Mitosis and Meiosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the longest phase of the cell cycle?

A

G1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the role of cyclins and CDKs in G1 Phase:

A

in the early G1 phase, cyclin D binds to CDK4 or CDK6 to form complexes. This cyclin D-CDK4/6 complex helps initiate the transition from G1 to the S phase, passing a restriction point by phosphorylating and inactivating the retinoblastoma protein (Rb), which in turn releases E2F transcription factors, leading to the expression of genes necessary for DNA replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the role of cyclins and CDKs in S Phase:

A

During the S phase, cyclin E binds to CDK2 to form a complex. This cyclin E-CDK2 complex further phosphorylates Rb, promoting the progression of the cell cycle by allowing DNA replication to occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the role of cyclins and CDKs in G2 Phase:

A

In the G2 phase, cyclin A binds to CDK1 to form a complex. This cyclin A-CDK1 complex regulates the transition from G 2 to M phase by phosphorylating various target proteins involved in mitosis preparation, such as proteins that regulate microtubule organization and chromosome condensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the role of cyclins and CDKs in mitosis:

A

As cells enter mitosis, cyclin B binds to CDK1, forming a complex known as
mitosis-promoting factor (MPF). Cyclin B-CDK1 is essential for initiating and coordinating the events of mitosis, including nuclear envelope breakdown, chromosome condensation, spindle formation, and the onset of anaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can dysregulation of cycline-CDK complexes clinically manifest?

A

Dysregulation of cyclin-CDK complexes can lead to various diseases, including cancer, where aberrant cell cycle progression is a hallmark feature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the “C-value?”

A

The “C value” typically refers to the amount of DNA in the haploid genome of
a species, often measured in picograms (pg). This value varies among different species and is not specific to individual chromosomes but rather represents the total amount of DNA in a cell’s nucleus. For humans C = 3.5 pg DNA. Mature gametes are 1C. Somatic cells in G1 are 2C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three classes of microtubules in cell division?

A
  • Polar Microtubules extend from each centrosome toward the center of the cell during cell division. They overlap with microtubules from the opposite spindle pole and contribute to the elongation of the spindle apparatus. Polar microtubules are involved in the separation of chromosomes during cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct number of
    chromosomes.
  • Astral Microtubules are shorter microtubules that radiate outward from the centrosomes toward the cell periphery. They help to position the spindle apparatus within the cell and are involved in orienting the spindle poles. Astral microtubules also play a role in cell signaling and positioning the cell during cell division, particularly in asymmetric cell divisions.
  • Kinetochore Microtubules are the primary microtubules that attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes. These microtubules extend from each centrosome toward the chromosomes, forming a physical connection between the centrosomes and the chromosomes. Kinetochore microtubules play a critical role in the movement of chromosomes during cell division,
    facilitating their alignment at the metaphase plate and their subsequent segregation to opposite poles during anaphase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the restriction point in cell division?

A

G1 Checkpoint: also known as the restriction point (as mentioned above), occurs toward the end of the G1 phase. At this checkpoint, the cell evaluates external signals, nutrient availability, and the integrity of the DNA before committing to DNA replication and cell division. Factors such as cell size, availability of growth factors, and DNA damage are assessed. If conditions are favorable and DNA is undamaged, the cell proceeds to the S phase to initiate DNA replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the G2 /M Checkpoint?

A

G2 /M Checkpoint: occurs at the boundary between the G2 phase and the mitotic (M) phase. At this checkpoint, the cell ensures that DNA replication is complete, DNA is undamaged, and the cell size is adequate before entering mitosis. Factors such as DNA integrity and repair, replication completion,
and cell size are assessed. If conditions are favorable, the cell proceeds to enter mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the SAC?

Cell division

A

Spindle Assembly Checkpoint (SAC): operates during metaphase, ensuring proper attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores and alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate before the onset of anaphase. The SAC prevents premature segregation of chromosomes and ensures that each daughter cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. It monitors tension exerted on kinetochores by microtubules and delays anaphase onset until all chromosomes are properly aligned and attached to the spindle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can occur when a faulty cell passes SAC?

A

Non-disjunction is an obvious example of failure of a chromosome segregation checkpoint that should be acave before the cell passes from metaphase into anaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When a checkpoint fails to provide a safe gaurd in the cell cycle, what can occur in somatic cells?

A

When checkpoints fail in somaac cells the result can be dysplasia and eventually neoplasia or cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a checkpoint fails to provide a safe gaurd in the cell cycle, what can occur in somatic cells during early development of in gametes?

A

When checkpoints fail in gametes or in somaac cells during early development the results can lead to congenital abnormaliaes. Females with Turner syndrome (45X) result from non-disjunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the DNA content and chromosome number represented for a somatic cell after the S phase?

A

2N4C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the reduction division?

A

The first meiotic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the equational division?

A

The second meiotic division

18
Q

How can the DNA content and chromosome number be represented after the reduction division?

A

1N2C

19
Q

How can the DNA content and chromosome number be represented after the equational division?

A

1N1C

20
Q

When does crossing over occur?

A

Prophase of meiosis I (pachytene)

21
Q

When are chiasma formed?

A

During the early stages of prophase I

22
Q

What is the synaptonemal complex?

A

The synaptonemal complex (SC) is a protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during early prophase I of meiosis. The SC holds the paired homologous chromosomes together along their entire length and facilitates the process of genetic recombination (crossing over) between them. The synaptonemal complex helps to align the homologous chromosomes precisely, ensuring that genetic material is exchanged between the correct regions. The formation and disassembly of the synaptonemal complex are tightly regulated processes that occur during the early stages of
meiosis I, playing a critical role in the generation of genetically diverse gametes.

23
Q

What are the stages of meiosis?

A
24
Q

When does meiosis begin in males?

A

During puberty (spermatogenesis)

25
Q

When does meiosis begin in females?

A
26
Q

What are the fate of the majority of oocytes?

A

Only several hundred oocytes out of an initial population of several million are ever ovulated; the majority decay by follicular atresia.

27
Q

What stage of meiosis are oocytes arrested in while within the ovary?

A

Ocytes within an ovary are considered primary oocytes and all are arrested in prophase I (diplotene/diakenesis) only to resume meiosis I upon ovulation and subsequently, meiosis II upon fertilization.

28
Q

What difference in meiosis, compared to mitosis, contributes to genetic diversity?

A
29
Q

What is the earliest point in meiosis when a fully assembled synaptonemal complex can be observed?

A

Zygotene (synaptonemal complex required for meiosis to procced)

30
Q

When do oocytes arrest cell division?

A

Diplotene (fourth stage of prophase) of meiosis I (during fetal development, arrest occurs before birth). Meiosis does not resume until the LH surge at puberty, then Meisos I resumes. Meiosis II does not commence until fertilization.

31
Q

What is the clinical significane of the appearance of the second polar body?

A

This confirms that fertilization has occurred, important for assisted reporductive treatments (IVF).

32
Q

What is a distinguishing feature between mitosis and meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes pair during meiosis

33
Q

At the completion of oogenesis, how many mature ova are formed from each primary oocyte?

A

Only one, the rest become polar bodies

34
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

When chromosomes do not separate properly.

35
Q

What is the probability of aneuploidy when nondisjunction occurs during meosis I?

A

50% trisomy
50% monosomy

36
Q

What is the probability of aneuploidy when nondisjunction occurs during meosis II?

A

25% Trisomy
25% Monosomy
50% Euploidy

37
Q

Why do most cases of Down syndrome result from maternal nondisjunction during meiosis I?

A

Becuase oocytes are arrested in diplotene of prophase I

38
Q

Short stature, webbed neck, cardiac abnormalities, no sexual maturation

A

45X Turner syndrome

39
Q

Tall with disproportionally long limbs, infertile, verbal learning disorders

A

Kleinfelter’s syndrome

40
Q

Large protruding ears, cognitive impairment, behavioral disorder

A

Fragile X syndrome