

A band: dark – has thick filaments (myosin)

I band: light – has thin filaments (actin)

304
Q

Sarcomeres

A

basic contractile unit of striated muscle
myofibrils that are stacked end-to-end (Z-to-Z line)
Composed of:
Thick filaments (myosin type II)
Thin filaments (actin)
Accessory proteins (tropomyosin and troponin)

305
Q

Z line

A

bisects I band (light band)

306
Q

H band

A

bisects A band (dark band)

Rod portions of myosin molecule

307
Q

M line

What is major protein here?

A

bisects H band (which bisects the A band)
Lateral connections b/w myosins
Major protein is creatine kinase (ADP)

308
Q

Is there overlap of thin filaments in A band?

I band?

A

A band: some overlap with thin filaments

I band: non overlapping part of thin filaments

309
Q

Thick filament surrounded by how many thin filaments in cross section?

A

6

310
Q

Specimens (proteins, lipids) fixed with what chemicals

Contrast enhanced with what chemicals

A

Proteins: glutaraldehyde
Lipids: osmium tetroxide
Contrast enhanced with uranyl acetate and lead citrate

311
Q

Freeze fracture prep of tissue

A

Cells frozen in liq N
Blocks of cells fractured (at hydrophobic layer of membranes)
Surface ice evaporated in vacuum
Shadowed with carbon and platinum
Organic material digested with acid leaving replica
Carbon-Pt replica put on grid and examined under TEM

312
Q

What organelles are involved in the uptake, storage, and release of Ca?

A

Mit

ER

313
Q

What proteins located in inner mito membrane?

A

cytochromes
dehydrogenases
flavoproteins

314
Q

What is the enz involved in side chain cleavage of steroid hormone synthesis?
What organelle does it occur in?
Where does this process occur in the organelle?

A

Desmolase

occurs in mito – desmolase is on the inner mito membrane

315
Q

What processes occur in mito?

A 
Side chain cleavage in steroid hormone synthesis (inner mito membrane)
TCA cycle (matrix)
Protein synthesis (matrix)
ETC w/ ATP synthase (inner mito membrane)
Ca granule storage(matrix)
Import site (outer membrane)
beta oxid -- fatty acid synthesis
aa oxid
urea and heme synthesis
316
Q

Inner mito membrane impermeable to

A 
H
Na
ATP
GTP
CTP
large molec
317
Q

Mito cytochrome P450 sys causes

A

hydroxylation of cholesterol to steroid hormones
bile acid synthesis (liver)
vit D synthesis (kidney)

318
Q

What protein in mito involved in aging?

A

Cytochrome c

involved in cell death and apoptosis

319
Q

Ectoplasm

Endo

A

ecto: area of cytoplasm w/o organelles
endo: area of cytoplasm w/ organelles

320
Q

SER functions

A 
steroid synthesis
Ca uptake and release
synthesis and breakdown of glycogen
detox drugs, metabolic wastes
formation of lipoproteins and production of bile
321
Q

What types of cells is SER in?

A

steroid secreteing
hepatocytes
skeletal muscle

322
Q

Dysregulated metabolism for:
short duration
longer duration
longest duration

A

short: loss of cell homeostasis (cellular adaptations for survival in sub optimal conditions)
longer: loss of cell viability/loss of tissue viability (necrosis and apoptosis)
longest: loss of organ viability (multiple organ failure/organismal death)

323
Q

Reversible cell injury leads to…

Irreversible …

A

reversible: adaptation
irreversible: cell death (apoptosis, necrosis)

324
Q

Metabolic disruptors

A 
hypoxia
infection
chemical
physical trauma
immunologic
genetic
nutritional imbalance
325
Q

What type of cell death induces inflammation?

does not induce inflammation?

A

Inflammation: necrosis
none: apoptosis

326
Q

Increased demand, increased stimulation (growth factors, hormones) leads to…

A

hyperplasia/hypertrophy

327
Q

Decreased nutrients, decreased stimulation leads to…

A

atrophy

328
Q

Chronic irritation (physical/chemical) leads to…

A

metaplasia (REVERSIBLE replacement of one differentiated cell type with another)

329
Q

Reduced O2 supply, chem injury, microbial infection…
acute and transient vs
progressive and severe

A

Acute: cellular swelling fatty change
Severe: necrosis or apoptosis

330
Q

What happens when cell ruptures and contents leak to EC fluid?

A

inflammation

331
Q

Describe state of plasma membrne and cell size in necrosis vs apoptosis.

A

Plasma membrane: necrosis – disrupted vs apoptosis – intact
Cell size: necrosis – swelling vs apoptosis – shrinkage

332
Q

Describe nuclear states of necrotic cell

What do all of these lead to?

A

Karyolysis: nuclear fading (chromatin dissolution due to DNAases and RNAases)
Pyknosis: nuclear shrinkage (DNA condenses into shrunken basophilic mass)
Karyorrhexis: nuclear fragmentation (pyknotic nuclei membrane ruptures and nuc undergoes fragmentation)
ALL LEAD TO ANUCLEAR NECROTIC CELL

333
Q

Two types of macrophages: function and chemicals released

A

M1: induces inflammation – TNF alpha and IL-1
M2: promotes tissue repair – TGF beta and IL-10

334
Q

IL-1 specific effect in inflammation

A

elevated systemic temp

pyrogenic effect on thermoregulatory area of hypothalamus

335
Q

Caseous necrosis

A

soft, cheese like center containing dead tissue
consolidated by surrounding granulomatous tissue peripheral border of lymphocytes and macrophages
fibroblasts lay down collagen to surround destructed tissue
ex. lung damage due to TB

336
Q

Coagulative necrosis

A

vascular blockage/infarct in solid ORGANS (LIVER, SPLEEN, HEART WALL)
due to blockage, WBC infiltration immediately after cell death is minimal –> tissue arch may be preserved for days/weeks

337
Q

Liquefactive necrosis

A

bacterial/fungal infections or hypoxic conditions in brain tisse (many WBC recruited, highly vascularized, pus left over)

338
Q

Fat necrosis

A

fat cell destruction through enz degradation or blunt force trauma (lipids released from cells are calcified –> chalky, white appearance)

339
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis

A 
immune complexes (Ag/Ab) deposited on arterial walls (under pressure) result in microscopic tears and fibrin deposition
WBC infiltration
ex. SLE (autoimmune)
340
Q

Membrane blebbing

A

membrane forms pocket/pouch which releases cellular contents during APOPTOSIS

341
Q

How is membrane affected during apoptosis?

A

orientation of lipids changed

head group reversed

342
Q

Where is Ca in body?

A

Stored in ALL CELLS b/c is a cofactor for many enz (especially those used in apoptosis)
Mito and SR also have Ca

343
Q

What 4 things occur when apoptosis happens?

A
  1. ATP dec (regulates barrier in mito membrane, so lose control of what goes in and out)
  2. ROS inc (in mito, damage to lipids, proteins, DNA)
  3. Entry of Ca (inc mito permeability, activate enz)
  4. Protein misfolding, DNA damage –> pro-apoptotic proteins
344
Q

Ischemia leads to…

Hypoxia leads to…

A

Ischemia: apoptosis
Hypoxia: necrosis

345
Q

Ischemia

A

lack of blood supply to tissue

346
Q

Layers in centrifuged blood WITH anticoagulant

A

Plasma (albumin, fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, lipids, hormones, vit, salts)
Buffy coat (leukocytes and platelets)
RBCs

347
Q

What are the main components of plasma?

Function?

A

Mostly water, also albumins (smallest and most abundant plasma protein)
globulins (immuno and nonimmuno)
Fibrinogen (largest plasma protein)
supplies EC tissues with water, functions in dehydration, osmoregularity, pH balance

348
Q

Hematocrit

A

vol RBC/total vol blood

349
Q

Functions of blood

A

Transport of formed elements (gases, wastes, nutrients, hormones)
Immune response
Regulate body temp
Maintain acid-base and osmotic balance

350
Q

Where are albumins synthesized?

Maintain…of blood

A

Liver

maintain osmotic pressure of blood

351
Q

If albumin is low…colloid osmotic pressure, which leads to…

A

dec colloid osmotic pressure

fluid accumulation

352
Q

Immunoglobulins secreted by…

non-immune globulins…

A

Immuno: antibodies secreted by plasma cells (mature B cells)

non-immune: alpha and beta globulins secreted by liver (ion transport – zinc, iron)

353
Q

Alpha and beta globulins involved in transport of what ions?

A

zinc

iron

354
Q

Fibrinogen vs fibrin

A

During clotting, fibrinogen acts with coagulation factors to create fibrin (insoluble protein)

355
Q

Serum vs plasma

A

serum lacks fibrinogen (b/c coagulated, so fibrin has linked to become fibrinogen)
Plasma: fibrinogen (b/c anticoagulent added)

356
Q

Types of leukocytes

A

Granulocytes

  • -Neutrophils
  • -Eosinophils
  • -Basophils

Agranulocytes

  • -Lymphocytes
  • -Monocytes
357
Q

Thrombocytes

A

platelets (part of buffy coat)

358
Q

Characteristics of RBC

A

anucleate
biconcave
lack organelles
“floating scale bars” – compare size of other cells

359
Q

What is the diameter of RBC?

A

7 um

360
Q

Importance of disc shape in RBC

A

facilitates gas exchange
more Hb molec are closer to plasma membrane than they would be in normal cell
shorter distance for gases to travel within the cell

361
Q

Staining of RBC

A

Fe in hemoglobin is POS charged, so binds neg charged eosin stain
Dark red around outside (this is where Hb is)

362
Q

Hemoglobin molec structure

A

2 alpha, 2 beta peptide chains
tetramer
each chain has polypeptide group

363
Q

Fetal vs adult Hb

A

Fetal: higher affinity for O2 than adult
alpha2Ggamma2 and alpha2Agamma2

Adults: alpha2beta2 and alpha2delta2 (small amount of neonatal–very similar to HbF)

364
Q

Sites of eythropoeisis during development

A

yolk sac
liver (2nd trimester)
spleen
bone marrow (close to birth)

365
Q

RBC cytoskeletal proteins

Which ones are contractile?

A

Specrtrin tetramers
Actin (contractile)
Adducin (contractile)
Tropomyosin (contractile)

366
Q

Glycophorins

A

attach cytoskeletal protein network to RBC cell membrane

Involved in blood typing (A, B, O glycophorin antigens)

367
Q

2 blood typing methods

A
  1. BLOOD drawn and mixed with ANTIBODIES against type A and B to determine agglutination
  2. back typing: SERUM mixed with BLOOD known to be type A or B
368
Q

Antibodies that are in type A, B, AB, and O

A

A: anti-B Ab
B: anti-A
O: both anti-A and anti-B
AB: no antibodies

369
Q

Characteristics of all WBC

A

larger than RBC
Cytoplasm has primary, azurophilic granules that are difficult to see in LM (lysosomes w/ hydrolygic enzymes help digest bacteria)
in response to stimulus, leave blood stream and enter CT

370
Q

All leukocytes contain…granules, but granulocytes contain…granules

A

All leukocytes: primary granules

Granulocytes: primary and specific

371
Q

How are cadherins organized?

A

Dimers

372
Q

What junction type is not associated with any cytoskeletal elements?

A

gap junctions

373
Q

Proteins that mark functioning melanosomes

Enzyme of melanin synthesis

A

TRP-1 and TRP-2

Tyrosinase

374
Q

Components of dermoepidermal junction

A

b/w epidermal pegs and dermal papillae

  • -hemidesmosome (stratum basale to basement membrane)
  • -lamina lucida (weakest part of DEJ)
  • -lamina densa
  • -anchoring fibrils (join lamina densa to papillary dermis)
375
Q

Nail structure

A

arise from epithelial fold
heavily keratinized cells grow from nail matrix
dermis beneath nail bed attaches to phalanx via skin ligament

HDS (14 decks)

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