Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

During oxidative phosphorylation, what is the net amount of ATP produced (assuming 2 ATP are consumed during the process)?

A

1 glucose –> 40 total ATP, 38 net ATP

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2
Q

What are the time considerations for assessing local muscular endurance?

A

10-120 seconds

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3
Q

What comprises long, thin chains of proteins that are arranged into sarcomeres and responsible for muscle contraction?

A

Myofibrils

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4
Q

What does the QRS complex represent on an EKG?

A

Depolarization of the ventricles

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5
Q

What is the basic function of allosteric Binding sites?

A

Allosteric Binding sites allow substances other than hormones to bind to a receptor and increase or decrease the activity of the primary hormone

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6
Q

What are the stages of general adaptation syndrome?

A
  1. Alarm 2. Resistance (positive adaptation seen) 3. Exhaustion (over-training)
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7
Q

What muscle fiber type has the greatest capacity for force production and hypertrophy?

A

Type IIb - fast glycolytic

Function in high force, explosive type movements

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8
Q

What are the areas of training an athlete should focus on first when returning from an injury before resuming concentric strength training

A

Flexibility –> eccentric strength –> concentric strength

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9
Q

What is the primary function of the sarcolemma?

A

To conduct electrical signals via transduction signaling the release of Ca ions

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10
Q

What 2 sites are used in skin fold measurements for high school females?

A

suprailiac and triceps

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11
Q

What 2 sites are used in skin fold measurements for high school males?

A

thigh and subscapular

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12
Q

When evaluating athlete readiness for engaging in a plyometric program, what are the primary considerations?

A

Strength, technique, balance, speed

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13
Q

What determines the energy systems used during a training session?

A

Session duration

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14
Q

The series elastic component of the stretch-shortening cycle is primarily concerned with what structure?

A

Tendons; involves the capacity of tendons to store and released elastic energy in response to a rapid stretching action

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15
Q

What is the difference between interval and repetition training?

A

Repetition training usually involves shorter more higher intensity intervals, lasting 30-90 seconds and focuses on increasing anaerobic power vs. aerobic power/endurance

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16
Q

During the inflammatory phase, what type of training can be undertaken by the athlete?

A

Maintain strength and endurance in adjacent, non-affected muscles

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17
Q

Resistance training with high volume and brief rest periods will most heavily affect which hormone: Cortisol, testosterone, or growth hormone?

A

Human growth hormone

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18
Q

How many pyruvate molecules result from anaerobic glycolysis?

A

2

1 glucose –> 2 Pyruvate –> Acetyl Coenzyme A –> Krebs cycle

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19
Q

What is the correct distance for placement of weight trees from lifting equipment?

A

36 inches

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20
Q

What is the suggested square footage recommendation for the stretching area per athlete?

A

49 sq feet

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21
Q

What are the 3 primary functions of hemoglobin?

A
  1. Transport O2
  2. Transport C02 (back to lungs)
  3. Acid base buffer (accepts H+ ions)
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22
Q

Which action is the pulmonary division of the arterial system responsible for?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and pumps oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

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23
Q

Which action is the systemic division of the arterial system responsible for?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues and returns deoxygenated blood from tissues back to the heart

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24
Q

A type of cross training that requires an anaerobic athlete to train aerobically for a period to help facilitate recovery from prior training sessions

A

Combination training

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25
How many cervical vertebrae?
7
26
How many thoracic vertebrae?
12
27
How many lumbar vertebrae?
5
28
How many sacral vertebrae?
5
29
When developing speed-endurance, what component of the training program must be considered to improve this specifically? Training volume Training frequency Exercise relief patterns (work:rest ratio)
Exercise relief patterns
30
What training adaptation to aerobic training increases the end-diastolic volume? Right ventricle hypertrophy Left ventricle hypertrophy Right atrium hypertrophy
Left ventricle hypertrophy
31
When an athlete is described as being in the zone during competition, what is this state called?
Ideal performance state
32
When an athlete is lifting maximal or near maximal loads throughout a training cycle, what is the most effective method for maintaining progress and balancing training stress? Varying training volume Varying training load intensity Block training
Varying training load intensity (have a mix of heavy and light days throughout the week)
33
What is the best order to perform the following tests? 1RM Squat Pro agility test Pull up test 110 m sprint
Pro agility, 1RM Squat, 110 m sprint, pull up test
34
During muscular contraction, which section of the sarcomere does not move?
A Band - represents the entire length of the myosin filament
35
When transitioning to pre-season training, what modifications should be made to the training parameters? Decrease training load intensity Increase training volume Decrease training volume
Decrease training load intensity
36
When training an athlete with a weakness in a small muscle group, what type of movement should be prescribed?
Isolation movement
37
What areas of the body does sarcopenia most greatly affect?
Lower limb extensors and trunk extensors
38
Describe shoulder extension vs. flexion
Shoulder flexion = raising the arm in front over the body and overheard Shoulder extension = raising the arm behind the body
39
How much protein should a young person consume vs an older person after a workout?
Young person: 20-25 g Older person: 40-45 g with high leucine content
40
How many grams of ATP does the body store at any one given time?
80-100 g
41
What is the mechanism that is thought to be responsible for the increase in peak power when using resistance bands, especially during compound movements like the barbell back squat? Post activation potentiation effect Isokinetic muscle effect Constant external load effect
Post activation potentiation effect
42
What is the recommended V02max intensity for LSD training (long slow distance)?
70% Vo2 max
43
What type of athlete would be ideal for the use of single-set training in a weightlifting program?
Those new to resistance training or in their first few months of resistance training
44
An athlete performs depth jumps as a part of their training program. What is the ideal resting time between sets?
2-3 mins
45
During evaluation of the sport, what 3 analyses should occur?
Movement analysis, physiological analysis, injury analysis
46
What is considered to be sea level?
< 500 ft above sea level
47
What is considered to be low altitude?
500-2000 ft above sea level
48
What is considered to be moderate altitude?
2000-3000 ft above sea level
49
What is the DeLorne style of programming?
3 sets of 10 reps (light to heavy resistance): 50% 10RM, 75% 10RM, 100% 10RM
50
What is the Oxford style of programming?
3 sets of 10 reps (heavy to light resistance) 100% 10RM, 75% 10RM, 50% 10RM
51
What is Knight's DAPRE style of programming?
4 sets ranging from 10 reps to 1 rep and from 50%, to 75%, to 100% 1RM
52
During which phase of rehabilitation can open chain kinetic exercises be used?
Maturation-remodeling phase
53
When designing an aerobic endurance program for an athlete, what is the correct order of design variables (ex. duration, intensity, frequency etc?)
Mode, frequency, intensity, duration, progression
54
What is the function of the pulmonary valve?
Prevents backflow of blood from the pulmonary arteries into the right ventricle
55
Which muscle is an antagonist during the concentric portion of a squat? Glutes Vastus lateralis Soleus Iliopsoas
Iliopsoas (Hip flexors)
56
What is the A band within a sarcomere
Corresponds to the length of the myosin filament and where it also overlaps with actin Includes both myosin and actin
57
Which structure delivers blood to the lungs from the right ventricle?
Pulmonary arteries
58
What structure delivers oxygenated blood from the lungs to the right atria?
Pulmonary veins
59
What structure delivers deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atria?
Superior and inferior vena cavae
60
What structure delivers oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body?
Aorta
61
What does calcitonin do and where is it produced?
Decreases blood calcium levels; produced in thyroid gland
62
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Increases blood calcium levels
63
90% Vo2max = ____% HRR And is max HR lower or higher than this percentage?
90% HRR Max HR will be higher than this (~96%)
64
How much knee flexion should there be in the bottom Leg (when it's extended) on a stationary bike?
25-30 degrees
65
For deceleration drills: Novice athletes should run at ___speed and stop within ___ steps Intermediate athletes should run at ___speed and stop within ___steps Advanced athletes should run at _____speed and stop within ___steps
Novice: half speed; 3 steps Intermediate: 3/4 speed, 5 steps Advanced: max speed; 7 steps
66
How should the knees be positioned differently in the semi-leg straddles vs. the semi straddle (figure 4) and straddle (spread eagle)?
Knees will be slightly bent at 30-50 degrees in the semi-leg straddle since this mostly stretches the erector spinae; they will be mostly straight in the other two stretches which stretch the hamstrings more
67
You're performing athletic testing outside in the heat. It's over 90 degrees. What should the humidity be in order to proceed with the test?
Zero humidity
68
How long have beginner, intermediate, and advanced athletes been training for?
Beginner: less than 2 months, 1-2 sessions per week Intermediate: 2-6 months, 1-3 sessions per week Advanced: 1 year or longer, at least 3 sessions per week
69
How long should you keep liability documents if unsure of the statue of limitations in your state?
Indefinitely
70
Where should you stand when performing PNF groin stretch on athlete?
Standing/kneeling behind them
71
If short on time, what are the 3 directions you should test when performing the Star Excursion Balance Test?
Anteromedial, medial, and posteromedial
72
What does volume typically refer to in a given training session?
The total amount of weight lifted in that session
73
How many personnel are required for each of the following tests? 1 RM Bench Press Power Clean Standing Long Jump 300 yard shuttle
1RM Bench = 2 (spotter and recorder) Power Clean & Long Jump = 1 (recorder) 300 shuttle = 3 (timer + 2 line judges)
74
What is the correct way to measure the girth of the upper arm?
Arm abducted to 90 degrees, supinated (palm facing up)
75
How long should athletes be given to rest during a 1 RM test after the warm-up set, the first 3-5 rep attempt, and a near maximal or maximal attempt?
Light resistance warm-up set: 1 min First heavier set of 3-5 reps: 2 min Near maximal or maximal set: 2-4 min
76
True or False: Single sets when used with sufficient load can increase muscle strength and hypertrophy (although may not be suited for well-trained athletes)
True
77
What is the length of a microcycle, mesocycle, and macrocycle?
Microcycle: few days - 2 weeks Mesocycle: 2-6 weeks Macrocycle: several months - 1 year