DNA Replication/Repair Flashcards

1
Q

What is DnaA?

A

A protein that initiates replication in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Prokaryotes
DnaA binds to a specific chromosomal origin, called oriC, to start replication. DnaA accumulates during growth and uses ATP to destabilize AT-rich repeats in the origin. This binding causes the DNA to loop and separate, preparing it for melting by helicase DnaB. The concentration of DnaA determines the start of the replication initiation phase.

Eukaryotes
DnaA monomers form a complex that marks replication origins and acts as a scaffold to recruit more initiator proteins. This complex is similar to the hexameric ORC in lower eukaryotes, and both bind to ATP/ADP. The ATP-bound form is active during initiation.

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2
Q

What are the three major DNA polymerases in E. coli and their primary functions?

Brief descriptions

A
  • DNA Pol III is the major replicative enzyme
  • DNA Pol II functions in DNA repair
  • DNA Pol I fills gap after removal of RNA primer
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3
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase I?

A

DNA pol I removes the RNA primer one ribonucleotide at a time from the 5’ end of the primer (5’->3’ exonuclease activity). DNA pol I also fills in the resulting gaps by synthesizing DNA from the 3’ end of the neighboring Okazaki fragment.

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4
Q

What is DNA gyrase?

A

A type II topoisomerase that facilitates negative supercoiling. DNA gyrase inserts negative supercoils by nicking both strands of DNA, passing the DNA strands through the nick and then resealing both strands.

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5
Q

How is DNA gyrase clinically relevant?

Examples given on handout

A
  • Quinolones and fluoroquinolones (e.g. Nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin) are used as antibiotics because they block the action of DNA gyrase and prevent prokaryotic replication. Eukaryotic type II topoisomerases are different from the prokaryote DNA gyrase and are not affected by quinolones.
  • Anthracyclins drugs (e.g. etoposide, doxorubicin) that inhibit eukaryotic topoisomerases II are used as anti-cancer agents. They slow the replication of cancer cells and cause them to induce apoptosis (programmed cell death).
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6
Q

What are the eukaryotic DNA polymerases and their functions?

A

o DNA polymerase α has a subunit with primase activity and is involved
in generating primers for DNA replication.

o DNA polymerase β is used in DNA repair.

o DNA polymerase δ elongates Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

o DNA polymerase ε elongates the leading strand.
The RNA primers are removed by flap endonuclease 1 and RNase H and filled by DNA polymerase δ.

o DNA polymerase γ replicates mitochondrial DNA.

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7
Q

What is the repeating DNA sequence found in human telomeres?

A

TTAGGG

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8
Q

Why are telomeres incorporated at the ends of chromosomes?

A

As replication reaches the end of a chromosome, a problem arises in the lagging strand. Either primase cannot laydown a primer at the very end of the chromosome, or after DNA replication is complete, the RNA at the end of the chromosome is degraded. As a result, the newly synthesized strand is shorter at the 5’-end, and there is a 3’-overhang in the DNA strand being replicated. If this were allowed to happen, the chromosome shortens with each successive replication and genes at the end of the chromosome would eventually be damaged.

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9
Q

What is the function of telomerase?

A
  • Telomerase lengthens the 3’ overhang with a repeating sequence of bases so that primase can bind and synthesize the complementary strand.
  • Telomerase acts as an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (a reverse transcriptase). It has an RNA subunit which it uses as a template to synthesize the repeating sequence of DNA.
  • Telomerase mainly functions in highly replicative cell types like germ cells and stem cells. Most somatic cells do not express telomerase, thus they have a limited capacity to replicate. Tumors arising from somatic cells often activate telomerase in order to continue replicating indefinitely.
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10
Q

What are examples of clinically relevant nucleoside analogs?

A

o Dideoxynucleosides (e.g. dideoxyinosine and dideoxyadenosine).
Lack 3’-OH group of deoxyribose. Used to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Incorporation by the HIV reverse transcriptase leads to disruption of viral DNA synthesis.

o Azidothymidine, AZT, a thymidine analogue with a 3’-N3 in place of
the 3’-OH, also used in HIV treatment.

o Cytosine arabinoside (cytarabine, araC) resembles cytidine but has
arabinose instead of ribose as the sugar. Used in some cancer
chemotherapies.

o Adenine arabinoside (vidarabine, araA) resembles adenine but has
arabinose instead of ribose as the sugar. Used as an anti-viral agent
to treat Herpes simplex.

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11
Q

A mutant E. coli strain is found to have a defective DNA polymerase III but functional DNA polymerases I and II. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this mutant strain?

A

DNA polymerase III is the primary replicative polymerase in E. coli. If it’s defective, the cell would be unable to efficiently extend DNA primers, leading to an accumulation of unprocessed Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

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12
Q

What are the categories of point mutations and some clinical examples?

A

i. Transitions (purine->purine) or (pyrimidine->pyrimidine) .

ii. Transversions (purine->pyrimidine) or (pyrimidine->purine)

iii. Implicated in many genetic diseases, two well-known examples:
1. A to T transversion in the β-globin gene changes glutamic acid to valine in Sickle cell anemia.
2. G to T transversion creates a premature stop codon in the CFTR gene in cystic fibrosis (CF).

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13
Q

What are the cuase of frame shift mutations? Also, what is a clinical example of this mutation?

A

Frameshift mutations are usually the result of an insertion or deletion.

Examples in genetic disorders:
1. Insertions in the reading frame of
the dystrophin gene cause
Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
2. The most common CF mutation (delF508) is a deletion of three bases in the CFTR gene.

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14
Q

What are missense mutations? Give a clinical example?

A

A missense mutation results in the substitution of one amino acid for another. For example, in phenylketonuria (PKU), various missense mutations in the PAH gene lead to a defective phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme.

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15
Q

What are nonsense mutations? Give a clinical example?

A

A nonsense mutation results when a single base pair change, deletion or insertion, generates a new stop codon and causes premature termination of translation. For example nonsense mutations can cause β-thalassemia when they occur in the β-globin gene, resulting in truncated and non-functional hemoglobin proteins.

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16
Q

What are sense mutations? Give a clinical example?

A

A sense mutation results in the conversion of a stop codon to an amino acid codon, thus producing a longer than normal protein. While less common, sense mutations can extend proteins abnormally. In Huntington’s disease, CAG repeat expansions result in an extended polyglutamine tract in the Huntington protein.

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17
Q

What are silent mutations? Give a clinical example?

A

A silent mutation is a change in a codon sequence that does not result in a changed amino acid sequence. I.e. Due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, the new codon specifies the same amino acid. Although silent mutations don’t change the amino acid sequence, they can still have medical implications. For instance, a silent mutation in the CFTR gene can affect mRNA splicing, contributing to cystic fibrosis.

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18
Q

What is damage specific repair?

A

Aka “direct reversal”

Used to repair alkylated (commonly methylated) DNA
* Typically via suicide enzymes - Resource intensive - reserved for only highly mutagenic or cytotoxic lesions

Example:
O 6-alkylguanine transferase (AGT) directly reverses alkylation at O 6 of guanine. AGT transfers the O6-alkyl group to a Cys residue in the AGT active site (Fig 7). The AGT protein is inactivated by the alkylation and degraded.

19
Q

What is BER?

A

Base excision repair (BER) corrects small DNA damage that does not grossly
distort the DNA helix (e.g. AP sites and most small chemical modifications of
bases)

The steps are as follows:
a. DNA glycosylases detect damaged bases in dsDNA and excise the
damaged base by hydrolyzing the N-glycosidic bond leaving an abasic (AP)
site in the DNA.

b. AP endonuclease and deoxyribose phosphate lyase remove the AP site
leaving a gap that is filled by DNA polymerase and sealed by DNA ligase

20
Q

What is NER?

A

Nucleotide excision repair (NER) is a more versatile repair mechanism: unlike
BER and direct reversal, which require specific enzymes for different types of
damage, NER uses the same proteins to repair any DNA damage that distorts
the DNA double helix structure (e.g. Thymine dimers, benzo[a]pyrene-dG
adducts and cisplatin-DNA crosslinks).

1) A multi-protein complex detects the damage.
2) A section of DNA that includes and surrounds
the damage is then excised by endonucleases.
3) The resulting gap is filled by DNA polymerase.
4) The nick between the newly synthesized and
older DNA is sealed by DNA ligase

21
Q

What is the mismatch repair mechanism?

A

Mismatch repair (aka “methyl-directed” mismatch repair) corrects
mismatches (nonstandard Watson-Crick base pairs) that escape
proofreading during DNA synthesis (Fig 10).
a. DNA is methylated on A residues in GATC sequences by a methylase
enzyme. Early in DNA replication only the parental strand will have
GA CH3 TC sequences (i.e. the methylase enzyme has not yet methylated
the newly synthesized DNA strand).
b. If a mismatch is detected, a system of proteins evaluates which DNA
strand is most likely to be the correct sequence. The assumption of this
system is the strand having GA CH3 TC sequences is correct.
c. A portion of the strand containing the erroneous nucleotide is
removed and then replaced by DNA polymerase and ligase.

22
Q

How are double-stranded breaks repaired?

A

Nonhomologous end-joining (NHEJ) utilizes a complex of proteins to
bring the ends of two DNA fragments together and a DNA ligase joins
the ends. Only used in emergency situations and is error prone and
often mutagenic:

Homologous recombination repair (HR) takes sections of broken
strands and exchanges them with an undamaged duplex using the
same proteins which normally function in genetic recombination
between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. HR is less error
prone than NHEJ because any DNA lost is replaced using the
homologous strand as a template.

23
Q

What is the defect in DNA repair associated with Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer?

A

(HNPCC/Lynch syndrome) is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2). Individuals with HNPCC have ~50-70% lifetime risk for colon cancer as well as other cancers (endometrial, ovarian, gastric).

24
Q

What is the defect in DNA repair associated with Xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a rare genetic disease caused by defects in nucleotide excision repair genes. Cells of persons with XP cannot repair UV-damaged DNA (thymidine dimers), resulting in extensive accumulation of mutations leading to early and frequent skin cancers.

25
Q

What is the defect in DNA repair associated with hereditary breast cancer?

A

Hereditary breast cancer results from the inheritance of mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes involved in the repair of DNA single-strand and double-strand breaks.

26
Q

What is the defect in DNA repair associated with Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia (AT) is caused by mutations in ATM gene, also involved in double-strand break repair. Clinical presentation: Progressive cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, immunodeficiency, increased cancer risk (especially lymphomas).

27
Q

What is the defect in DNA repair associated with Fanconi Anemia?

A

Fanconi Anemia (FA): Defects in DNA interstrand crosslink repair. Clinical presentation: Bone marrow failure, congenital abnormalities, increased risk of leukemia and solid tumors. Management: Bone marrow transplantation, cancer surveillance

28
Q

List differences between addition of rNTPs by RNA polymerase and dNTPs by DNA polymerase.

A

RNA polymerase does not need a primer to initiate and lacks proofreading capability (no exonuclease activity).

Because RNA polymerase lacks proofreading, error rate is higher, which is inconsequential due to the rate mRNA is produced and its transient nature.

29
Q

How is the expression of mRNA controlled by other RNA species?

A

Small interfering RNA (siRNA) and microRNA (miRNA) control mRNA
expression by regulating translation and mRNA degradation.

30
Q

What RNA is involved in splicing?

A

Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

Splicing of pre-mRNA to remove introns is carried out in the nucleus on spliceosomes.
i. Spliceosomes contain small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) and proteins that together form small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs or “snurps”).

ii. The consensus sequences at the intron/exon boundaries are AGGU. Nearly all introns begin with 5’-GU (donor site) and end with an AG-3’ (acceptor site).

iii. The binding of snRNPs aligns sequences of neighboring exons.
iv. A 2’-OH of an A (known as the branch site) attacks the 5’-phosphate at the donor site of the intron, forming a 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond, and creating a “lariat” structure of the intron. The free 3’-OH of exon 1 attacks the 5’-P at the acceptor site forming a 5’-3’phosphodiester bond that joins exons 1 and exon 2. The lariat structure containing the intron is released and degraded.

31
Q

What are the promoter regions for prokaryotic transcription?

A
32
Q

What RNA polymerase is responsible for transcription in prokaryotes?

A

In prokaryotes, a single type of
RNA polymerase generates all
3 types of RNA

i. The RNA polymerase core enzyme contains 4 subunits (α2ββ’). It cannot
recognize a promoter by itself.
ii. Another subunit, sigma (σ) factor, binds the core enzyme and directs binding to a Pribnow box. Core + σ = holoenzyme
iii. There are several different σ-factors that recognize the promoters of different groups of genes. The major σ-factor is σ70 (designation relates to its mw of 70 kDa)

33
Q

How is transcription terminated in prokaryotes?

A

Transcription terminators commonly found in prokaryotic genes:
i. Rho-independent termination occurs when the newly formed RNA folds back on itself to form a GC-rich hairpin loop closely followed by 6-8 U residues. The bonding of these U to the complementary A is weak allowing dissociation of the RNA from the DNA template.

ii. Rho-dependent termination requires participation of rho factor. This protein binds to the newly formed RNA and moves toward the RNA polymerase that has paused at a termination site. With the aid of energy obtained from the hydrolysis of ATP, rho “pulls” the transcript off of the template.

34
Q

What mRNA is monocistronic/polycistronic?

What does this mean?

A

All eukaryotic mRNA is monocistronic, meaning one transcript codes for one product.

Prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic, where one mRNA can code for varying numbers of different proteins.

35
Q

What is chromatin modeling?

A

Processes that affect the interconversion between euchromatin (uncondensed - active genes) and heterochromatin (condensed - inactive genes).

36
Q

What are the different types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells and their respective functions?

A

Eukaryote cells have different RNA polymerases for distinct kinds of RNAs.
i. RNA polymerase I synthesizes the precursor of the 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNA in the nucleolus.
ii. RNA polymerase II synthesizes mRNA precursors in the nucleus. RNA poly II also synthesizes miRNAs.
iii. RNA polymerase III synthesizes 5S rRNA and tRNAs in the nucleus.
iv. Mitochondrial RNA polymerase is similar to bacterial RNA polymerase.

37
Q

How does acetylation/deacetylation affect gene expression?

A

Acetylation of N-terminal lysines of histone proteins by histone acetyltransferases (HATs) eliminates positive charges thus loosening the interaction of the histone with the negatively charged DNA. Histone
deacetyltransferases (HDACs) remove the acetyl groups and restore tighter histone-DNA interactions. (e.g. nuclear receptor co-activators have HAT activity and co-repressors have HDAC activity).

38
Q

What are the main eukaryotic gene promoters for RNA pol II?

A

Many gene promoters for RNA pol II contain a consensus sequence TATAAAA (TATA or Hogness box) located about 25 bases upstream of the start site which is nearly identical to the Pribnow box in prokaryotic genes.

Another sequence called a CAAT box is often upstream at -70 to-80.

Other RNA pol II transcribed genes that are constitutively expressed, lack TATA and CAAT boxes. They have a GC-rich sequence (GC box)

39
Q

Clinical relevance of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes?

A

i. α-amanitin is a toxin produced by Amanita phalloides “death cap” mushrooms which are responsible for the majority of fatal mushroom poisonings worldwide. It binds to RNA Pol II and blocks mRNA synthesis.

ii. Dactinomycin (Actinomycin D) intercalates into the minor groove of DNA forming a stable complex which interferes with RNA polymerase binding and inhibits transcription. It is approved for use as a chemotherapy.

40
Q

Clinical relevance of RNA splicing?

A

i. Systemic lupus erythematous results from an autoimmune response in which
a person’s antibodies attack their own cellular components including snRNPs.
snRNPs were discovered because of studies using antibodies obtained from
SLE patients.

ii. Mutations affecting RNA processing can lead to production of aberrant
proteins and are the cause of ~15% of all genetic diseases. e.g. Thalassemia
result from quantitative mutations in the globin genes. There are two main
types of thalassemia, alpha and beta. The severity of these mutations can vary
depending on the amount of normal protein that is produced. In beta
thalassemia, the designation B 0 = no β globin is produced, B + = a diminished quantity of β globin. Some β0 -thalassemias are the result of mutations in the splice sites at intron/exon boundaries that abolish normal splicing of β-globin pre-mRNA leading to a lack of functional β-globin protein. Another mutation in the polyadenylation signal (AATAAA->AACAAA) of the β-globin gene results in a β+ -thalassemia (homozygous persons produce ~10% of the normal amount of β-globin).

41
Q

What enzyme is responsible for removing RNA primer in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Two different enyzmes

A

Eukaryotes - DNA polymerase δ
Prokaryotes - DNA polymerase I

42
Q

What is the difference between topoisomerase I and II?

A

Topoisomerase I - breaks single strand
Topoisomerase II - breaks double strand

43
Q

What is the purpose of the 5’ guanine triphosohate cap?

A

The cap is recognized by the ribosome to initiate translations once the mature transcript leaves the nucleus.