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Structure and Function of Body Systems > Administration, Scoring, and Interpretation of Selected Tests > Flashcards

Administration, Scoring, and Interpretation of Selected Tests Flashcards

1
Q

What type of test measures maximum low-speed muscular strength?

A

1RM tests of non-power movements (1RM bench press, squat, etc)

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2
Q

What % of the 1RM should the first warm-up attempt be performed at in 1RM testing?

A

50% of the athlete’s 1RM

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3
Q

How many attempts should be used to reach the athlete’s 1RM?

A

3-5 attempts

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4
Q

What tests are used to assess maximum high-speed muscular strength/power?

A

1RM clean, snatch, push jerk; vertical jump; cycle ergometer power test (30 second sprint)

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5
Q

What energy system powers maximum low-speed and high-speed muscular strength tests?

A

Phosphagen system

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6
Q

Anaerobic capacity tests last ____ in duration and are powered by which two energy systems?

A

last 30-90 seconds; powered by the phosphagen and anaerobic glycolytic systems

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7
Q

What are some examples of local muscular endurance tests?

A

repeated contractions against a submaximal resistance; max number of reps performing chin-ups, push-ups, dips, etc.

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8
Q

What tests are used to measure aerobic capacity?

A

Typically 1.5 mile run, maximal aerobic speed test (MAS), Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test

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9
Q

What tests are used to measure agility?

A

T-test, 505 agility, and pro agility test

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10
Q

A 10 yard dashes measures ___while a 40 yard dash measures ___

A

acceleration; maximum speed that can be achieved

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11
Q

Tests of speed are not usually conducted over distances greater than ____m

A

100 m

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12
Q

True or False: Ballistic stretching should be used during flexibility tests

A

False

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13
Q

Methods of measuring flexibility

A

Box sit & reach test; manual and electric goniometers (measures joint angle)

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14
Q

The ability to maintain static and dynamic equilibrium or the ability to maintain the body’s center of gravity over its base of support.

A

Balance

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15
Q

A measure of the ability to return to a desired position following a disturbance to the system

A

Stability

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16
Q

Tests that measure balance & stability

A

The balance error scoring system (BESS) and the star excursion balance test

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17
Q

The optimal method for measuring height is with a _____

A

stadiometer

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18
Q

The optimal method for measuring body weight is with a ____

A

balance scale

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19
Q

How many spotters should be present for the 1RM back squat test?

A

Two

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20
Q

A variety of plate sizes should be available to allow for ____lb increases in weight during a 1RM test

A

5 lb increases

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21
Q

During a 1 RM bench pull, the barbell must touch _____ at the end of the concentric phase

A

Must touch the underside of the bench

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22
Q

True or False: The feet must remain off the ground during the 1RM bench pull test?

A

True

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23
Q

What type of grip should be used in the 1RM bench pull?

A

Closed pronated grip; hands wider than shoulder-width

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24
Q

How many spotters are used in the 1RM bench press test?

A

One

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25
Q

How many warm-up Sets are generally performed before the first 1RM attempt?

A

~3 (1 light set of 5-10 reps; 2 moderately heavy sets of 2-5 reps)

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26
Q

How many spotters are used in 1RM power exercises such as the power clean or snatch?

A

No spotters are used in power exercises

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27
Q

When measuring the standing long jump, the distance from the starting point to the _____ is measured

A

Athlete’s rear-most heel

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28
Q

During a vertical jump test using either the chalk/Wall method or a commercial Vertec device, distance between _____ and _____is measured as the distance covered during the jump

A

Height of the chalk mark (or vane) tapped by athlete’s dominant hand in the standing position and the height of the chalk mark (or vane) tapped by the athlete during the highest point in the jump

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29
Q

During the standing long jump and vertical jump, how many trials are performed?

A

3 (the best jump is recorded)

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30
Q

What are the key differences between the vertical jump test and the static vertical jump test?

A

The static vertical jump test is performed on a contact mat system or force plate and removes the counter movement from the jump (no swinging the arms down & back); hands stay on hips

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31
Q

What does the reactive strength index test measure?

A

Vertical jump height/contact time (on mat or force plate)

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32
Q

How is the Margaria-Kalamen Test performed?

A

9-step staircase sprint where the athlete sprints up the stairs 3 steps at a time (contact on the 3rd, 6th, and 9th steps)

33
Q

What does the Margaria-Kalamen Test measure?

A

Power (in watts)

Weight (in newtons) x height (in meters)/divided by time between 3rd and 9th steps

34
Q

How is the 300-yard shuttle test performed?

A

Athletes sprint from 1 line to another line located 25 yards away and then back to the starting line; they perform this 6 times to cover a total distance of 300 yards

35
Q

How many trials of the 300-yard shuttle test are performed?

A

2 (the average of the two trials is taken and recorded)

36
Q

What is the rest period between the two trials of the 300-yard shuttle test?

A

5 mins

37
Q

During the partial curl-up test, the back must touch the ____ after each repetition and the fingertips must touch ____ on every curl-up

A

back must touch the floor; finger tips must touch the 2nd piece of tape on the mat

38
Q

How many curl-ups must be performed per minute in order to keep pace with the metronome?

A

20 curl-ups per min

39
Q

In the Army pushup test, the low position is considered to be when ______; in the ACSM pushup test, the low position is considered to be when _____

A

Army: upper arms are parallel to the floor

ACSM: Chest makes contact with the recorder’s first (or for females a 4 inch foam roller)

40
Q

In the Army pushup test, as many repetitions as possible are performed for _____duration; in the ACSM test, reps are performed until _____

A

Army: 2 mins

ACSM: until failure

41
Q

What are the weights used in the YMCA (sub-maximal) bench press test?

A

80 lbs for men; 35 lbs for women

42
Q

How many bench presses must be performed in the YMCA test in order to keep pace with the metronome?

A

30 reps per min

43
Q

How is the Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test performed?

A

Very similar to PACER Test; cones are placed 20 m apart; athlete starts at 1 cone and must reach the next cone before the auditory beep sound. Speed increases with each round. The test is terminated when the athlete can no longer maintain the increasing speed for two trials.

44
Q

How is the maximal aerobic speed test performed?

A

Usually performed on a track with cones placed every 25 m along the track; athletes usually begin at a pace of 10 km/hr and the speed is increased by 1 km/hr every 2 mins; the test is terminated when athlete fails to reach the next cone on two consecutive occasions in the required time

45
Q

How is the T- test performed?

A

Cones arranged in the shape of a T

Athlete starts at bottom/base of T (Cone A) and sprints forward to Cone B, shuffles laterally to the left to Cone C, shuffles laterally to the right to Cone D, shuffles left back to Cone B in the middle and then runs backwards to Cone A (starting position)

46
Q

True or False: During the T test, the athlete must touch the base of each cone with their hand and must remain facing forward the entire time

A

True

47
Q

How is the hexagon test performed?

A

Tape is used to make a hexagon shape on the floor. Athlete stands in the middle of the hexagon and hops with both feet over each “side” of the hexagon and then back to center moving in a clockwise direction.

48
Q

How many times does the athlete go around the hexagon in the hexagon test?

A

3 full times (18 jumps)

49
Q

How is the pro agility test performed?

A

Very similar to the T-test but uses 3 parallel lines on a football field. Athlete stands on the middle line and sprints 5 yards to the left line; sprints 10 yards to the right line, and then sprints 5 yards to the left back to the center line

50
Q

How is the 505 agility test performed?

A

3 sets of cones are arranged; athlete sprints 15 yards from the starting line to the turning line and then quickly changes direction and sprints 5 yards in the opposite direction back to the finish line (which is located between the start and turning lines)

51
Q

What are the 6 positions that are performed in the Balance Error Scoring System Test?

A

Firm surface: Feet together, Single leg stand on non-dominant Leg, tandem (or split) stance with the dominant foot in front of the non-dominant foot.

Soft surface (blue airex pad): All 3 positions are repeated

52
Q

Are eyes open or closed during the Balance Error Scoring System (BESS) Test?

A

Eyes are closed

53
Q

Where are the hands located in the BESS Test?

A

Hands are on hips

54
Q

How is the Star Excursion Balance Test performed?

A

Athlete stands on one leg in the center of a grid with lines extending out at 45 degree angle in the shape of an 8-pt star; moving in a clockwise direction, athlete reaches the other Leg out to the side as far as possible towards the taped line; the distance that the athlete is able to reach without losing balance is measured

55
Q

Flexibility of which muscle groups or body areas are assessed during the sit & reach test?

A

Hamstrings, erector spinae, lumbar spine

56
Q

How many measurements are taken during skinfold testing?

A

2 measurements at each site; average of the 2 is recorded (unless they differ by more than 10%; then additional measurements are taken)

57
Q

Skin fold for chest (men)

A

Diagnonal fold; 1/2 the distance between the anterior axillary line (mid-line) and the nipple

58
Q

Skin fold for thigh

A

Vertical fold on front of thigh, midway between the Hip and knee

59
Q

Skin fold for abdomen

A

Vertical fold 1 inch to the right of the belly button

60
Q

Skin fold for triceps

A

Vertical fold on the posterior mid-line of the upper arm; halfway between the acromion and olecranon processes

61
Q

Skin fold for suprailium

A

Diagonal fold above the crest of the ilium

62
Q

Skin fold for subscapula

A

Diagonal fold taken between the vertebral border and 0.5 - 1 inch from the bottom of the shoulder blade

63
Q

Skin fold for calf

A

Vertical fold on the medial side of the calf; taken at the point of maximal circumference

64
Q

Site of circumference measurement for chest

A

Nipple level for men; above the breasts at maximum circumference for women

65
Q

Site of circumference measurement for waist (abdomen)

A

At the belly button

66
Q

Site of circumference measurement for hips (buttocks)

A

At the point of maximal circumference of the buttocks with heels placed together

67
Q

Type of statistics that summarizes or describes a large group of data

A

Descriptive statistics

68
Q

Measures of ____are values about which the data tend to cluster (mean, mode, median)

A

Central tendency

69
Q

The average of the scores or data

A

Mean

70
Q

The middlemost score when the scores are arranged from lowest to highest

A

Median

71
Q

The score that occurs with the greatest frequency

A

Mode

72
Q

The interval from the lowest to the highest score

A

Range

73
Q

A measure of the variability of a set of scores about the mean

A

Standard deviation

74
Q

Which two measures assess the variability of a data set?

A

Range and standard deviation

75
Q

A number used to express the distance of any individual score in standard deviation units away from the mean

A

the Z score

76
Q

A type of statistics that allows one to draw general conclusions about a population from information collected in a population sample

A

Inferential Statistics

77
Q

A type of statistics that assesses or interprets the clinical significance of a change in the data set/scores

A

Magnitude statistics

78
Q

The ability of a test to detect the smallest practically important change in performance

Calculated as 0.2 x standard deviation

A

Smallest worthwhile change

79
Q

A statistical value that can be used to calculate change in group performance following a training program or comparing between different groups of athletes

A

Effect Size

ES = change in mean score/SD of pre-test

Structure and Function of Body Systems (26 decks)

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