Microbiology - First Aid Flashcards

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1
Q

Bacterial Appendages:

  • made of proteins
  • motility
A

Flagellum

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2
Q

Bacterial Appendages:

  • made of glycoproteins
  • mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface
  • sex pilus forms during conjugation
A

Pilus/Fimbria

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3
Q

Bacterial Structures:

  • has a keratin-like coat
  • made of dipicolinic acid, peptidoglycan and DNA
  • gram ⊕ only
  • resists dehydration, heat, and chemicals
A

Spore

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4
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • has an organized, discrete polysaccharide layer (except poly-d-glutamate on B anthracis)
  • protects against phagocytosis
A

Capsule

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5
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • loose network of polysaccharides
  • mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (eg. indwelling catheters)
A

Glycocalyx

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6
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • Outer Leaflet: contains endotoxin (LPS/LOS)
  • Embedded Proteins: porins and other outer membrane proteins (OMPs)
  • Inner Leaflet: phospholipids
  • gram ⊝ only
  • Endotoxin: lipid A induces TNF and IL-1, antigenic O polysaccharide component
  • most OMPs are antigenic
  • Porins: transport across outer membrane
A

Outer Membrane

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7
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • space between cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram ⊝ bacteria (peptidoglycan in middle)
  • accumulates components exiting gram ⊝ cells, including hydrolytic enzymes (eg. β-lactamases)
A

Periplasm

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8
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • peptidoglycan is a sugar backbone with peptide side chains cross-linked by transpeptidase
  • net-like structure gives rigid support
  • protects against osmotic pressure damage
A

Cell Wall

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9
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope:

  • phospholipid bilayer sac with embedded proteins (eg. penicillin-binding proteins [PBPs]) and other enzymes
  • lipoteichoic acids (gram ⊕ only) extend from membrane to exterior
  • site of oxidative and transport enzymes
  • PBPs involved in cell wall synthesis
  • lipoteichoic acids induce TNF-α and IL-1
A

Cytoplasmic Membrane

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10
Q

Bacterial Cell Envelope

A
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11
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

spherical

A

Coccus

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12
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

rod

A

Bacillus

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13
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

no cell wall

A

Pleomorphic

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14
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

spiral

A

Spirochete

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15
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Gram ⊕ Cocci

A
  • Staphylococcus (clusters)
  • Streptococcus (chains or pairs)
  • Enterococcus (pairs or short chains)
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16
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Gram ⊝ Cocci

A
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Neisseria
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17
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

A
  • Bacillus
  • Clostridium
  • Corynebacterium
  • Gardnerella (gram variable)
  • Lactobacillus
  • Listeria
  • Mycobacterium (acid fast)
  • Cutibacterium (formerly Propionibacterium)
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18
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

A
  • Bacteroides
  • Campylobacter
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Fusobacterium
  • Helicobacter
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus
  • Pseudomonas
  • Salmonella
  • Serratia
  • Shigella
  • Vibrio
  • Yersinia
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19
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

A
  • Acinetobacter baumannii
  • Bordetella
  • Burkholderia cepacia
  • Haemophilus (pleomorphic)
  • Legionella (silver stain)
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20
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Zoonotic Gram ⊝ Bacilli

A
  • Bartonella
  • Brucella
  • Francisella
  • Pasteurella
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21
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Branching Filamentous Gram ⊕ Bacteria

A
  • Actinomyces
  • Nocardia (weakly acid fast)
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22
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

A
  • Anaplasma
  • Ehrlichia
  • Chlamydiae (Giemsa)
  • Rickettsiae (Giemsa)
  • Mycoplasma (contains sterols, which do no Gram stain)
  • Ureaplasma
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23
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Gram ⊝ Spirochetes

A
  • Borrelia (Giemsa)
  • Leptospira
  • Treponema
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24
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Staphylococcus

A

Gram ⊕ Cocci in clusters

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25
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Streptococcus

A

Gram ⊕ Cocci in chains or pairs

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26
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Enterococcus

A

Gram ⊕ Cocci in pairs or short chains

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27
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Moraxella catarrhalis

A

Gram ⊝ Cocci

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28
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Neisseria

A

Gram ⊝ Cocci

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29
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Bacillus

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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30
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Clostridium

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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31
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Corynebacterium

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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32
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Gardnerella

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

*gram variable

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33
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Lactobacillus

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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34
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Listeria

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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35
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Mycobacterium

A

Acid Fast Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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36
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Cutibacterium (formerly Propionibacterium)

A

Gram ⊕ Bacilli

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37
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Bacteroides

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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38
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Campylobacter

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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39
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

E. coli

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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40
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Enterobacter

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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41
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Fusobacterium

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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42
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Helicobacter

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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43
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Klebsiella

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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44
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Proteus

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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45
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Pseudomonas

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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46
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Salmonella

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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47
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Serratia

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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48
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Shigella

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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49
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Vibrio

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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50
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Yersinia

A

Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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51
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Acinetobacter baumannii

A

Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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52
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Bordetella

A

Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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53
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Burkholderia cepacia

A

Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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54
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Haemophilus

A

Pleomorphic Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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55
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Legionella

A

Respiratory Gram ⊝ Bacilli

*silver stain

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56
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Bartonella

A

Zoonotic Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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57
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Brucella

A

Zoonotic Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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58
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Francisella

A

Zoonotic Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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59
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Pasteurella

A

Zoonotic Gram ⊝ Bacilli

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60
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Actinomyces

A

Branching Filamentous Gram ⊕ Bacteria

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61
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Nocardia

A

Branching Filamentous Gram ⊕ Bacteria

*weakly acid fast

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62
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Anaplasma

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

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63
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Ehrlichia

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

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64
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Chlamydiae

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

*Giemsa

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65
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Rickettsiae

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

*Giemsa

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66
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Mycoplasma

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

*contains sterols, which do not Gram stain

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67
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Ureaplasma

A

Pleomorphic Gram ⊝ Bacteria

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68
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Borrelia

A

Gram ⊝ Spirochetes

*Giemsa

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69
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Leptospira

A

Gram ⊝ Spirochetes

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70
Q

Bacterial Taxonomy:

Treponema

A

Gram ⊝ Spirochetes

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71
Q

Stains:

first-line lab test in bacterial identification

A

Gram Stain

  • Gram ⊕—thick peptidoglycan layer retains crystal violet dye
  • Gram ⊝—thin peptidoglycan layer turns red or pink with counterstain
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72
Q

_____ do not Gram stain well.

A

These Little Microbes May Unfortunately Lack Real Color But Are Everywhere

  • Treponema—too thin
  • Leptospira—too thin
  • Mycobacteria—cell wall has high lipid content
  • Mycoplasma—no cell wall
  • Ureaplasma—no cell wall
  • Legionella—intracellular
  • Rickettsia—intracellular
  • Chlamydia—intracellular, lacks classic peptidoglycan because of ↓ muramic acid
  • Bartonella—intracellular
  • Anaplasma—intracellular
  • Ehrlichia—intracellular
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73
Q

_____ are seen through Giemsa stain.

A

Ricky got Chlamydia as he Tried to Please the Bored “Geisha.”

  • Rickettsia
  • Chlamydia
  • Trypanosomes
  • Plasmodium
  • Borrelia
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74
Q

Stains:

  • stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides
  • used to diagnose Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei)
A

Periodic Acid–Schiff Stain

PASs the sugar.

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75
Q

Stains:

  • acid-fast bacteria (eg. Mycobacteria, Nocardia; stains mycolic acid in cell wall)
  • protozoa (eg. Cryptosporidium oocysts)
A

Ziehl-Neelsen Stain

*Auramine-Rhodamine Stain is more often used for screening (inexpensive, more sensitive).

(Carbol Fuchsin)

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76
Q

Stains:

  • seen through India ink stain
  • Mucicarmine can also be used to stain thick polysaccharide capsule red
A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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77
Q

Stains:

  • fungi (eg. Coccidioides, Pneumocystis jirovecii)
  • Legionella
  • Helicobacter pylori
A

Silver Stain

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78
Q

Stains:

  • used to identify many bacteria and viruses
  • FTA-ABS for syphilis
A

Fluorescent Antibody Stain

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79
Q

Properties of Growth Media:

  • favors the growth of particular organism while preventing growth of other organisms
  • eg. Thayer-Martin agar contains antibiotics that allow the selective growth of Neisseria by inhibiting the growth of other sensitive organisms
A

Selective Media

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80
Q

Properties of Growth Media:

  • yields a color change in response to the metabolism of certain organisms
  • contains a pH indicator
  • a lactose fermenter like E. coli will convert lactose to acidic metabolites → color change
  • eg. MacConkey agar
A

Indicator (Differential) Media

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81
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

H. influenzae

A

Chocolate agar

  • Factor V (NAD+)
  • Factor X (hematin)
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82
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

A

Thayer-Martin agar

  • selectively favors growth of Neisseria by inhibiting growth of gram ⊕ organisms with Vancomycin, gram ⊝ organisms except Neisseria with Trimethoprim and Colistin, and fungi with Nystatin

Very Typically Cultures Neisseria

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83
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

B. pertussis

A
  • Bordet-Gengou agar (Bordet for Bordetella)
    • potato extract
  • Regan-Lowe medium
    • charcoal
    • blood
    • antibiotic
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84
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

C. diphtheriae

A
  • Tellurite agar
  • Löffler medium
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85
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

M. tuberculosis

A

Löwenstein-Jensen agar

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86
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

M. pneumoniae

A

Eaton agar

  • requires cholesterol
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87
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

Lactose-Fermenting Enterics

A

MacConkey agar

  • fermentation produces acid causing colonies to turn pink
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88
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

E. coli

A

Eosin–Methylene Blue (EMB) agar

  • colonies with green metallic sheen
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89
Q

Special Culture Requirements:

Legionella

A

Charcoal Yeast Extract agar

  • buffered with cysteine and iron
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90
Q

_____ use an O2-dependent system to generate ATP.

A

Aerobes

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91
Q

Aerobes

A

Nagging Pests Must Breathe.

  • Nocardia
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • MycoBacterium tuberculosis
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92
Q

Reactivation of M .tuberculosis (eg. after immunocompromise or TNF-α inhibitor use) has a predilection for the _____.

A

apices of the lung

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93
Q

____ lack catalase and/or superoxide dismutase and are thus susceptible to oxidative damage. Generally foul smelling (short-chain fatty acids), are difficult to culture, and produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H2).

A

Anaerobes

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94
Q

Anaerobes

A

Anaerobes Can’t Breathe Fresh Air.

  • Clostridium
  • Bacteroides
  • Fusobacterium
  • Actinomyces israelii
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95
Q

Anaerobes are normal flora in the _____, typically pathogenic elsewhere.

A

GI tract

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96
Q

_____ are ineffective against anaerobes becaus these antibiotics require O2 to enter into bacterial cell.

A

Aminoglycosides

AminO2glycosides

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97
Q

_____ may use O2 as a terminal electron acceptor to generate ATP, but can also use fermentation and other O2-independent pathways.

A

Facultative Anaerobes

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98
Q

Facultative Anaerobes

A
  • Streptococci
  • Staphylococci
  • Enteric Gram ⊝ Bacteria
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99
Q

Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

A

Stay inside (cells) when it is Really CHilly and COld.

  • Rickettsia
  • CHlamydia
  • COxiella

*rely on host ATP

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100
Q

Facultative Intracellular Bacteria

A

Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY.

  • Salmonella
  • Neisseria
  • Brucella
  • Mycobacterium
  • Listeria
  • Francisella
  • Legionella
  • Yersinia pestis
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101
Q

The capsules of _____ serve as an antiphagocytic virulence factor. They are opsonized, and then cleared by spleen. Capsular polysaccharide + protein conjugate serves as an antigen in vaccines.

A

Encapsulated Bacteria

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102
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria

A

Please SHiNE my SKiS.

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae type b
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Escherichia coli
  • Salmonella
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Group B Strep.
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103
Q

Asplenics have ↓ opsonizing ability and thus ↓ risk for severe infections; need vaccines to protect against _____.

A

No Spleen Here

  • N. meningitidis
  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae
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104
Q

_____ containing polysaccharide capsule antigens are conjugated to a carrier protein, enhancing immunogenicity by promoting T-cell activation and subsequent class switching. A polysaccharide antigen alone cannot be presented to T cells.

A

Encapsulated Bacteria Vaccines

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105
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria Vaccines

A
  • Pneumococcal vaccines:
    • PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate vaccine)
    • PPSV23 (pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine with no conjugated protein)
  • H. influenzae type b (conjugate vaccine)
  • Meningococcal vaccine (conjugate vaccine)
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106
Q

Urease-Positive Organisms

A

Pee CHUNKSS

  • Proteus
  • Cryptococcus
  • H. pylori
  • Ureaplasma
  • Nocardia
  • Klebsiella
  • S. epidermidis
  • S. saprophyticus

*predisposes to struvite (ammonium magnesium phosphate) stones, particularly Proteus

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107
Q

_____ hydrolyzes urea to release ammonia and CO2 → ↑ pH.

A

Urease

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108
Q

_____ degrades H2O2 into H2O and bubbles of O2 before it can be converted to microbicidal products by the enzyme myeloperoxidase.

A

Catalase

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109
Q

People with _____ (NADPH oxidase deficiency) have recurrent infections with certain catalase ⊕ organisms.

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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110
Q

Catalase-Positive Organisms

A

Cats Need PLACESS to Belch their Hairballs.

  • Nocardia
  • Pseudomonas
  • Listeria
  • Aspergillus
  • Candida
  • E. coli
  • Staphylococci
  • Serratia
  • B. cepacia
  • H. pylori
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111
Q

Pigment-Producing Bacteria:
yellow “sulfur” granules—composed of filaments of bacteria

A

Actinomyces israelii

Israel has yellow sand.

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112
Q

Pigment-Producing Bacteria:

yellow pigment

A

S. aureus

Aureus (Latin) = gold

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113
Q

Pigment-Producing Bacteria:

blue-green pigment (pyocyanin and pyoverdin)

A

P. aeruginosa

Aerugula is green.

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114
Q

Pigment-Producing Bacteria:

red pigment

A

Serratia marcescens

red Sriracha hot sauce

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115
Q

In Vivo Biofilm Producing Bacteria:
catheter and prosthetic device infections

A

S. epidermidis

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116
Q

In Vivo Biofilm Producing Bacteria:

  • dental plaques
  • infective endocarditis
A

Viridans streptococci

  • S. mutans
  • S. sanguinis
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117
Q

In Vivo Biofilm Producing Bacteria:

  • respiratory tree colonization in patients with cystic fibrosis
  • ventilator-associated pneumonia
  • contact lens–associated keratitis
A

P. aeruginosa

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118
Q

In Vivo Biofilm Producing Bacteria:

otitis media

A

Nontypeable (Unencapsulated) H. influenzae

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119
Q

_____ promote evasion of host immune response.

A

Bacterial Virulence Factors

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120
Q

Bacterial Virulence Factors:

  • binds Fc region of IgG
  • prevents opsonization and phagocytosis
  • expressed by S. aureus
A

Protein A

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121
Q

Bacterial Virulence Factors:

  • enzyme that cleaves IgA, allowing bacteria to adhere to and colonize mucous membranes
  • secreted by S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type b, and Neisseria
A

IgA protease

SHiN

  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae type b
  • Neisseria
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122
Q

Bacterial Virulence Factors:

  • helps prevent phagocytosis
  • expressed by group A streptococci
  • shares similar epitopes to human cellular proteins (molecular mimicry)
  • possibly underlies the autoimmune response seen in acute rheumatic fever
A

M protein

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123
Q

_____ is also known as “injectisome.” It’s a needle-like protein appendage facilitating direct delivery of toxins from certain gram ⊝ bacteria (eg. Pseudomonas, Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli) to eukaryotic host cell.

A

Type III Secretion System

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124
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

  • competent bacteria can bind and import short pieces of environmental naked bacterial chromosomal DNA (from bacterial cell lysis)
  • transfer and expression of newly transferred genes
  • a feature of many bacteria, especially S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type b, and Neisseria
  • adding deoxyribonuclease degrades naked DNA, preventing _____
A

Transformation

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125
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

Conjugation (F+ × F)

A
  • F+ plasmid contains genes required for sex pilus and conjugation
  • bacteria without this plasmid are termed F
  • sex pilus on F+ bacterium contacts F bacterium
  • a single strand of plasmid DNA is transferred across the conjugal bridge (“mating bridge”)
  • no transfer of chromosomal DNA
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126
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

Conjugation (Hfr × F)

A
  • F+ plasmid can become incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA, termed High-frequency recombination (Hfr) cell
  • transfer of leading part of plasmid and a few flanking chromosomal genes
  • High-frequency recombination may integrate some of those bacterial genes
  • recipient cell remains F but now may have new bacterial genes
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127
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

  • a packaging “error”
  • lytic phage infects bacterium, leading to cleavage of bacterial DNA
  • parts of bacterial chromosomal DNA may become packaged in phage capsid
  • phage infects another bacterium, transferring these genes
A

Generalized Transduction

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128
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

  • an “excision” event
  • lysogenic phage infects bacterium
  • viral DNA incorporates into bacterial chromosome
  • when phage DNA is excised, flanking bacterial genes may be excised with it
  • DNA is packaged into phage capsid and can infect another bacterium
A

Specialized Transduction

*Genes for the following 5 bacterial toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage (ABCDS):

  • Group A strep erythrogenic toxin
  • Botulinum toxin
  • Cholera toxin
  • Diphtheria toxin
  • Shiga toxin
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129
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

  • segment of DNA (eg. transposon) that can “jump” (copy/excise and reinsert) from one location to another, can transfer genes from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa
  • this is a critical process in creating plasmids with multiple antibiotic resistance which can be transferred across species lines (eg. Tn1546 carrying vanA gene from vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus to S. aureus)
A

Transposition

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130
Q

Bacterial Genetics:

  • formed by some bacteria when nutrients are limited
  • lack metabolic activity
  • highly resistant to heat and chemicals
  • core contains dipicolinic acid
  • must autoclave to kill by steaming at 121°C for 15 minutes
A

Spores

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131
Q

Spore-Forming Bacteria

A
  • Bacillus anthracis—anthrax
  • Bacillus cereus—food poisoning
  • Clostridium botulinum—botulism
  • Clostridium difficile—pseudomembranous colitis
  • Clostridium perfringens—gas gangrene
  • Clostridium tetani—tetanus
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132
Q

Exotoxins:
Source

A

certain species of gram ⊕ and gram ⊝ bacteria

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133
Q

Exotoxins:

Cell Secretion

A

yes

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134
Q

Exotoxins:

Chemical Composition

A

Polypeptide

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135
Q

Exotoxins:

Location of Genes

A
  • Plasmid
  • Bacteriophage
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136
Q

Exotoxins:

Adverse Effects

A

High

*fatal dose on the order of 1 μg

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137
Q

Exotoxins:

Clinical Effects

A

Varied

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138
Q

Exotoxins:

Mode of Action

A

Varied

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139
Q

Exotoxins:

Antigenicity

A

induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins

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140
Q

Exotoxins:

Vaccines

A

Toxoids

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141
Q

Exotoxins:

Heat Stability

A

destroyed rapidly at 60°C (except staphylococcal enterotoxin and E. coli heatstable toxin)

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142
Q

Exotoxins:

Typical Diseases

A
  • Tetanus
  • Botulism
  • Diphtheria
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143
Q

Endotoxins:

Source

A

outer cell membrane of most gram ⊝ bacteria

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144
Q

Endotoxins:

Cell Secretion

A

No

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145
Q

Endotoxins:

Chemical Composition

A

Lipid A component of LPS (structural part of bacteria; released when lysed)

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146
Q

Endotoxins:

Location of Genes

A

Bacterial Chromosome

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147
Q

Endotoxins:

Adverse Effects

A

Low

*fatal dose on the order of hundreds of micrograms

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148
Q

Endotoxins:

Clinical Effects

A
  • fever
  • shock (hypotension)
  • DIC
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149
Q

Endotoxins:

Mode of Action

A

induces TNF, IL-1, and IL-6

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150
Q

Endotoxins:

Antigenicity

A

poorly antigenic

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151
Q

Endotoxins:

Vaccines

A
  • no toxoids formed
  • no vaccine available
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152
Q

Endotoxins:

Heat Stability

A

stable at 100°C for 1 hr

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153
Q

Endotoxins:

Typical Diseases

A
  • Meningococcemia
  • Sepsis by gram ⊝ rods
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154
Q

Exotoxins:

  • two-component toxin (or three for anthrax) with B enabling binding and triggering uptake (endocytosis) of the active A component
  • the A components are usually ADP ribosyltransferases; others have enzymatic activities
A

AB toxin

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155
Q

Exotoxins:

inhibit protein synthesis

A
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae—Diphtheria toxin
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa—Exotoxin A
  • Shigella spp.—Shiga toxin (ST)
  • Enterohemorrhagic E. coli—Shiga-like toxin (SLT)
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156
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • inactivate elongation factor (EF-2)
  • pharyngitis with pseudomembranes in throat and severe lymphadenopathy (bull neck)
A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae—Diphtheria toxin

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157
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • inactivate elongation factor (EF-2)
  • host cell death
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa—Exotoxin A

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158
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA
  • GI mucosal damage → dysentery
  • enhances cytokine release, causing hemolyticuremic syndrome (HUS)
A

Shigella spp.—Shiga toxin (ST)

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159
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA
  • enhances cytokine release, causing HUS (prototypically in EHEC serotype O157:H7).
  • unlike Shigella, EHEC does not invade host cells
A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli—Shiga-like toxin (SLT)

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160
Q

Exotoxins:

increase fluid secretion

A
  • Enterotoxigenic E. coli
    • Heat-labile toxin (LT)
    • Heat-stable toxin (ST)
  • Bacillus anthracis—Edema toxin
  • Vibrio cholerae—Cholera toxin
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161
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • overactivates adenylate cyclase (↑ cAMP) → ↑ Cl secretion in gut and H2O efflux
  • watery diarrhea
A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli—Heat-labile toxin (LT)

Labile in the Air (Adenylate cyclase)

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162
Q

Exotoxins:

  • overactivates guanylate cyclase (↑ cGMP) → ↓ resorption of NaCl and H2O in gut
  • watery diarrhea
A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli—Heat-stable toxin (ST)

Stable on the Ground (Guanylate cyclase)

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163
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • mimics adenylate cyclase (↑ cAMP)
  • likely responsible for characteristic edematous borders of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax
A

Bacillus anthracis—Edema toxin

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164
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • overactivates adenylate cyclase (↑ cAMP) by permanently activating Gs → ↑ Cl secretion in gut and H2O efflux
  • voluminous “rice-water” diarrhea
A

Vibrio cholerae—Cholera toxin

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165
Q

Exotoxins:

inhibit phagocytic ability

A

Bordetella pertussis—Pertussis toxin

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166
Q

Exotoxins:

  • overactivates adenylate cyclase (↑ cAMP) by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe
  • Whooping Cough—child coughs on expiration and “whoops” on inspiration (toxin may not actually be a cause of cough; can cause “100-day cough” in adults)
A

Bordetella pertussis—Pertussis toxin

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167
Q

Exotoxins:

inhibit release of neurotransmitter

A
  • Clostridium tetani—Tetanospasmin
  • Clostridium botulinum—Botulinum toxin
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168
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • protease that cleaves SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptor), a set of proteins required for neurotransmitter release via vesicular fusion
  • prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and glycine) neurotransmitters from Renshaw cells in spinal cord → spastic paralysis, risus sardonicus, trismus (lockjaw)
A

Clostridium tetani—Tetanospasmin

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169
Q

Exotoxins:

  • AB toxin
  • protease that cleaves SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptor), a set of proteins required for neurotransmitter release via vesicular fusion
  • prevents release of stimulatory (ACh) signals at neuromuscular junction → flaccid paralysis (floppy baby)
A

Clostridium botulinum—Botulinum toxin

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170
Q

Exotoxins:

lyse cell membranes

A
  • Clostridium perfringens—Alpha toxin
  • Streptococcus pyogenes—Streptolysin O
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171
Q

Exotoxins:

  • phospholipase (lecithinase) that degrades tissue and cell membranes
  • degradation of phospholipids → myonecrosis (“gas gangrene”) and hemolysis (“double zone” of hemolysis on blood agar)
A

Clostridium perfringens—Alpha toxin

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172
Q

Exotoxins:

  • protein that degrades cell membrane
  • lyses RBCs
  • contributes to β-hemolysis
  • host antibodies against toxin (ASO) used to diagnose rheumatic fever
A

Streptococcus pyogenes—Streptolysin O

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173
Q

Exotoxins:

superantigens causing shock

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus—Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin (TSST-1)
  • Streptococcus pyogenes—Erythrogenic exotoxin A
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174
Q

Exotoxins:

  • cross-links β region of TCR to MHC class II on APCs outside of the antigen binding site → overwhelming release of IL-1, IL-2, IFN-γ, and TNF-α → shock
  • Toxic Shock Syndrome: fever, rash, shock
A

Staphylococcus aureus—Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin (TSST-1)

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175
Q

Exotoxins:

  • cross-links β region of TCR to MHC class II on APCs outside of the antigen binding site → overwhelming release of IL-1, IL-2, IFN-γ, and TNF-α → shock
  • Toxic Shock–like Syndrome: fever, rash, shock;
    scarlet fever
A

Streptococcus pyogenes—Erythrogenic exotoxin A

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176
Q

Endotoxin

A

ENDOTOXINS:

  • Edema
  • Nitric oxide
  • DIC/Death
  • Outer membrane
  • TNF-α
  • O-antigen + core polysaccharide + lipid A
  • eXtremely heat stable
  • IL-1 and IL-6
  • Neutrophil chemotaxis
  • Shock
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177
Q

_____ are the glycolipid LPS molecules found in the outer membrane of gram ⊝ bacteria (both cocci and rods).

A

Endotoxins

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178
Q

Endotoxins are composed of _____.

A
  • O antigen
  • core polysaccharide
  • lipid A—toxic component
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179
Q

Endotoxins are released upon _____ or by living cells by _____ (vs. exotoxin, which is actively secreted).

A
  • cell lysis
  • blebs detaching from outer surface membrane
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180
Q

The three main effects of endotoxins are _____.

A
  • macrophage activation (TLR4/CD14)
  • complement activation
  • tissue factor activation
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181
Q

Gram-Positive Lab Algorithm

A
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182
Q

Gram-Positive Cocci Antibiotic Test:
Staphylococci

A

Novobiocin

  • Saprophyticus is Resistant
  • Epidermidis is Sensitive

On the office’s “staph” retreat, there was No StRESs.

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183
Q

Gram-Positive Cocci Antibiotic Test:

Streptococci

A

Optochin

  • Viridans is Resistant
  • Pneumoniae is Sensitive

OVRPS (overpass)

Bacitracin

  • group B strep are Resistant
  • group A strep are Sensitive

B-BRAS.

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184
Q

_____ are gram ⊕ cocci which partially reduce hemoglobin causing greenish or brownish color without clearing around growth on blood agar.

A

α-Hemolytic Bacteria

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185
Q

α-Hemolytic Bacteria

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • catalase ⊝
    • optochin sensitive
  • Viridans streptococci
    • catalase ⊝
    • optochin resistant
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186
Q

_____ are gram ⊕ cocci which cause complete lysis of RBCs → clear area surrounding colony on blood agar.

A

β-Hemolytic Bacteria

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187
Q

β-Hemolytic Bacteria

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
    • catalase and coagulase ⊕
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
    • group A strep
    • catalase ⊝ and bacitracin sensitive
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
    • group B strep
    • catalase ⊝ and bacitracin resistant
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188
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • β-hemolytic
  • Catalase ⊕
  • Coagulase ⊕
  • cocci in clusters
  • Protein A (virulence factor) binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis
  • commonly colonizes the nares, ears, axilla, and groin
A

Staphylococcus aureus

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189
Q

Bacteria:

  • Inflammatory Disease—skin infections, organ abscesses, pneumonia (often after influenza virus infection), endocarditis, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis
  • Toxin-Mediated Disease—toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid-onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
A

Staphylococcus aureus

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190
Q

Bacteria:

  • important cause of serious nosocomial and community-acquired infections
  • resistant to methicillin and nafcillin because of altered penicillin-binding protein
A

MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant S. aureus)

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191
Q

_____ is a superantigen that binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor, resulting in polyclonal T-cell activation.

A

TSST-1

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192
Q

_____ causes fever, vomiting, rash, desquamation, shock, and end-organ failure. It results in ↑ AST, ↑ ALT, ↑ bilirubin. Associated with prolonged use of vaginal tampons or nasal packing.

A

Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

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193
Q

_____ causes a toxic shock–like syndrome associated with painful skin infection.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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194
Q

_____ food poisoning due to ingestion of preformed toxin → short incubation period (2–6 hr) followed by nonbloody diarrhea and emesis. Enterotoxin is heat stable → not destroyed by cooking.

A

S. aureus

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195
Q

Bad _____ make coagulase and toxins. Forms fibrin clot around self Ž abscess.

A

S. aureus

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196
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • Catalase ⊕
  • Coagulase ⊝
  • Urease ⊕
  • cocci in clusters
  • Novobiocin sensitive
  • does not ferment mannitol
  • normal flora of skin
  • contaminates blood cultures
  • infects prosthetic devices (eg. hip implant, heart valve) and IV catheters by producing adherent biofilms
A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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197
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • Catalase ⊕
  • Coagulase ⊝
  • Urease ⊕
  • cocci in clusters
  • Novobiocin resistant
  • normal flora of female genital tract and perineum
  • second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women (most common is E. coli)
A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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198
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • lancet-shaped diplococci
  • encapsulated
  • IgA protease
  • Optochin sensitive
  • associated with “rusty” sputum, sepsis in patients with sickle cell disease, and asplenic patients
  • no virulence without capsule
A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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199
Q

Bacteria:

most common cause of meningitis, otitis media (in children), pneumonia, and sinusitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

MOPS spread pneumonia.

  • Meningitis
  • Otitis media (in children)
  • Pneumonia
  • Sinusitis
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200
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • α-hemolytic cocci
  • resistant to optochin
  • normal flora of the oropharynx
A

Viridans Group Streptococci

Viridans group strep live in the mouth, because they are not afraid of-the-chin (op-to-chin resistant).

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201
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci:

cause dental caries

A
  • Streptococcus mutans
  • SStreptococcus mitis
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202
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci:

makes dextrans that bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves, causing subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

Sanguinis = blood.

Think, “there is lots of blood in the heart” (endocarditis).

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203
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ cocci in chains
  • Bacitracin sensitive
  • β-hemolytic
  • Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase (PYR) ⊕
  • Hyaluronic acid capsule and M protein inhibit phagocytosis
  • antibodies to M protein enhance host defense but can give rise to rheumatic fever
A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)

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204
Q

Bacteria:

  • Pyogenic—pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo (“honey-crusted” lesions), erysipelas
  • Toxigenic—scarlet fever, toxic shock–like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis
  • Immunologic—rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis
A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)

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205
Q

ASO titer or anti-DNase B antibodies indicate recent _____ infection.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)

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206
Q

_____ pharyngitis can result in rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)

Pharyngitis can result in rheumatic “phever” and glomerulonephritis.

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207
Q

_____ strains causing impetigo can induce glomerulonephritis.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)

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208
Q

_____ causes blanching, sandpaper-like body rash, strawberry tongue, and circumoral pallor in the setting of group A streptococcal pharyngitis (erythrogenic toxin ⊕).

A

Scarlet Fever

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209
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ cocci
  • Bacitracin resistant
  • β-hemolytic
  • colonizes vagina
  • causes pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, mainly in babies.
  • produces CAMP factor, which enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus. (Note: CAMP stands for the authors of the test, not cyclic AMP.)
  • Hippurate test ⊕
  • PYR ⊝
A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococci)

Group B is β-hemolytic for Babies.

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210
Q

Pregnant women should be screened for _____ at 35–37 weeks of gestation with rectal and vaginal swabs.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococci)

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211
Q

Patients with ⊕ _____ culture should receive intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococci)

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212
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ cocci
  • colonizes the gut
  • S. gallolyticus (_____ biotype 1) can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis and is associated with colon cancer
A

Streptococcus bovis

Bovis in the Blood = Cancer in the Colon

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213
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ cocci
  • Penicillin G resistant
  • Catalase ⊝
  • PYR ⊕
  • normal colonic flora that cause UTI, biliary tract infections, and subacute endocarditis (following GI/GU procedures)
  • VRE (vancomycin-resistant _____) are an important cause of nosocomial infection
  • more resilient than streptococci, can grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile (lab test)
A

Enterococci

  • E. faecalis
  • E. faecium
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214
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • spore-forming rod
  • produces anthrax toxin
  • the only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule (contains d-glutamate)
  • colonies show a halo of projections, sometimes referred to as “medusa head” appearance
A

Bacillus anthracis

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215
Q

_____ causes painless papule surrounded by vesicles → ulcer with black eschar ( A ) (painless, necrotic) → uncommonly progresses to bacteremia and death.

A

Cutaneous Anthrax

(Bacillus anthracis)

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216
Q

_____ is caused by inhalation of _____ spores → flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, and shock. Also known as woolsorter’s disease. CXR may show widened mediastinum.

A

Pulmonary anthrax

(Bacillus anthracis)

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217
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ rod.
  • causes food poisoning
  • spores survive cooking rice (also known as reheated rice syndrome)
  • keeping rice warm results in germination of spores and enterotoxin formation
  • Emetic Type
    • usually seen with rice and pasta
    • nausea and vomiting
    • onset within 1–5 hr
    • caused by cereulide, a preformed toxin
  • Diarrheal Type
    • watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI pain
    • onset within 8–18 hr
A

Bacillus cereus

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218
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • spore-forming
  • obligate anaerobic rods
A

Clostridia (with exotoxins)

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219
Q

Bacteria:

  • produces tetanospasmin, an exotoxin causing tetanus
  • causes spastic paralysis, trismus (lockjaw), risus sardonicus (raised eyebrows and open grin), and opisthotonos (spasms of spinal extensors)
A

Clostridium tetani

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220
Q

_____ are proteases that cleave SNARE proteins for
neurotransmitters. They blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, GABA and glycine, from Renshaw cells in spinal cord.

A
  • Tetanus toxin
  • Botulinum toxin
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221
Q

Tetanus is treated with _____.

A
  • Antitoxin +/− Vaccine Booster
  • Antibiotics
  • Diazepam (for muscle spasms)
  • Wound Debridement
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222
Q

Bacteria:

  • produces a heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release at the neuromuscular junction, causing botulism
  • in adults, disease is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin
  • in babies, ingestion of spores (eg. in honey) leads to disease (floppy baby syndrome)
  • local botox injections used to treat focal dystonia, achalasia, and muscle spasms
  • used for cosmetic reduction of facial wrinkles
A

Clostridium botulinum

Botulinum is from bad bottles of food, juice, and honey (causes a descending flaccid paralysis).

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223
Q

The symptoms of botulism are _____.

A

4 D’s:

  • Diplopia
  • Dysarthria
  • Dysphagia
  • Dyspnea
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224
Q

Botulism is treated with _____.

A

Human Botulinum Immunoglobulin

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225
Q

Bacteria:

  • produces α toxin (lecithinase, a phospholipase) that can cause myonecrosis (gas gangrene; presents as soft tissue crepitus) and hemolysis
  • spores can survive in undercooked food
  • when ingested, bacteria release heat-labile enterotoxin → food poisoning.
A

Clostridium perfringens

Perfringens perforates a gangrenous leg.

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226
Q

Bacteria:

  • produces 2 toxins
  • Toxin A
    • enterotoxin,
    • binds to brush border of gut and alters fluid secretion
  • Toxin B
    • cytotoxin
    • disrupts cytoskeleton via actin depolymerization
  • both toxins lead to diarrhea → pseudomembranous colitis
  • often 2° to antibiotic use, especially Clindamycin or Ampicillin
  • associated with PPIs
A

Clostridium difficile

Difficile causes diarrhea.

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227
Q

Clostridium difficile is diagnosed by _____.

A
  • PCR
  • antigen detection of one or both toxins in stool
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228
Q

Clostridium difficile is treated with _____.

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Oral Vancomycin
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229
Q

Recurrent Clostridium difficile is treated with _____.

A
  • consider repeating prior regimen
  • Fidaxomicin
  • Fecal Microbiota Transplant
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230
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕ rod
  • black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar
  • transmitted via respiratory droplets
  • causes diphtheria via exotoxin encoded by β-prophage
  • potent exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
  • symptoms include pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, and arrhythmias
  • lab diagnosis based on gram ⊕ rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules and ⊕ Elek test for toxin
  • toxoid vaccine prevents diphtheria
A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Coryne = club shaped

ABCDEFG:

  • ADP-ribosylation
  • β-prophage
  • Corynebacterium
  • Diphtheriae
  • Elongation Factor 2
  • Granules
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231
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊕
  • facultative intracellular rod
  • acquired by ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products and cold deli meats, via transplacental transmission, or by vaginal transmission during birth
  • grows well at refrigeration temperatures (4°–10°C; “cold enrichment”)
A

Listeria monocytogenes

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232
Q

Bacteria:

  • forms “rocket tails” via actin polymerization that allow intracellular movement and cell-to-cell spread across cell membranes, thereby avoiding antibody
  • characteristic tumbling motility in broth
A

Listeria monocytogenes

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233
Q

Bacteria:

  • amnionitis, septicemia, and spontaneous abortion in pregnant women
  • granulomatosis infantiseptica
  • neonatal meningitis
  • meningitis in immunocompromised patients
  • mild, selflimited gastroenteritis in healthy individuals
A

Listeria monocytogenes

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234
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is treated with _____.

A

Ampicillin

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235
Q

Bacteria:

  • gram ⊕
  • form long, branching filaments resembling fungi
A
  • Nocardia
  • Actinomyces
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236
Q

Bacteria:

  • aerobe
  • acid fast (weak)
  • found in soil
  • causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised (can mimic TB but with ⊝ PPD)
  • cutaneous infections after trauma in immunocompetent
  • can spread to CNS
  • treated with sulfonamides (TMP-SMX)
A

Nocardia

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237
Q

Bacteria:

  • anaerobe
  • not acid fast
  • normal oral, reproductive, and GI flora
  • causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts
  • often associated with dental caries/extraction and other maxillofacial trauma
  • forms yellow “sulfur granules”
  • can cause PID with IUDs
  • treated with Penicillin
A

Actinomyces

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238
Q

Nocardia is treated with _____ while Actinomyces is treated with _____.

A

SNAP:

  • Sulfonamides—Nocardia
  • A**ctinomycesP**enicillin
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239
Q

Mycobacteria:

  • causes TB
  • often resistant to multiple drugs
A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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240
Q

Mycobacteria:

  • causes disseminated, non-TB disease in AIDS
  • often resistant to multiple drugs
  • prophylaxis with azithromycin when CD4+ count < 50 cells/mm3
A

Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare

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241
Q

Mycobacteria:

cervical lymphadenitis in children

A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

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242
Q

Mycobacteria:

hand infection in aquarium handlers

A

Mycobacterium marinum

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243
Q

All mycobacteria are _____ organisms (pink rods).

A

acid-fast

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244
Q

TB symptoms include _____.

A
  • fever
  • night sweats
  • weight loss
  • cough (nonproductive or productive)
  • hemoptysis
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245
Q

_____ creates a “serpentine cord” appearance in virulent M. tuberculosis strains; activates macrophages (promoting granuloma formation) and induces release of TNF-α.

A

Cord Factor

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246
Q

_____ (surface glycolipids) inhibit phagolysosomal fusion.

A

Sulfatides

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247
Q

Tuberculosis

A
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248
Q

Tuberculosis:

PPD __ if current infection or past exposure.

A

PPD ⊕

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249
Q

Tuberculosis:

PPD __ if no infection and in sarcoidosis or HIV infection (especially with low CD4+ cell count).

A

PPD ⊝

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250
Q

Tuberculosis:

has fewer false positives from BCG vaccination

A

Interferon-γ Release Assay (IGRA)

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251
Q

Characteristics of 2° Tuberculosis include _____.

A
  • Caseating Granulomas with central necrosis
  • Langhans Giant Cells
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252
Q

Mycobacteria:

  • caused by Mycobacterium leprae, an acid-fast bacillus that likes cool temperatures (infects skin and superficial nerves—“glove and stocking” loss of sensation) and cannot be grown in vitro
  • diagnosed via skin biopsy or tissue PCR
  • reservoir in US: armadillos
A

Leprosy (Hansen disease)

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253
Q

Leprosy:

  • presents diffusely over the skin, with leonine (lion-like) facies
  • communicable (high bacterial load)
  • characterized by low cell-mediated immunity with a humoral Th2 response
  • can be lethal
A

Lepromatous

Lepromatous form can be Lethal.

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254
Q

Leprosy:

  • limited to a few hypoesthetic, hairless skin plaques
  • characterized by high cell-mediated immunity with a largely Th1-type immune response and low bacterial load
A

Tuberculoid

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255
Q

Leprosy (Hansen disease) is treated with _____.

A
  • Tuberculoid
    • Dapsone
    • Rifampin
  • Lepromatous
    • Lofazimine
    • Dapsone
    • Rifampin
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256
Q

Gram-Negative Lab Algorithm

A
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257
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ diplococci
  • metabolizes glucose
  • produces IgA proteases
  • contains lipooligosaccharides (LOS) with strong endotoxin activity
A

Neisseria

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258
Q

Bacteria:

  • no polysaccharide capsule
  • often intracellular (within neutrophils)
  • Maltose not fermented
  • no vaccine due to antigenic variation of pilus proteins
  • sexually or perinatally transmitted
  • causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis (2–5 days after birth), pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
  • condoms ↓ sexual transmission
A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Gonococci ferment Glucose.

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259
Q

_____ eye ointment prevents neonatal blindness from Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

A

Erythromycin

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260
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is treated with _____.

A

Ceftriaxone (+ Azithromycin or Doxycycline, for possible chlamydial coinfection)

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261
Q

Bacteria:

  • polysaccharide capsule
  • Maltose fermentation
  • vaccine (type B vaccine not widely available)
  • transmitted via respiratory and oral secretions
  • causes meningococcemia with petechial hemorrhages and gangrene of toes, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (adrenal insufficiency, fever, DIC, shock)
A

Neisseria meningitidis

MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose.

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262
Q

_____ are given to close contacts as prophylaxis for Neisseria meningitidis.

A
  • Rifampin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Ceftriaxone
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263
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is treated with _____.

A
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Penicillin G
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264
Q

Bacteria:

  • small gram ⊝ (coccobacillary) rod
  • aerosol transmission
  • nontypeable (unencapsulated) strains are the most common cause of mucosal infections (otitis media, conjunctivitis, bronchitis) as well as invasive infections since the vaccine for capsular type b was introduced
  • produces IgA protease
A

Haemophilus influenzae

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265
Q

Bacteria:

  • culture on chocolate agar, which contains factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin) for growth;
  • can also be grown with S. aureus, which provides factor V via RBC hemolysis
A

Haemophilus influenzae

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266
Q

Bacteria:

  • epiglottitis
    • “cherry red” in children
    • “thumb sign” on lateral neck x-ray
  • meningitis
  • otitis media
  • pneumonia
A

Haemophilus influenzae

HaEMOPhilus

  • Epiglottitis
  • Meningitis
  • Otitis media
  • Pneumonia
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267
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is treated with _____.

A
  • Amoxicillin +/− Clavulanate–mucosal infections
  • Ceftriaxone–meningitis
  • Rifampin–prophylaxis for close contacts
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268
Q

Bacteria:

  • vaccine contains type b capsular polysaccharide (polyribosylribitol phosphate) conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein
  • given between 2 and 18 months of age
A

Haemophilus influenzae

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269
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝
  • aerobe
  • coccobacillus
  • Virulence Factors
    • Pertussis toxin (disables Gi)
    • Adenylate Cyclase toxin (↑ cAMP)
    • Tracheal Cytotoxin
  • may be mistaken as viral infection due to lymphocytic infiltrate resulting from immune response
A

Bordetella pertussis

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270
Q

Stages of Pertussis

A
  • Catarrhal—low-grade fevers, Coryza
  • Paroxysmal—paroxysms of intense cough followed by inspiratory “whooP” (“whooping cough”), posttussive vomiting
  • Convalescent—gradual recovery of chronic cough
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271
Q

Pertussis is prevented by _____ vaccines.

A
  • Tdap
  • DTaP
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272
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • Gram stains poorly
  • seen on silver stain
  • grows on charcoal yeast extract medium with iron and cysteine
  • detected by presence of antigen in urine
  • labs may show hyponatremia
  • aerosol transmission
A

Legionella pneumophila

Think of a French legionnaire (soldier) with his silver helmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal) with his iron dagger—he is no sissy (cysteine).

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273
Q

Legionella pneumophila causes _____ which presents with severe pneumonia (often unilateral and lobar), fever, GI and CNS symptoms. Common in smokers and in chronic lung disease.

A

Legionnaires’ disease

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274
Q

_____ is mild flu-like syndrome caused by Legionella pneumophila.

A

Pontiac Fever

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275
Q

Legionella pneumophila is treated with _____.

A
  • Macrolide
  • Quinolone
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276
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • aerobic
  • motile
  • Oxidase ⊕
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • found in water
  • grape-like odor
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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277
Q

Bacteria:

  • mucoid polysaccharide capsule may contribute to chronic pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients due to biofilm formation
  • corneal ulcers/keratitis in contact lens wearers/minor eye trauma.
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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278
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with _____.

A

PSEUDOMONAS:

  • Pneumonia
  • Sepsis
  • Ecthyma gangrenosum
  • UTIs
  • Diabetes
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Mucoid polysaccharide capsule
  • Otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)
  • Nosocomial infections (eg. catheters, equipment)
  • Addicts (drug abusers)
  • Skin infections (eg. hot tub folliculitis, wound infection in burn victims).
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279
Q

_____ is a rapidly progressive, necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by Pseudomonas bacteremia. Typically seen in immunocompromised patients.

A

Ecthyma Gangrenosum

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280
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is treated with _____.

A

CAMPFIRE:

  • Carbapenems
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Monobactams
  • Polymyxins (eg. polymyxin B, colistin)
  • Fluoroquinolones (eg. ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
  • ThIRd- and fourth-generation cephalosporins (eg. ceftazidime, cefepime)
  • Extended-spectrum penicillins (eg. piperacillin, ticarcillin)
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281
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • Oxidase ⊝
  • can invade the GI tract via M cells of Peyer patches
A
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
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282
Q

Bacteria:

  • Reservoir: humans only
  • can disseminate hematogenously
  • produces H2S
  • has flagella
  • Virulence Factors
    • Endotoxin
    • Vi Capsule
  • Infectious Dose (ID50)
    • High—large inoculum required
    • acid-labile (inactivated by gastric acids)
A

Salmonella typhi

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283
Q

Bacteria:

  • monocytic immune response
  • causes constipation, followed by diarrhea
  • causes typhoid fever (rose spots on abdomen, constipation, abdominal pain, fever)
  • carrier state with gallbladder colonization
  • antibiotics prolong duration of fecal excretion
A

Salmonella typhi

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284
Q

Salmonella typhi vaccines are _____.

A
  • Oral vaccine—live attenuated S. typhi
  • IM vaccine—Vi capsular polysaccharide
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285
Q

Salmonella typhi is treated with _____.

A
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Fluoroquinolone
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286
Q

Bacteria:

  • Reservoir: humans and animals
  • can disseminate hematogenously
  • produces H2S
  • has flagella
  • Virulence Factor: Endotoxin
  • Infectious Dose (ID50): High
A

Salmonella spp.

(except S. typhi)

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287
Q

Bacteria:

  • PMNs in disseminated disease
  • causes diarrhea (possibly bloody)
  • no vaccine
  • poultry, eggs, pets, and turtles are common sources
  • gastroenteritis is usually caused by nontyphoidal species
  • antibiotics not indicated
  • antibiotics prolong duration of fecal excretion
A

Salmonella spp.

(except S. typhi)

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288
Q

Bacteria:

  • Reservoir: humans only
  • cell to cell spread
  • does not produce H2S
  • no flagella
  • Virulence Factor:
    • Endotoxin
    • Shiga toxin (Enterotoxin)
  • Infectious Dose (ID50):
    • Low—very small inoculum required
    • acid stable (resistant to gastric acids)
A

Shigella

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289
Q

Bacteria:

  • PMN infiltration
  • causes bloody diarrhea (bacillary dysentery)
  • no vaccine
  • Species in order of decreasing severity (less toxin produced):
    • S. dysenteriae
    • S. flexneri
    • S. boydii
    • S. sonnei
  • invasion of M cells is key to pathogenicity
  • organisms that produce little toxin can cause disease
  • antibiotics shorten duration of fecal excretion
A

Shigella

Four F’s:

  • Fingers
  • Flies
  • Food
  • Feces
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290
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • usually transmitted from pet feces (eg. puppies), contaminated milk, or pork
  • causes acute diarrhea or pseudoappendicitis (right lower abdominal pain due to mesenteric adenitis and/or terminal ileitis)
A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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291
Q

Bacteria:

  • MacConkey agar—pink colonies
  • EMB agar—purple/black colonies
A

Lactose-Fermenting Enteric Bacteria

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292
Q

Lactose-Fermenting Enteric Bacteria

A

Lactose is key. Test with MacConKEES agar.

  • Citrobacter
  • Klebsiella
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Serratia (weak fermenter)
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293
Q

E. coli produces _____, which breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.

A

β-galactosidase

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294
Q

_____ grows colonies with a green sheen.

A

E. coli

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295
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • Virulence Factors:
    • Fimbriae—cystitis and pyelonephritis (P-pili)
    • K Capsule—pneumonia, neonatal meningitis
    • LPS Endotoxin—septic shock
A

Escherichia coli

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296
Q

E. coli Strains:

  • microbe invades intestinal mucosa and causes necrosis and inflammation
  • dysentery
  • clinical manifestations similar to Shigella
A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

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297
Q

E. coli Strains:

  • produces heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins
  • no inflammation or invasion
  • Traveler’s Diarrhea (watery)
A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

ETEC = Traveler’s Diarrhea

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298
Q

E. coli Strains:

  • no toxin produced
  • adheres to apical surface
  • flattens villi
  • prevents absorption
  • diarrhea, usually in children
A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

EPEC = Pediatrics

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299
Q

E. coli Strains:

  • O157:H7 is most common serotype in US
  • transmitted via undercooked meat, raw leafy vegetables
  • Shiga-like toxin causes Hemolytic-Uremic
  • Syndrome
  • dysentery (toxin alone causes necrosis and inflammation)
  • does not ferment Sorbitol (vs. other E. coli)
A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

EHEC = Hemorrhagic, Hamburgers, HUS

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300
Q

EHEC produces Shiga-like toxin which causes _____: triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure due to microthrombi forming on damaged endothelium → mechanical hemolysis (with schistocytes on peripheral blood smear), platelet consumption, and ↓ renal blood flow.

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

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301
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • intestinal flora that causes lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when aspirated
  • very mucoid colonies caused by abundant polysaccharide capsules
  • dark red “currant jelly” sputum (blood/mucus)
  • nosocomial UTI
  • associated with evolution of multidrug resistance (MDR)
A

Klebsiella

5 A’s of KlebsiellA:

  • Aspiration pneumonia
  • Abscess in lungs and liver
  • Alcoholics
  • DiAbetics
  • “CurrAnt jelly” sputum
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302
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝
  • comma or S shaped (with polar flagella)
  • Oxidase ⊕
  • grows at 42°C
  • major cause of bloody diarrhea, especially in children
  • fecal-oral transmission through person-to-person contact or via ingestion of undercooked contaminated poultry or meat, unpasteurized milk
  • contact with infected animals (dogs, cats, pigs) is a risk factor
  • common antecedent to Guillain-Barré syndrome and reactive arthritis
A

Campylobacter jejuni

Campylobacter likes the hot campfire.

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303
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝
  • flagellated
  • comma shaped
  • Oxidase ⊕
  • grows in alkaline media
  • endemic to developing countries
  • produces profuse rice-water diarrhea via enterotoxin that permanently activates Gs, ↑ cAMP
  • sensitive to stomach acid (acid labile)
  • requires large inoculum (high ID50) unless host has ↓ gastric acidity
  • transmitted via ingestion of contaminated water or uncooked food (eg. raw shellfish)
  • treat promptly with oral rehydration solution
A

Vibrio cholerae

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304
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram ⊝ rod
  • curved
  • flagellated (motile)
  • Triple ⊕:
    • Catalase ⊕
    • Oxidase ⊕
    • Urease ⊕
  • urea breath test or fecal antigen test are used for diagnosis
  • Urease produces ammonia, creating an alkaline environment, which helps survival in acidic mucosa
  • colonizes mainly antrum of stomach
  • causes gastritis and peptic ulcers (especially duodenal)
  • risk factor for pepti ulcer disease, gastric adenocarcinoma, and MALT lymphoma
A

Helicobacter pylori

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305
Q

Helicobacter pylori is treated with triple therapy which includes _____.

A

Antibiotics Cure Pylori.

  • Amoxicillin (Metronidazole for Penicillin allergy)
  • Clarithromycin
  • Proton Pump Inhibitor
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306
Q

Bacteria:

  • spiral-shaped
  • axial filaments
A

Spirochetes

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307
Q

Spirochetes

A

BLT

  • B**orrelia (big size)—B**orrelia is Big
  • Leptospira
  • Treponema
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308
Q

Among the spirochetes, only _____ can be visualized using aniline dyes (Wright or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy due to size.

A

Borrelia

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309
Q

Treponema is visualized by _____.

A
  • Dark-Field Microscopy
  • Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Microscopy
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310
Q

Bacteria:

  • Lyme disease
  • transmitted by the Ixodes deer tick (also
  • vector for Anaplasma spp. and protozoa Babesia)
  • natural reservoir is the mouse (and important to tick life cycle)
  • common in northeastern US
A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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311
Q

Lyme Disease Symptoms

A

A Key Lyme pie to the FACE:

  • Facial nerve palsy (typically bilateral)
  • Arthritis
  • Cardiac block
  • Erythema migrans
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312
Q

Stages of Lyme Disease

A
  • Stage 1—Early Localized: erythema migrans (typical “bulls-eye” configuration is pathognomonic but not always present), flu‑like symptoms
  • Stage 2—Early Disseminated: secondary lesions, carditis, AV block, facial nerve (Bell) palsy, migratory myalgias/transient arthritis
  • Stage 3—Late Disseminated: encephalopathy, chronic arthritis
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313
Q

Lyme disease is treated with _____.

A
  • Doxycycline (1st line)
  • Amoxicillin
  • Cefuroxime (pregnant women and children)
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314
Q

Bacteria:

  • spirochete
  • hook-shaped ends
  • found in water contaminated with animal urine
A

Leptospira interrogans

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315
Q

_____ presents with flu-like symptoms, myalgias (classically of calves), jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema without exudate). Prevalent among surfers and in tropics (eg. Hawaii).

A

Leptospirosis

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316
Q

_____ is the severe form of _____ with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage and anemia.

A

Weil Disease

(Icterohemorrhagic Leptospirosis)

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317
Q

Bacteria:

  • spirochete
  • causes syphilis
A

Treponema pallidum

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318
Q

Syphilis:

  • localized disease presenting with painless chancre
  • dark-field microscopy is used to visualize treponemes in fluid from chancre
  • VDRL ⊕ in ~ 80%
A

Primary Syphilis

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319
Q

Syphilis:

  • disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms
  • maculopapular rash C (including palms and soles)
  • condylomata lata (smooth, painless, wart-like white lesions on genitals)
  • lymphadenopathy
  • patchy hair loss
  • confirmable with dark-field microscopy
  • Serologic Testing:
    • VDRL/RPR—nonspecific
    • FTA-ABS—specific, confirmatory
  • latent syphilis (⊕ serology without symptoms) may follow
A

Secondary Syphilis

Secondary = Systemic

320
Q

Syphilis:

  • gummas (chronic granulomas)
  • aortitis (vasa vasorum destruction)
  • neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis, “general paresis”)
  • Argyll Robertson pupil (constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light; also called “prostitute’s pupil” since it accommodates but does not react)
  • Signs:
    • broad-based ataxia
    • ⊕ Romberg
    • Charcot joint
    • stroke without hypertension
  • Neurosyphilis: test spinal fluid with VDRL, FTA-ABS, and PCR.
A

Tertiary Syphilis

321
Q

Syphilis:

  • rhagades (linear scars at angle of mouth)
  • snuffles (nasal discharge)
    saddle nose
  • notched (Hutchinson) teeth
  • mulberry molars
  • short maxilla
  • saber shins
  • CN VIII deafness
A

Congenital Syphilis

322
Q

To prevent congenital syphilis, treat the mother early in pregnancy, as placental transmission typically occurs after the _____.

A

1st Trimester

323
Q

VDRL detects nonspecific antibody that
reacts with beef cardiolipin. Quantitative,
inexpensive, and widely available test for
syphilis (sensitive but not specific).

A
324
Q

VDRL False Positives

A

False-Positive results on VDRL with:

  • Pregnancy
  • Viral Infection (eg. EBV, Hepatitis)
  • Drugs
  • Rheumatic Fever
  • Lupus and Leprosy
325
Q

_____ is a flu-like syndrome (fever, chills, headache, myalgia) after antibiotics are started; due to killed bacteria (usually spirochetes) releasing toxins.

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction

326
Q

Bacteria:

  • Gram-variable rod
  • pleomorphic
  • bacterial vaginosis
  • presents as a gray vaginal discharge with a fishy smell
  • nonpainful (vs. vaginitis)
  • associated with sexual activity, but not sexually transmitted
  • bacterial vaginosis is also characterized by overgrowth of certain anaerobic bacteria in vagina
  • Clue Cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria) have stippled appearance along outer margin
A

Gardnerella vaginalis

I don’t have a clue why I smell fish in the vegetable (vagina) garden!

327
Q

In _____, mixing Gardnerella vaginalis discharge with 10% KOH enhances its fishy odor.

A

Amine Whiff Test

328
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis is treated with _____.

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Clindamycin
329
Q

Bacteria:

  • cannot make their own ATP
  • obligate intracellular organisms
  • cause mucosal infections
A

Chlamydiae

Chlamys = cloak (intracellular)

330
Q

2 Forms of Chlamydiae

A
  • Elementary Body
    • small, dense
    • Enfectious”
    • Enters cell via Endocytosis
    • transforms into reticulate body
  • Reticulate Body
    • Replicates in cell by fission
    • Reorganizes into elementary bodies
331
Q

Chlamydiae:

  • reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)
  • neonatal and follicular adult conjunctivitis
  • nongonococcal urethritis
  • PID
A

Chlamydia trachomatis

332
Q

Chlamydiae:

  • atypical pneumonia
  • transmitted by aerosol
A
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila psittaci
333
Q

Chlamydiae:

  • avian reservoir (parrots)
  • atypical pneumonia
A

Chlamydophila psittaci

334
Q

Chlamydia is diagnosed with _____.

A

PCR

335
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusions (reticulate bodies) of Chlamydia are seen on _____.

A
  • Giemsa
  • Fluorescent Antibody-Stained Smear
336
Q

The chlamydial cell wall lacks classic peptidoglycan (due to reduced muramic acid), rendering _____ ineffective.

A

β-lactam antibiotics

337
Q

Chlamydia is treated with _____.

A
  • Azithromycin (favored because of one-time treatment)
  • Doxycycline (+ Ceftriaxone for possible concomitant gonorrhea)
338
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Serotypes:

  • found in Africa
  • cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis
  • chronic infection
A

Types A, B, and C

ABC = Africa, Blindness, Chronic infection

339
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Serotypes:

  • urethritis/PID
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough) with eosinophilia
  • neonatal conjunctivitis (1–2 weeks after birth)
  • neonatal disease can be acquired during passage through infected birth canal
A

Types D–K

340
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Serotypes:

  • Lymphogranuloma Venereum
    • small, painless ulcers on genitals → swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (buboes)
  • treated with Doxycycline
A

Types L1, L2, and L3

341
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis causes _____ which presents with small, painless ulcers on genitals → swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (buboes)

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

342
Q

_____ is infectious disease transmitted between animals and humans.

A

Zoonosis

343
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Anaplasmosis
  • Ixodes ticks (live on deer and mice)
A

Anaplasma spp.

344
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Cat Scratch Disease
  • Bacillary Angiomatosis
A

Bartonella spp.

345
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Lyme disease
  • Ixodes ticks (live on deer and mice)
A

Borrelia burgdorferi

346
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Relapsing Fever
  • louse (recurrent due to variable surfac antigens)
A

Borrelia recurrentis

347
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Brucellosis
  • Undulant Fever
  • unpasteurized dairy
A

Brucella spp.

348
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • bloody diarrhea
  • feces from infected pets/animals
  • contaminated meats/foods/hands
A

Campylobacter

349
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Psittacosis
  • parrots, other birds
A

Chlamydophila psittaci

350
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Q Fever
  • aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid
A

Coxiella burnetii

351
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Ehrlichiosis
  • Amblyomma (lone star tick)
A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

352
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Tularemia
  • ticks, rabbits, deer flies
A

Francisella tularensis

353
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Leptospirosis
  • animal urine in water
  • recreational water use
A

Leptospira spp.

354
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Leprosy
  • lepromatous form is contagious
  • armadillo (rare)
A

Mycobacterium leprae

355
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Cellulitis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • animal bite, cats, dogs
A

Pasteurella multocida

356
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • epidemic typhus
  • human to human via human body louse
A

Rickettsia prowazekii

357
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  • Dermacentor (dog tick)
A

Rickettsia rickettsii

358
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • endemic typhus
  • fleas
A

Rickettsia typhi

359
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • diarrhea (which may be bloody)
  • vomiting
  • fever
  • abdominal cramps
  • reptiles and poultry
A

Salmonella spp.

(except S. typhi)

360
Q

Zoonotic Bacteria:

  • Plague
  • fleas (rats and prairie dogs are reservoirs)
A

Yersinia pestis

361
Q

Rickettsial diseases and vector-borne illnesses are treated with _____.

A
  • Doxycycline (caution during pregnancy)
  • Chloramphenicol (alternative)
362
Q

Common Rashes:

  • Rickettsia rickettsii
  • vector is tick
  • despite its name, disease occurs primarily in the South Atlantic states, especially North Carolina
  • rash typically starts at wrists and ankles and then spreads to trunk, palms, and soles
  • Classic Triad:
    • headache
    • fever
    • rash (vasculitis)
A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

You drive CARS using your palms and soles.

Palms and Soles Rash:

  • Coxsackievirus A Infection (Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease)
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  • Syphilis.
363
Q

Common Rashes:

  • Endemic (fleas)—R. typhi
  • Epidemic (human body louse)—R. prowazekii
  • rash starts centrally and spreads out, sparing palms and soles.
A

Typhus

R**ickettsii on the wR**ists

Typhus on the Trunk

364
Q

Rare Rashes:

  • Ehrlichia
  • vector is tick
  • monocytes with morulae (mulberry-like inclusions) in cytoplasm
A

Ehrlichiosis

MEGA berry:

  • Monocytes = Ehrlichiosis
  • Granulocytes = Anaplasmosis
365
Q

Rare Rashes:

  • Anaplasma
  • vector is tick
  • granulocytes with morulae (mulberry-like inclusions) in cytoplasm
A

Anaplasmosis

MEGA berry:

  • Monocytes = Ehrlichiosis
  • Granulocytes = Anaplasmosis
366
Q

Rare Rashes:

  • Coxiella burnetii—not in the Rickettsia genus, but closely related
  • no arthropod vector
  • spores are inhaled as aerosols from cattle/sheep amniotic fluid
  • pneumonia
  • common cause of culture ⊝ endocarditis
A

Q fever

Q fever is Queer because it has no rash or vector and its causative organism can survive outside in its endospore form.

367
Q

Bacteria:

  • pleomorphic
  • no cell wall
  • not seen on Gram stain
  • grown on Eaton agar
  • classic cause of atypical “walking” pneumonia (insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate)
  • CXR looks worse than patient
  • high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) which can agglutinate RBCs
  • bacterial membrane contains sterols for stability
  • pneumonia is more common in patients < 30 years old
  • frequent outbreaks in military recruits and prisons
A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae*
  • Mycoplasma* gets cold without a coat (cell wall).
368
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is treated with _____.

A
  • Macrolides
  • Doxycycline
  • Fluoroquinolone

*Penicillin ineffective since Mycoplasma have no cell wall

369
Q

Mycoses:

  • pneumonia
  • can disseminate
  • caused by dimorphic fungi:
    • cold (20°C) = mold
    • heat (37°C) = yeast
    • only exception is Coccidioides, which is a spherule (not yeast) in tissue
  • can form granulomas (like TB)
  • cannot be transmitted person-to-person (unlike TB)
A

Systemic Mycoses

370
Q

Systemic mycoses are treated with ____.

A
  • Local Infection
    • Fluconazole
    • Itraconazole
  • Systemic Infection
    • Amphotericin B
371
Q

Systemic Mycoses

A
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Blastomycosis
  • Coccidioidomycosis
  • Paracoccidioidomycosis
372
Q

Systemic Mycoses:

  • Mississippi and Ohio River Valleys
  • macrophage filled with mycoses (smaller than RBC)
  • palatal/tongue ulcers
  • splenomegaly
  • bird (eg. starlings) or bat droppings
  • diagnosis via urine/serum antigen
A

Histoplasmosis

Histo Hides (within macrophages)

373
Q

Systemic Mycoses:

  • Eastern and Central US
  • broad-based budding (same size as RBC)
  • inflammatory lung disease
  • can disseminate to skin/bone
  • verrucous skin lesions can simulate SCC
  • forms granulomatous nodules
A

Blastomycosis

Blasto Buds Broadly

374
Q

Systemic Mycoses:

  • Southwestern US, California
  • spherule (much larger than RBC) filled with endospores
  • disseminates to skin/bone
  • erythema nodosum (desert bumps) or multiforme
  • arthralgias (desert rheumatism)
  • can cause meningitis
A

Coccidioidomycosis

375
Q

Systemic Mycoses:

  • Latin America
  • budding yeast with “captain’s wheel” formation (much larger than RBC)
  • similar to blastomycosis
  • males > females
A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

Paracoccidio parasails with the captain’s wheel all the way to Latin America.

376
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses

A
  • Tinea (Dermatophytes)
    • Tinea Capitis
    • Tinea Corporis
    • Tinea Cruris
    • Tinea Pedis
    • Tinea Unguium
  • Tinea (Pityriasis) Versicolor
377
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • clinical name for dermatophyte (cutaneous fungal) infections
  • branching septate hyphae visible on KOH preparation with blue fungal stain
  • associated with pruritus
A

Tinea

378
Q

Dermatophytes

A
  • Microsporum
  • Trichophyton
  • Epidermophyton
379
Q

Tinea

A
  • Tinea Capitis
  • Tinea Corporis
  • Tinea Cruris
  • Tinea Pedis
  • Tinea Unguium
380
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • occurs on head and scalp
  • associated with lymphadenopathy, alopecia, and scaling
A

Tinea Capitis

381
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • occurs on torso
  • characterized by erythematous scaling rings (“ringworm”) and central clearing
  • can be acquired from contact with an infected cat or dog
A

Tinea Corporis

382
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • occurs in inguinal area
  • often does not show the central clearing seen in tinea corporis
A

Tinea Cruris

383
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • occurs on feet
  • Three Varieties:
    • Interdigital—most common
    • Moccasin distribution
    • Vesicular type
A

Tinea Pedis

384
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • occurs on nails
  • Onychomycosis
A

Tinea Unguium

385
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses:

  • caused by Malassezia spp. (Pityrosporum spp.), a yeast-like fungus (not a dermatophyte despite being called tinea)
  • degradation of lipids produces acids that damage melanocytes and cause hypopigmented, hyperpigmented, and/or pink patches
  • less pruritic than dermatophytes
  • can occur any time of year, but more common in summer (hot, humid weather)
  • “spaghetti and meatballs” appearance on microscopy
A

Tinea (Pityriasis) Versicolor

386
Q

Tinea (Pityriasis) Versicolor is treated with _____.

A
  • Selenium Sulfide
  • topical and/or oral antifungal medications
387
Q

Opportunistic Fungal Infections

A
  • Candida albicans
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Mucor spp.
  • Rhizopus spp.
388
Q

Opportunistic Fungal Infections:

  • dimorphic
  • pseudohyphae and budding yeasts at 20°C
  • germ tubes a 37°C
  • systemic or superficial fungal infection
  • oral and esophageal thrush in immunocompromised (neonates, steroids, diabetes, AIDS)
  • vulvovaginitis (diabetes, use of antibiotics)
  • diaper rash
  • endocarditis (IV drug users)
  • disseminated candidiasis (especially in neutropenic patients)
  • chronic mucocutaneous _____
A

Candida albicans

389
Q

Candida albicans is treated with _____.

A
  • Vaginal
    • Oral Fluconazole
    • Topical Azole
  • Oral/Esophageal
    • Nystatin
    • Fluconazole
    • Echinocandins
  • Systemic
    • Fluconazole
    • Echinocandins
    • Amphotericin B
390
Q

Opportunistic Fungal Infections:

  • monomorphic septate hyphae
  • branch at 45° acute angle
  • invasive aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients and in neutrophil dysfunction (eg. chronic granulomatous disease)
  • aspergillomas in pre-existing lung cavities, especially after TB infection
  • some species produce Aflatoxins (associated with hepatocellular carcinoma)
A

Aspergillus fumigatus

Aspergillus, Acute Angle, Aflatoxins

391
Q

_____ is a hypersensitivity response associated with asthma and cystic fibrosis; may cause bronchiectasis and eosinophilia.

A

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA)

392
Q

Opportunistic Fungal Infections:

  • 5–10 μm with narrow budding
  • heavily encapsulated yeast
  • not dimorphic
  • found in soil and pigeon droppings
  • acquired through inhalation with hematogenous dissemination to meninges
  • culture on Sabouraud agar
  • highlighted with India ink (clear halo) and mucicarmine (red inner capsule)
  • latex agglutination test detects polysaccharide capsular antigen and is more specific
  • causes disseminated infection, meningitis, and encephalitis (“soap bubble” lesions in brain), primarily in immunocompromised
A

Cryptococcus neoformans

393
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans is treated with _____.

A

Amphotericin B + Flucytosine followed by Fuconazole for cryptococcal meningitis

394
Q

Opportunistic Fungal Infections:

  • irregular, broad, nonseptate hyphae
  • branching at wide angles
  • mucormycosis mostly in ketoacidotic diabetic and/or neutropenic patients (eg. leukemia)
  • inhalation of spores → fungi proliferate in blood vessel walls, penetrate cribriform plate, and enter brain
  • rhinocerebral, frontal lobe abscess
  • cavernous sinus thrombosis
  • headache, facial pain, black necrotic eschar on face
  • may have cranial nerve involvement
A

Mucor and Rhizopus spp.

395
Q

Mucor and Rhizopus spp. are treated with _____.

A
  • surgical debridement
  • Amphotericin B
  • Isavuconazole
396
Q

Mycoses:

  • causes _____ pneumonia (PCP), a diffuse interstitial pneumonia
  • yeast-like fungus (originally classified as protozoan)
  • most infections are asymptomatic
  • immunosuppression (eg. AIDS) predisposes to disease
  • diffuse, bilateral ground-glass opacities on CXR/CT, with pneumatoceles
  • diagnosed by lung biopsy or lavage
  • disc-shaped yeast seen on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

397
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii is treated with _____.

A
  • TMP-SMX
  • Pentamidine
  • Atovaquone
  • Dapsone (prophylaxis only)
    • start prophylaxis when CD4+ count drops to < 200 cells/mm3 in HIV patients
398
Q

Mycoses:

  • Sporotrichosis
  • dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast that grows in branching hyphae with rosettes of conidia
  • lives on vegetation
  • when spores are traumatically introduced into the skin, typically by a thorn (“rose gardener’s disease”), causes local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis)
  • disseminated disease possible in immunocompromised host
A

Sporothrix schenckii

A rose gardener smokes cigars and pot.

399
Q

Sporothrix schenckii is treated with _____.

A
  • Itraconazole
  • Potassium Iodide

A rose gardener smokes cigars and pot.

400
Q

Protozoa:

Gastrointestinal Infections

A
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Cryptosporidium
401
Q

Protozoa:

  • bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea
  • (often seen in campers/hikers)
  • transmitted through cysts in water
  • diagnosed with multinucleated trophozoites/cysts in stool or antigen detection
A

Giardia lamblia

fatty stools of Giardia = fat-rich Ghirardelli chocolates

402
Q

_____ causes bloating, flatulence, and foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea (often seen in campers/hikers).

A

Giardiasis

fatty stools of Giardia = fat-rich Ghirardelli chocolates

403
Q

Giardia lamblia is treated with _____.

A

Metronidazole

404
Q

Protozoa:

  • bloody diarrhea (dysentery)
  • liver abscess (“anchovy paste” exudate)
  • RUQ pain
  • histology of colon biopsy shows flask-shaped ulcers
  • transmitted through cysts in water
  • diagnosed with serology, antigen testing, and/or trophozoites (with engulfed RBCs in the cytoplasm) or cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool
A

Entamoeba histolytica

Entamoeba Eats Erythrocytes

405
Q

_____ causes bloody diarrhea (dysentery), liver abscess (“anchovy paste” exudate), and RUQ pain. Histology of colon biopsy shows flask-shaped ulcers.

A

Amebiasis

406
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is treated with _____.

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Paromomycin—asymptomatic cyst passers
  • Iodoquinol—asymptomatic cyst passers
407
Q

Protozoa:

  • severe diarrhea in AIDS
  • mild disease (watery diarrhea) in immunocompetent hosts
  • transmitted through oocysts in water
  • diagnosed with oocysts on acid-fast stain or antigen detection
A

Cryptosporidium

408
Q

Cryptosporidium is treated with _____.

A
  • Nitazoxanide—immunocompetent hosts
  • prevention—filtering city water supplies
409
Q

Protozoa:

CNS Infections

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Trypanosoma brucei
410
Q

Protozoa:

  • Imononucleosis-like symptoms
  • ⊝ heterophile antibody test
  • reactivation in AIDS → brain abscesses usually seen as multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI
  • congenital infection prests with the classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications
  • transmitted through cysts in meat (most common) or oocysts in cat feces
  • crosses the placenta (pregnant women should avoid cats)
  • diagnosed with serology or biopsy (tachyzoite)
A

Toxoplasma gondii

411
Q

Toxoplasma gondii is treated with _____.

A

Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine

412
Q

Protozoa:

  • rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis
  • swimming in warm freshwater ↑ risk
  • enters via cribriform plate
  • diagnosed with amoebas in CSF
A

Naegleria fowleri

A Nalgene bottle is filled with fresh water.

413
Q

Naegleria fowleri is treated with _____.

A

Amphotericin B—has been effective for a few survivors

414
Q

Protozoa:

  • enlarged lymph nodes
  • recurring fever (due to antigenic variation)
  • somnolence
  • coma
  • transmitted through the Tsetse fly—painful bite
  • diagnosed with trypomastigote in blood smear
A

Trypanosoma brucei

415
Q

Trypanosoma brucei causes _____ which presents with enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever (due to antigenic variation), somnolence, and coma.

A

African Sleeping Sickness

416
Q

Trypanosoma brucei is treated with _____.

A
  • Suramin—bloodborne disease
  • Melarsoprol—CNS penetration

I sure am mellow when I’m sleeping.

417
Q

Protozoa:

Hematologic Infections

A
  • Plasmodium
    • P. vivax
    • P. ovale
    • P. falciparum
    • P. malariae
  • Babesia
418
Q

Protozoa:

  • Malaria—fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly
  • transmitted through the Anopheles mosquito
  • diagnosed with blood smear
    • trophozoite ring form within RBC
    • schizont containing merozoites
A

Plasmodium

419
Q

Plasmodium:

  • 48-hr cycle (tertian; includes fever on first day and third day, thus fevers are actually 48 hr apart)
  • dormant form (hypnozoite) in liver
  • red granules (Schüffner stippling) throughout RBC cytoplasm
A

P. vivax/ovale

420
Q

Plasmodium:

  • severe
  • irregular fever patterns
  • parasitized RBCs occlude capillaries in brain (cerebral malaria), kidneys, and lungs
A

P. falciparum

421
Q

Plasmodium:

72-hr cycle (quartan)

A

P. malariae

422
Q

Plasmodium is treated with _____.

A
  • Sensitive Species
    • Chloroquine—blocks Plasmodium heme polymerase
  • Resistant Species
    • Mefloquine
    • Atovaquone/Proguanil
  • Life-Threatening
    • IV Quinidine
    • IV Artesunate—test for G6PD deficiency
  • For P. vivax/ovale
    • add Primaquine for hypnozoite—test for G6PD deficiency
423
Q

Protozoa:

  • fever and hemolytic anemia
  • predominantly in northeastern US
  • asplenia ↑ risk of severe disease
  • transmitted through the Ixodes tick (same as Borrelia burgdorferi of Lyme disease; may often coinfect humans)
  • diagnosed with blood smear or PCR
    • ring form
    • “Maltese cross”
A

Babesia

424
Q

Babesia is treated with _____.

A

Atovaquone + Azithromycin

425
Q

Protozoa:
Visceral Infections

A
  • Trypanosoma cruzi
  • Leishmania donovani
426
Q

Protozoa:

  • Chagas disease—dilated cardiomyopathy with apical atrophy, megacolon, megaesophagus
  • predominantly in South America
  • unilateral periorbital swelling (Romaña sign) characteristic of acute stage
  • transmitted through the Triatomine (“kissing”) bug, a type of reduviid bug, deposits feces in a painless bite (much like a kiss)
  • diagnosed with Trypomastigote in blood smear
A

Trypanosoma cruzi

427
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is treated with _____.

A
  • Benznidazole
  • Nifurtimox

I’m cruzing in my Benz, with a fur coat on.

428
Q

Protozoa:

  • Visceral (kala-azar)—spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia
  • Cutaneous—skin ulcers
  • transmitted through the sandfly
  • macrophages containing amastigotes
A

Leishmania donovani

429
Q

Leishmania donovani is treated with _____.

A
  • Amphotericin B
  • Sodium Stibogluconate
430
Q

Protozoa:

Sexually Transmitted Infections

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

431
Q

Protozoa:

  • Vaginitis—foul-smelling greenish discharge, itching and burning
  • transmitted through sexual contact (cannot exist outside human because it cannot form cysts)
  • diagnosed with trophozoites (motile) on wet mount
  • “strawberry cervix”
A

Trichomonas vaginalis

432
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis is treated with _____.

A

Metronidazole for patient and partner (prophylaxis)

433
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

Ingested

A

You’ll get sick if you EATTT these!

  • Enterobius
  • Ascaris
  • Toxocara
  • Trichinella
  • Trichuris
434
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

Cutaneous

A

These get into your feet from the SANd.

  • Strongyloides
  • Ancylostoma
  • Necator
435
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

Bites

A

Lay LOW to avoid getting bitten.

  • Loa loa
  • Onchocerca volvulus
  • Wuchereria bancrofti
436
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

Intestinal

A
  • Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
  • Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)
  • Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm)
  • Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworms)
  • Necator americanus (hookworms)
  • Trichinella spiralis
  • Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
437
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • causes anal pruritus
  • diagnosed by seeing egg via the tape test
  • fecal-oral route
A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

438
Q

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is treated with _____.

A
  • Pyrantel Pamoate
  • Bendazoles
439
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • may cause obstruction at ileocecal valve, biliary obstruction, and intestinal perforation
  • migrates from nose/mouth
  • fecal-oral route
  • knobby-coated, oval eggs seen in feces under microscope
A

Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)

440
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm) is treated with _____.

A

Bendazoles

441
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • Autoinfection—rarely, some larvae may penetrate the intestinal wall to enter the bloodstream without leaving the body
  • larvae in soil penetrate skin
  • rhabditiform larvae seen in feces under microscope
A

Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm)

442
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) is treated with _____.

A
  • Ivermectin
  • Bendazoles
443
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • Cutaneous Larva Migrans—pruritic, serpiginous rash from walking barefoot on contaminated beach
  • cause anemia by sucking blood from intestinal wall
  • larvae penetrate skin
A
  • Ancylostoma duodenale
  • Necator americanus

*hookworms

444
Q

Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus (hookworms) are treated with _____.

A
  • Bendazoles
  • Pyrantel Pamoate
445
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • larvae enter bloodstream, encyst in striated muscle → muscle inflammation
  • causes fever, vomiting, nausea, periorbital edema, and myalgia
  • undercooked meat (especially pork)
  • fecal-oral (less likely)
A

Trichinella spiralis

446
Q

Trichinella spiralis is treated with _____.

A

Bendazoles

447
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • often asymptomatic
  • loose stools
  • anemia
  • rectal prolapse in children (heavy infection)
  • fecal-oral route
A

Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)

448
Q

Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) is treated with _____.

A

Bendazoles

449
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

Tissue

A
  • Toxocara canis
  • Onchocerca volvulus
  • Loa loa
  • Wuchereria bancrofti
450
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • Visceral Larva Migrans—nematode migrate to blood through intestinal wall → inflammation and damage
  • often affects heart (myocarditis), liver, eyes (visual impairment, blindness), and CNS (seizures, coma)
  • fecal-oral route
A

Toxocara canis

451
Q

Toxocara canis is treated with _____.

A

Bendazoles

452
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • skin changes, loss of elastic fibers, and river blindness (black flies, black skin nodules, “black sight”)
  • allergic reaction to microfilaria possible
  • transmitted through the female blackfly
A

Onchocerca volvulus

453
Q

Onchocerca volvulus is treated with _____.

A

Ivermectin

Ivermectin for River Blindness

454
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • swelling in ski
  • worm in conjunctiva
  • transmitted through the deer fly, horse fly, and mango fly
A

Loa loa

455
Q

Loa loa is treated with _____.

A

Diethylcarbamazine

456
Q

Nematodes (Roundworms):

  • Lymphatic Filariasis (Elephantiasis)—worms invade lymph nodes → inflammation → lymphedema
  • symptom onset after 9 mo.–1 yr.
  • transmitted through the female mosquito
A

Wuchereria bancrofti

457
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti is treated with _____.

A

Diethylcarbamazine

458
Q

Cestodes (Tapeworms)

A
  • Taenia solium
  • Diphyllobothrium latum
  • Echinococcus granulosus
459
Q

Cestodes (Tapeworms):

  • Intestinal Tapeworm—ingestion of larvae encysted in undercooked pork
  • Cysticercosis
    • Neurocysticercosis (cystic CNS lesions, seizures)
    • ingestion of eggs in food contaminated with human feces
A

Taenia solium

460
Q

Taenia solium is treated with _____.

A
  • Praziquantel
  • Albendazole for neurocysticercosis
461
Q

Cestodes (Tapeworms):

  • Vitamin B12 deficiency (tapeworm competes for B12 in intestine) → megaloblastic anemia
  • ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater fish
A

Diphyllobothrium latum

462
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum is treated with _____.

A

Praziquantel

463
Q

Cestodes (Tapeworms):

  • Hydatid cysts (“eggshell calcification”) in liver
  • cyst rupture can cause anaphylaxis
  • ingestion of eggs in food contaminated with dog feces
  • sheep are an intermediate host
A

Echinococcus granulosus

464
Q

Echinococcus granulosus is treated with _____.

A

Albendazole

465
Q

Trematodes (Flukes)

A
  • Schistosoma
  • Clonorchis sinensis
466
Q

Trematodes (Flukes):

  • S. mansoni
    • egg with lateral spine
    • liver and spleen enlargement fibrosis, inflammation, portal hypertension
  • S. haematobium
    • chronic infection
    • egg with terminal spine
    • can lead to squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder (painless hematuria) and pulmonary hypertension
  • snails are intermediate host cercariae penetrate skin of humans in contact with contaminated fresh water (eg. swimming or bathing)
A

Schistosoma

467
Q

Trematodes (Flukes):

  • egg with lateral spine
  • liver and spleen enlargement, fibrosis, inflammation, and portal hypertension
A

Schistosoma mansoni

468
Q

Trematodes (Flukes):

  • chronic infection
  • egg with terminal spine
  • can lead to squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder (painless hematuria) and pulmonary hypertension
A

Schistosoma haematobium

469
Q

Schistosoma is treated with _____.

A

Praziquantel

470
Q

Cestodes (Tapeworms):

  • biliary tract inflammation → pigmented gallstones
  • associated with cholangiocarcinoma
  • undercooked fish
A

Clonorchis sinensis

471
Q

Clonorchis sinensis is treated with _____.

A

Praziquantel

472
Q

Ectoparasites

A
  • Sarcoptes scabiei
  • Pediculus humanus
  • Phthirus pubis
473
Q

Ectoparasites:

  • mites burrow into stratum corneum—pruritus (worse at night) and serpiginous burrows (lines) in webspace of hands and feet
  • common in children, crowded populations (jails, nursing homes)
  • transmission through skin-to-skin contact (most common) or via fomites
A

Sarcoptes scabiei

474
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei is treated with _____.

A
  • Permethrin cream
  • washing/drying all clothing/bedding
  • treat close contacts
475
Q

Ectoparasites:

  • blood-sucking lice that cause intense pruritus with associated excoriations, commonly on scalp and neck (head lice) or waistband and axilla (body lice)
  • can transmit Rickettsia prowazekii (epidemic typhus), Borrelia recurrentis (relapsing fever), Bartonella quintana (trench fever).
A
  • Pediculus humanus
  • Phthirus pubis
476
Q

Pediculus humanus and Phthirus pubis are treated with _____.

A
  • Pyrethroids
  • Malathion
  • Ivermectin lotion
  • nit combing

*children with head lice can be treated at home without interrupting school attendance

477
Q

Parasites:

  • biliary tract disease
  • cholangiocarcinoma
A

Clonorchis sinensis

478
Q

Parasites:

Neurocysticercosis—brain cysts, seizures

A

Taenia solium

479
Q

Parasites:

  • hematuria
  • squamous cell bladder cancer
A

Schistosoma haematobium

480
Q

Parasites:

liver (hydatid) cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

481
Q

Parasites:

microcytic anemia

A
  • Ancylostoma
  • Necator
482
Q

Parasites:

  • myalgias
  • periorbital edema
A

Trichinella spiralis

483
Q

Parasites:

perianal pruritus

A

Enterobius

484
Q

Parasites:

portal hypertension

A
  • Schistosoma mansoni
  • Schistosoma japonicum
485
Q

Parasites:

Vitamin B12 Deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

486
Q

Viral Structure

A
487
Q

Viral Genetics:

exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

A

Recombination

488
Q

Viral Genetics:

  • when viruses with segmented genomes (eg. influenza virus) exchange genetic material
  • the 2009 novel H1N1 influenza A pandemic emerged via complex viral reassortment of genes from human, swine, and avian viruses
  • has potential to cause antigenic shift.
A

Reassortment

489
Q

Viral Genetics:

  • when 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein, the nonmutated virus “complements” the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses
  • hepatitis D virus requires the presence of replicating hepatitis B virus to supply HBsAg, the envelope protein for HDV
A

Complementation

490
Q

Viral Genetics:

  • occurs with simultaneous infection of a cell with 2 viruses
  • genome of virus A can be partially or completely coated (forming pseudovirion) with the surface proteins of virus B
  • type B protein coat determines the tropism (infectivity) of the hybrid virus
  • the progeny from this infection have a type A coat that is encoded by its type A genetic material
A

Phenotypic Mixing

491
Q

All DNA viruses have dsDNA genomes except _____.

A

Parvoviridae (ssDNA)

All are dsDNA (like our cells), except “part-of-a-virus” (parvovirus) is ssDNA.

Parvus = small

492
Q

All DNA viruses are linear except _____.

A

Circular

  • Papillomaviruses—supercoiled
  • Polyomaviruses—supercoiled
  • Hepadnaviruses—incomplete
493
Q

All RNA viruses have ssRNA genomes except _____.

A

Reoviridae (dsRNA)

All are ssRNA, except “repeato-virus” (reovirus) is dsRNA.

494
Q

⊕ Stranded RNA Viruses

A
  • Retrovirus
  • Togavirus
  • Flavivirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Hepevirus
  • Calicivirus
  • Picornavirus

I went to a retro toga party, where I drank flavored Corona and ate hippie California pickles.

495
Q

Naked Viral Genome Infectivity:

Purified nucleic acids of most dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV) and ⊕ strand ssRNA (≈ mRNA) viruses are _____.

A

infectious

496
Q

Naked Viral Genome Infectivity:

Naked nucleic acids of ⊝ strand ssRNA and dsRNA viruses are _____.

A

not infectious

497
Q

Naked Viral Genome Infectivity:

Naked nucleic acids of ⊝ strand ssRNA and dsRNA viruses are not infectious. They require _____ contained in the complete virion.

A

polymerases

498
Q

Generally, enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the _____ when they exit from cell.

A

plasma membrane

499
Q

Generally, enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from plasma membrane when they exit from cell. Exceptions include herpesviruses, which acquire envelopes from the _____.

A

nuclear membrane

500
Q

Naked (Nonenveloped) Viruses

A
  • Papillomavirus
  • Adenovirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Polyomavirus
  • Calicivirus
  • Picornavirus
  • Reovirus
  • Hepevirus

DNA = PAPP; RNA = CPR and hepevirus.

Give PAPP smears and CPR to a naked hippie.

501
Q

DNA Viruses

A

HHAPPPPy Viruses:

  • Hepadna
  • Herpes
  • Adeno
  • Pox
  • Parvo
  • Papilloma
  • Polyoma
502
Q

DNA viruses are icosahedral except _____.

A

Pox (complex)

503
Q

DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except _____.

A

Pox

  • carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Pox is out of the box (nucleus).

504
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • DS
  • linear
A

Herpesviruses

505
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • DS
  • linear
  • largest DNA virus
  • Molluscum Contagiosum—flesh-colored papule with central umbilication
A

Poxvirus

506
Q

_____ was eradicated worldwide by use of the live-attenuated vaccine.

A

Smallpox

507
Q

_____ presents with “milkmaid blisters”.

A

Cowpox

508
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • partially DS
  • circular
  • HBV
    • acute or chronic hepatitis
    • not a retrovirus but has reverse transcriptase
A

Hepadnavirus

509
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • DS
  • linear
  • febrile pharyngitis—sore throat
  • acute hemorrhagic cystitis
  • pneumonia
  • conjunctivitis—“pink eye”
  • gastroenteritis
A

Adenovirus

510
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • DS
  • circular
  • HPV
    • warts—serotypes 1, 2, 6, 11
    • CIN, cervical cancer—most commonly 16, 18
A

Papillomavirus

511
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • DS
  • circular
  • JC virus—progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in HIV
  • BK virus—transplant patients, commonly targets kidney
A

Polyomavirus

JC: Junky Cerebrum

BK: Bad Kidney

512
Q

DNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • SS
  • linear
  • smallest DNA virus
  • B19 virus
    • aplastic crises in sickle cell disease
    • “slapped cheek” rash in children (erythema infectiosum, or fifth disease)
  • RBC destruction in fetus leads to hydrops fetalis and death
  • in adults it leads to pure RBC aplasia and rheumatoid arthritis-like symptoms
A

Parvovirus

513
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through respiratory secretions and saliva
  • gingivostomatitis
  • keratoconjunctivitis
  • herpes labialis
  • herpetic whitlow on finger
  • temporal lobe encephalitis
  • esophagitis
  • erythema multiforme
  • most commonly latent in trigeminal ganglia
  • most common cause of sporadic encephalitis; can present as altered mental status, seizures, and/or aphasia
A

Herpes Simplex Virus-1

514
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through sexual contact, perinatal
  • herpes genitalis
  • neonatal herpes
  • most commonly latent in sacral ganglia
  • viral meningitis is more common
A

Herpes Simplex Virus-2

515
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through respiratory secretions
  • encephalitis
  • pneumonia
  • latent in dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia
  • CN V1 branch involvement can cause Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus
A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (HHV-3)

516
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through respiratory secretions and saliva
  • “kissing disease”(common in teens, young adults)
  • Mononucleosis
    • fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (especially posterior cervical nodes)
    • avoid contact sports until resolution due to risk of splenic rupture
  • associated with lymphomas (eg. endemic Burkitt lymphoma), nasopharyngeal carcinoma (especially Asian adults), and lymphoproliferative disease in transplant patients.
  • infects B cells through CD21
  • atypical lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear G—not infected B cells but reactive cytotoxic T cells
  • ⊕ Monospot Test—heterophile antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBCs
  • use of amoxicillin in mononucleosis can cause characteristic maculopapular rash
A

Epstein-Barr Virus (HHV-4)

517
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through congenital transfusion,
  • sexual contact, saliva, urine, and transplant
  • Mononucleosis (⊝ Monospot) in immunocompetent patients
  • infection in immunocompromised, especially pneumonia in transplant patients
  • esophagitis
  • AIDS retinitis (“sightomegalovirus”)
    • hemorrhage
    • cotton-wool exudates
    • vision loss
  • infected cells have characteristic “owl eye” intranuclear inclusions
  • latent in mononuclear cells
A

Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5)

AIDS retinitis = “sightomegalovirus

518
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through saliva
  • Roseola Infantum (Exanthem Subitum)
    • high fevers for several days that can cause seizures
    • followed by diffuse macular rash
  • Roseola
    • fever first
    • rosy (rash) later
A

Human Herpesviruses 6 and 7

HHV-7—less common cause of Roseola

519
Q

Herpesviruses:

  • transmitted through sexual contact
  • Kaposi sarcoma (neoplasm of endothelial cells)
  • seen in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients
  • dark/violaceous plaques or nodules representing vascular proliferations
  • can also affect GI tract and lungs
A

Human Herpesvirus 8

520
Q

HSV Identification:

  • skin
  • genitalia
A

Viral Culture

521
Q

HSV Identification:

Herpes Encephalitis

A

CSF PCR

522
Q

HSV Identification:

skin lesions

A

PCR

523
Q

HSV Identification:

a smear of an opened skin vesicle is used to detect multinucleated giant cells commonly seen in HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV infection

A

Tzanck Test

Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes.

524
Q

HSV Identification:

seen with HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV

A

Intranuclear Eosinophilic Cowdry Inclusions

525
Q

Receptors:

CMV

A

Integrins (Heparan Sulfate)

526
Q

Receptors:

EBV

A

CD21

527
Q

Receptors:

HIV

A
  • CD4
  • CXCR4
  • CCR5
528
Q

Receptors:

Parvovirus B19

A

P antigen on RBCs

529
Q

Receptors:

Rabies

A

Nicotinic AChR

530
Q

Receptors:

Rhinovirus

A

ICAM-1

531
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except _____.

A
  • Retrovirus
  • Influenza Virus

Retro flu is outta cyt (sight).

532
Q

_____ are viruses that are arthropod borne (mosquitoes, ticks).

A

Arbovirus

533
Q

Arboviruses

A
  • Coltivirus
  • Yellow Fever
  • Dengue
  • St. Louis Encephalitis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Zika Virus
  • Western and Eastern Equine Encephalitis
  • Chikungunya Virus
  • California Encephalitis
  • Sandfly Fever
  • Rift Valley Fever
  • Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
534
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • DS
  • linear
  • 10–12 segments of RNA
  • icosahedral (double) capsid
  • Coltivirus—Colorado tick fever
  • Rotavirus—cause of fatal diarrhea in children
A

Reoviruses

535
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • icosahedral capsid
  • Poliovirus—polio-Salk/Sabin vaccines—IPV/OPV
  • Echovirus—aseptic meningitis
  • Rhinovirus—“common cold”
  • Coxsackievirus—aseptic meningitis; herpangina (mouth blisters, fever); hand, foot, and mouth disease; myocarditis; pericarditis
  • HAV—acute viral hepatitis
A

Picornaviruses

PERCH

  • Poliovirus
  • Echovirus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coxsackievirus
  • HAV
536
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • icosahedral capsid
  • HEV
A

Hepevirus

537
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊝ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • icosahedral capsid
  • Norovirus—viral gastroenteritis
A

Caliciviruses

538
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • icosahedral capsid
  • HCV
  • Yellow Fever
  • Dengue
  • St. Louis Encephalitis
  • West Nile Virus—meningoencephalitis
  • Zika Virus
A

Flaviviruses

539
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • icosahedral capsid
  • Rubella
  • Western and Eastern Equine Encephalitis
  • Chikungunya Virus
A

Togaviruses

540
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • 2 copies of RNA
  • icosahedral capsid (HTLV)
  • complex and conical capsid (HIV)
  • have reverse transcriptase
  • HTLV—T-Cell Leukemia
  • HIV—AIDS
A

Retroviruses

541
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ linear
  • helical capsid
  • “common cold”
  • SARS
  • MERS
A

Coronaviruses

542
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ linear
  • 8 segments of RNA
  • helical capsid
  • Influenza Virus
A

Orthomyxoviruses

543
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ linear
  • nonsegmented RNA
  • helical capsid
  • Parainfluenza—croup
  • RSV—bronchiolitis in babies
  • Measles
  • Mumps
A

Paramyxoviruses

PaRaMyxovirus:

  • Parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • Measles
  • Mumps
544
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ linear
  • helical capsid
  • Rabies
A

Rhabdoviruses

545
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ linear
  • helical capsid
  • Ebola/Marburg Hemorrhagic Fever—often fatal
A

Filoviruses

546
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊕ and ⊝ circular
  • 2 segments of RNA
  • helical capsid
  • LCMV—Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus
  • Lassa Fever Encephalitis—spread by rodents
A

Arenaviruses

547
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ circular
  • 3 segments of RNA
  • helical capsid
  • California Encephalitis
  • Sandfly/Rift Valley Fevers
  • Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
  • Hantavirus—hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia
A

Bunyaviruses

548
Q

RNA Viruses:

  • ⊕ envelope
  • SS
  • ⊝ circular
  • uncertain capsid shape
  • HDV is a “defective” virus that requires the
  • presence of HBV to replicate
A

Delta Virus

549
Q

_____ must transcribe ⊝ RNA strand to ⊕. Virion brings its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

A

Negative-Stranded Viruses

550
Q

Negative-Stranded Viruses

A

Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication.

  • Arenaviruses
  • Bunyaviruses
  • Paramyxoviruses
  • Orthomyxoviruses
  • Filoviruses
  • Rhabdoviruses.
551
Q

Segmented Viruses are all _____.

A

RNA Viruses

552
Q

Segmented Viruses

A

BOAR

  • Bunyaviruses
  • Orthomyxoviruses
  • Arenaviruses
  • Reoviruses
553
Q

_____ RNA is translated into 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into functional viral proteins.

A

Picornavirus

PicoRNAvirus = small RNA virus

554
Q

Picornaviruses can cause aseptic (viral) meningitis except _____.

A
  • Rhinovirus
  • HAV
555
Q

Picornaviruses are all enteroviruses except _____.

A
  • Rhinovirus
  • HAV
556
Q

Picornaviruses

A

PERCH on a “peak” (pico).

  • Poliovirus
  • Echovirus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coxsackievirus
  • HAV
557
Q

Viruses:

  • Picornavirus
  • nonenveloped RNA virus
  • cause of common cold
  • > 100 serologic types
  • acid labile—destroyed by stomach acid
  • does not infect the GI tract (unlike the other picornaviruses)
A

Rhinovirus

Rhino has a runny nose.

558
Q

Viruses:

  • Flavivirus (also an arbovirus)
  • transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes
  • monkey or human reservoir
  • causes high fever, black vomitus, and jaundice
  • Councilman Bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic globules) on liver biopsy
A

Yellow Fever Virus

Flavi = yellow, jaundice

559
Q

Viruses:

  • Reovirus
  • segmented dsRNA virus
  • most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis
  • major cause of acute diarrhea in the US during winter, especially in day care centers, kindergartens
  • villous destruction with atrophy leads to ↓ absorption of Na+ and loss of K+
  • CDC recommends routine vaccination of all infants except those with a history of intussusception or SCID
A

Rotavirus

ROTAvirus = Right Out The Anus

560
Q

Viruses:

  • Orthomyxoviruses
  • enveloped, ⊝ ssRNA viruses with 8-segment genome
  • contain hemagglutinin (binds sialic acid and promotes viral entry) and neuraminidase (promotes progeny virion release) antigens
  • patients at risk for fatal bacterial superinfection, most commonly S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and H. influenzae
A

Influenza Viruses

561
Q

Reformulated Influenza vaccine (“the flu shot”) contains viral strains most likely to appear during the flu season, due to the virus’ _____.

A

rapid genetic change

562
Q

_____ Influenza vaccine is most frequently used.

A

Killed

563
Q

_____ Influenza vaccine contains temperature-sensitive mutant that replicates in the nose but not in the lung; administered intranasally.

A

Live Attenuated

564
Q

Influenza Viruses:

  • causes pandemics
  • reassortment of viral genome segments, such as when segments of human flu A virus reassort with swine flu A virus
A

Genetic/Antigenic Shift

Sudden shift is more deadly than gradual drift.

565
Q

Influenza Viruses:

  • causes epidemics
  • minor changes based on random mutation in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes
A

Genetic/Antigenic Drift

Sudden shift is more deadly than gradual drift.

566
Q

Viruses:

  • Togavirus
  • causes German (3-day) Measles
  • causes fever, postauricular and other lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, and fine, maculopapular rash that starts on face and spreads centrifugally to involve trunk and extremities
  • causes mild disease in children but serious congenital disease (a ToRCHeS infection)
  • congenital infection presents with “blueberry muffin” appearance due to dermal extramedullary hematopoiesis
A

Rubella Virus

567
Q

Viruses:

  • cause disease in children
  • include those that cause parainfluenza (croup), mumps, measles, RSV, and human metapneumovirus, which causes respiratory tract infection (bronchiolitis, pneumonia) in infants
  • all contain surface F (fusion) protein, which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells
A

Paramyxoviruses

568
Q

_____, monoclonal antibody against F protein, prevents pneumonia caused by RSV infection in premature infants.

A

Palivizumab

Palivizumab for Paramyxovirus (RSV) Prophylaxis in Preemies.

569
Q

Viruses:

  • Paramyxoviruses
  • causes Croup (Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis)
  • virus membrane contains hemagglutinin (binds sialic acid and promotes viral entry) and neuraminidase (promotes progeny virion release) antigens
  • results in a “seal-like” barking cough and inspiratory stridor
  • narrowing of upper trachea and subglottis leads to characteristic steeple sign on x-ray
  • severe Croup can result in pulsus paradoxus 2° to upper airway obstruction
A

Parainfluenza Viruses

570
Q

Viruses:

  • Paramyxovirus
  • usual presentation involves prodromal fever with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, then eventually Koplik spots (bright red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucosa), followed 1–2 days later by a maculopapular rash that starts at the head/neck and spreads downward
  • lymphadenitis with Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells (fused lymphocytes) in a background of paracortical hyperplasia
A

Measles (Rubeola) Virus

3 C’s of Measles:

  • Cough
  • Coryza
  • Conjunctivitis
571
Q

Sequelae of Measles

A
  • SSPE
    • Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
    • occurring years later
  • Encephalitis
    • 1:2000
  • Giant Cell Pneumonia
    • rare except in immunosuppressed
572
Q

_____ supplementation can reduce morbidity and mortality from measles, particularly in malnourished children.

A

Vitamin A

573
Q

Viruses:

  • Paramyxovirus
  • uncommon due to effectiveness of MMR vaccine
  • causes parotitis, orchitis (inflammation of testes), aseptic meningitis, and pancreatitis.
  • can cause sterility (especially after puberty).
A

Mumps Virus

Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as
big as POM-Poms.

  • Parotitis
  • Orchitis
  • aseptic Meningitis
  • Pancreatitis
574
Q

Viruses:

  • bullet-shaped virus
  • Negri bodies (cytoplasmic inclusions) commonly found in Purkinje cells of cerebellum and in hippocampal neurons
  • has long incubation period (weeks to months) before symptom onset
  • Postexposure prophylaxis is wound cleaning plus immunization with killed vaccine and rabies immunoglobulin
  • example of passive-active immunity
A

Rabies Virus

575
Q

Viruses:

  • travels to the CNS by migrating in a retrograde fashion (via dynein motors) up nerve axons after binding to ACh receptors
  • Progression of Disease:
    • fever, malaise → agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia, hypersalivation → paralysis, coma → death
  • infection more commonly from bat, raccoon, and skunk bites than from dog bites in the US
  • aerosol transmission (eg. bat caves) also possible
A

Rabies Virus

576
Q

Viruses:

  • Filovirus
  • targets endothelial cells, phagocytes, and hepatocytes
  • following an incubation period of up to 21 days, presents with abrupt onset of flu-like symptoms, diarrhea/vomiting, high fever, and myalgia.
  • can progress to DIC, diffuse hemorrhage, shock
  • diagnosed with RT-PCR within 48 hr of symptom onset
  • high mortality rate
A

Ebola Virus

577
Q

Viruses:

  • Filovirus
  • targets endothelial cells, phagocytes, and hepatocytes
  • transmission requires direct contact with bodily fluids, fomites (including dead bodies), and infected bats or primates (apes/monkeys)
  • high incidence of nosocomial infection
  • supportive care, no definitive treatment
  • strict isolation of infected individuals and barrier practices for health care workers are key to preventing transmission
A

Ebola Virus

578
Q

Viruses:

  • Flavivirus
  • most commonly transmitted by Aedes mosquito bites
  • causes conjunctivitis, low-grade pyrexia, and itchy rash in 20% of cases
  • can lead to congenital microcephaly or miscarriage if transmitted in utero
  • diagnose with RT-PCR or serology
  • sexual and vertical transmission possible
  • outbreaks more common in tropical and subtropical climates
  • supportive care, no definitive treatment
A

Zika Virus

579
Q

Viruses:

  • episodes of fever and jaundice
  • ↑ ALT and AST
A

Hepatitis Viruses

580
Q

Naked viruses (HAV and HEV) lack an envelope and are not destroyed by the _____.

A

gut

HAV, HEV = The vowels hit your bowels.

581
Q

HBV DNA Polymerase

A
  • HBV DNA polymerase has DNA- and RNA-dependent activities.
  • Upon entry into nucleus, the polymerase completes the partial dsDNA.
  • Host RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from viral DNA to make viral proteins.
  • The DNA polymerase then reverse transcribes viral RNA to DNA, which is the genome of the progeny virus.
582
Q

HCV lacks _____ activity → no proofreading ability → variation in antigenic structures of HCV envelope proteins. Host antibody production lags behind production of new mutant strains of HCV.

A

3′-5′ Exonuclease

583
Q

Hepatitis Viruses:

  • RNA Picornavirus
  • fecal-oral route (shellfish, travelers, day care)
  • Incubation Period—short (weeks)
  • asymptomatic (usually), acute
  • good prognosis
  • no risk for HCC
  • Liver Biopsy:
    • hepatocyte swelling
    • monocyte infiltration
    • Councilman bodies
  • no carrier state
A

HAV

Asymptomatic, Acute, Alone

584
Q

Hepatitis Viruses:

  • DNA Hepadnavirus
  • parenteral, sexual, and perinatal transmission
  • Incubation Period—long (months)
  • initially like serum sickness (fever, arthralgias, rash)
  • may progress to carcinoma
  • risk for HCC
  • adults → mostly full resolution
  • neonates → worse prognosis
  • Liver Biopsy:
    • granular eosinophilic “ground glass” appearance
    • cytotoxic T cells mediate damage
  • carrier state common
A

HBV

Blood, Babymaking, Birthing

585
Q

Hepatitis Viruses:

  • RNA Flavivirus
  • transmitted through blood (IVDU, post-transfusion)
  • Incubation Period—long
  • may progress to cirrhosis or carcinoma
  • risk for HCC
  • majority develop stable, chronic hepatitis C
  • Liver Biopsy:
    • lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis
  • carrier state very common
A

HCV

Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Chronic, Carrier

586
Q

Hepatitis Viruses:

  • RNA Deltavirus
  • parenteral, sexual, and perinatal transmission
  • Superinfection (HDV after HBV) = short
  • Coinfection (HDV with HBV) = long
  • initially like serum sickness (fever, arthralgias, rash)
  • may progress to carcinoma
  • risk for HCC
  • Superinfection → worse prognosis
  • Liver Biopsy:
    • granular eosinophilic “ground glass” appearance
    • cytotoxic T cells mediate damage
  • defective virus—depends on HBV HBsAg coat for entry into hepatocytes
A

HDV

Deltavirus, Defective

587
Q

Hepatitis Viruses:

  • RNA Hepevirus
  • fecal-oral route, especially waterborne
  • Incubation Period—short
  • fulminant hepatitis in expectant (pregnant) women
  • high mortality in pregnant women
  • no risk for HCC
  • Liver Biopsy:
    • patchy necrosis
  • enteric
  • epidemic
  • no carrier state
A

HEV

Expectant, Enteric, Epidemic

588
Q

Extrahepatic Hepatitis Viruses:

  • Aplastic Anemia
  • Membranous GN > Membranoproliferative GN
  • Polyarteritis Nodosa
A

Hepatitis B

589
Q

Extrahepatic Hepatitis Viruses:

  • Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia
  • ↑ risk B-cell NHL
  • ITP
  • Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
  • Membranoproliferative GN > Membranous GN
  • Leukocytoclastic Vasculitis
  • Sporadic Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
  • Lichen Planus
  • ↑ risk of Diabetes Mellitus
  • Autoimmune Hypothyroidism
A

Hepatitis C

590
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers

A
591
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

best test to detect acute hepatitis A

A

Anti-HAV (IgM)

592
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

  • indicates prior HAV infection and/or prior vaccination
  • protects against reinfection
A

Anti-HAV (IgG)

593
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

  • antigen found on surface of HBV
  • indicates hepatitis B infection
A

HBsAg

594
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

indicates immunity to hepatitis B due to vaccination or recovery from infection

A

Anti-HBs

595
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

antigen associated with core of HBV

A

HBcAg

596
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

  • IgM = acute/recent infection
  • IgG = prior exposure or chronic infection
  • IgM may be the sole ⊕ marker of infection during window period
A

Anti-HBc

597
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

  • secreted by infected hepatocyte into circulation
  • not part of mature HBV virion
  • indicates active viral replication and therefore high transmissibility and poorer prognosis
A

HBeAg

598
Q

Hepatitis Serologic Markers:

indicates low transmissibility

A

Anti-HBe

599
Q

HIV

A
600
Q

HIV has _____ genome (2 molecules of RNA).

A

Diploid

601
Q

HIV Structural Genes and Proteins

A
  • env (gp120 and gp41):
    • formed from cleavage of gp160 to form envelope glycoproteins
    • gp120—attachment to host CD4+ T cell
    • gp41—fusion and entry
  • gag (p24 and p17)
    • capsid and matrix proteins, respectively
  • pol
    • reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, integrase
602
Q

HIV _____ synthesizes dsDNA from genomic RNA; dsDNA integrates into host genome.

A

Reverse Transcriptase

603
Q

HIV binds _____ as well as a coreceptor, either _____ on macrophages (early infection) or _____ on T cells (late infection).

A

CD4

Coreceptors

  • CCR5 on macrophages (early infection)
  • CXCR4 on T cells (late infection)
604
Q

HIV:

homozygous CCR5 mutation

A

Immunity

605
Q

HIV:

heterozygous CCR5 mutation

A

slower course

606
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

  • presumptive diagnosis
  • detect viral p24 Ag capsid protein and IgG Abs to HIV-1/2
  • very high sensitivity/specificity
A

HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab Immunoassays

607
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

  • confirmation of ⊕ HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab immunoassay tests
  • determine whether patient has HIV-1 or HIV-2
A

HIV-1/2 Ab-Differentiation Immunoassays

608
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

  • done if inconclusive differentiation assay
  • if ⊝, patient had false positive initial Ag/Ab immunoassay
A

HIV‑1 Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT)

609
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

  • determine the amount of viral RNA in the plasma
  • high levels are associated with poor prognosis
  • used to monitor effect of drug therapy
A

Viral Load Tests

610
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

determine appropriate therapy

A

HIV Genotyping

611
Q

HIV Diagnosis:

AIDS CD4 levels

A

≤ 200 CD4+ cells/mm3

*HIV ⊕ with AIDS-defining condition (eg. Pneumocystis pneumonia) or CD4+ percentage < 14%

(normal: 500–1500 cells/mm3)

612
Q

HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab testing is not recommended in babies with suspected HIV due to maternally transferred antibodies. _____ is used instead.

A

HIV Viral Load

613
Q

Time Course of Untreated HIV Infection

A
  • Dashed lines on CD4+ count axis indicate moderate immunocompromise (< 400 CD4+ cells/mm3) and when AIDS-defining illnesses emerge (< 200 CD4+ cells/mm3).
  • Most patients who do not receive treatment eventually die of complications of HIV infection.
  • During clinical latency phase, the virus replicates in lymph nodes.

Four Stages of Untreated HIV:

  1. Flu-like (acute)
  2. Feeling fine (latent)
  3. Falling count
  4. Final crisis
614
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

CD4+ cell count < 500/mm3

A
  • Candida albicans
  • EBV
  • HHV-8
  • HPV
615
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 500/mm3
  • Candida albicans
  • scrapable white plaque
  • pseudohyphae on microscopy
A

Oral Thrush

616
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 500/mm3
  • EBV
  • unscrapable white plaque on lateral tongue
A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

617
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 500/mm3
  • HHV-8
  • biopsy with lymphocytic inflammation
A

Kaposi Sarcoma

618
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 500/mm3
  • HPV
A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

  • commonly of anus—men who have sex with men
  • cervix—women
619
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

CD4+ cell count < 200/mm3

A
  • Histoplasma capsulatum
  • HIV
  • JC Virus (reactivation)
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
620
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 200/mm3
  • fever, weight loss, fatigue, cough, dyspnea, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  • oval yeast cells within macrophages
A

Histoplasma capsulatum

621
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 200/mm3
  • HIV
A

Dementia

622
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 200/mm3
  • JC Virus (reactivation)
  • nonenhancing areas of demyelination on MRI
A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

623
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 200/mm3
  • pneumonia
  • “ground-glass” opacities on CXR
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

624
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3

A
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Candida albicans
  • CMV
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Cryptosporidium spp.
  • EBV
  • Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare (Mycobacterium avium Complex)
  • Toxoplasma gondii
625
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • hemoptysis, pleuritic pain
  • cavitation or infiltrates on chest imaging
A

Aspergillus fumigatus

626
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • Bartonella henselae
  • biopsy with neutrophilic inflammation
A

Bacillary Angiomatosis

627
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • Candida albicans
  • white plaques on endoscopy
  • yeast and pseudohyphae on biopsy
A

Esophagitis

628
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • retinitis, esophagitis, colitis, pneumonitis, encephalitis
  • linear ulcers on endoscopy, cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy
  • biopsy reveals cells with intranuclear (owl eye) inclusion bodies
A

CMV

629
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • meningitis
  • encapsulated yeast on India ink stain or capsular antigen ⊕
A

Cryptococcus neoformans

630
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • chronic, watery diarrhea
  • acid-fast oocysts in stool
A

Cryptosporidium spp.

631
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • B-cell lymphoma (eg. non-Hodgkin lymphoma, CNS lymphoma)
  • CNS lymphoma—ring enhancing, may be solitary (vs. Toxoplasma)
A

EBV

632
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • nonspecific systemic symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss) or focal lymphadenitis
A

Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare

(Mycobacterium avium Complex)

633
Q

Common Diseases of HIV⊕ Adults:

  • CD4+ cell count < 100/mm3
  • brain abscesses
  • multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI
A

Toxoplasma gondii

634
Q

Prion diseases are caused by the conversion of a normal (predominantly α-helical) protein termed prion protein (PrPc) to a _____, which is transmissible via CNS-related tissue (iatrogenic CJD) or food contaminated by BSE-infected animal products (variant CJD).

A

β-pleated form (PrPsc)

635
Q

Prion Diseases:

transmissible via CNS-related tissue

A

Iatrogenic CJD

636
Q

Prion Diseases:

transmissible via food contaminated by BSE-infected animal products

A

Variant CJD

637
Q

PrPsc resists _____ and facilitates the conversion of still more PrPc to PrPsc.

A

protease degradation

638
Q

Prions are resistant to standard sterilizing procedures, including standard _____.

A

autoclaving

639
Q

Accumulation of PrPsc results in _____.

A
  • spongiform encephalopathy
  • dementia
  • ataxia
  • death
640
Q

Prion Diseases:

  • rapidly progressive dementia
  • typically sporadic (some familial forms)
A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

641
Q

Prion Diseases:

also known as “mad cow disease”

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

642
Q

Prion Diseases:

acquired prion disease noted in tribal populations practicing human cannibalism

A

Kuru

643
Q

Normal Flora:

skin

A

S. epidermidis

644
Q

Normal Flora:

nose

A
  • S. epidermidis
  • S. aureus
645
Q

Normal Flora:

oropharynx

A

Viridans Group Streptococci

646
Q

Normal Flora:

dental plaque

A

S. mutans

647
Q

Normal Flora:

colon

A
  • B. fragilis
  • E. coli
648
Q

Normal Flora:

vagina

A
  • Lactobacillus
  • E. coli
  • Group B Strep
649
Q

_____ food poisoning starts quickly and ends quickly.

A
  • S. aureus
  • B. cereus
650
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

reheated rice

A

B. cereus

“Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!”

651
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

  • improperly canned foods (toxins)
  • raw honey (spores)
A

C. botulinum

652
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

reheated meat

A

C. perfringens

653
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

undercooked meat

A

E. coli O157:H7

654
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

  • deli meats
  • soft cheeses
A

L. monocytogenes

655
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

  • poultry
  • meat
  • eggs
A

Salmonella

656
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

  • meats
  • mayonnaise
  • custard
  • preformed toxin
A

S. aureus

657
Q

Bugs Causing Foodborne Illness:

contaminated seafood

A
  • V. parahaemolyticus
  • V. vulnificusa
658
Q

_____ can cause wound infections from contact with contaminated water or shellfish.

A

V. vulnificus

659
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • comma- or S-shaped organisms
  • growth at 42°C
A

Campylobacter

660
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • protozoan
  • amebic dysentery
  • liver abscess
A

E. histolytica

661
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • O157:H7
  • can cause HUS
  • makes Shiga-like toxin
A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

662
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

invades colonic mucosa

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli

663
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • lactose ⊝
  • flagellar motility
  • has animal reservoir
  • especially poultry and eggs
A

Salmonella (nontyphoidal)

664
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • lactose ⊝
  • very low ID50
  • produces Shiga toxin (human reservoir only)
  • bacillary dysentery
A

Shigella

665
Q

Bugs Causing Bloody Diarrhea:

  • day care outbreaks
  • pseudoappendicitis
A

Y. enterocolitica

666
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

  • pseudomembranous colitis
  • associated with antibiotics and PPIs
  • occasionally bloody diarrhea
A

C. difficile

667
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

also causes gas gangrene

A

C. perfringens

668
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

  • travelers’ diarrhea
  • heat-labile (LT) toxin
  • heat-stable (ST) toxin
A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

669
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

protozoa

A
  • Giardia
  • Cryptosporidium
670
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

  • comma-shaped organisms
  • rice-water diarrhea
  • often from infected seafood
A

V. cholerae

671
Q

Bugs Causing Watery Diarrhea:

viruses

A
  • Rotavirus
  • Norovirus
  • Enteric Adenovirus
672
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Neonates (< 4 wks.)

A
  • Group B Streptococci
  • E. coli
673
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Children (4 wks.-18 yrs.)

A

Runts May Cough Chunky Sputum

  • Viruses (RSV)
  • Mycoplasma
  • C. trachomatis (infants–3 yr.)
  • C. pneumoniae (school-aged children)
  • S. pneumoniae
674
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Adults (18-40 yrs.)

A
  • Mycoplasma
  • C. pneumoniae
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Viruses (eg. influenza)
675
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Adults (40-65 yrs.)

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae
  • Anaerobes
  • Viruses
  • Mycoplasma
676
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Elderly

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Influenza Virus
  • Anaerobes
  • H. influenzae
  • Gram ⊝ Rods
677
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Alcoholics

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Anaerobes—usually due to aspiration (eg. Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Prevotella, Bacteroides)
678
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

IV Drug Users

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • S. aureus
679
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Aspiration

A

Anaerobes

680
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Atypical

A
  • Mycoplasma
  • Chlamydophila
  • Legionella
  • Viruses (RSV, CMV, Influenza, Adenovirus)
681
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Cystic Fibrosis

A
  • Pseudomonas
  • S. aureus
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Burkholderia cepacia
682
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Immunocompromised

A
  • S. aureus
  • Enteric Gram ⊝ Rods
  • Fungi
  • Viruses
  • P. jirovecii (with HIV)
683
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Nosocomial (hospital acquired)

A
  • S. aureus
  • Pseudomonas
  • Enteric Gram ⊝ Rods
684
Q

Common Causes of Pneumonia:

Postviral

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • S. aureus
  • H. influenzae
685
Q

Common Causes of Meningitis:

Newborns (0-6 mos.)

A
  • Group B Streptococci
  • E. coli
  • Listeria
686
Q

Common Causes of Meningitis:

Children (6 mos.-6 yrs.)

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • N. meningitidis
  • H. influenzae type b
  • Enteroviruses
687
Q

Common Causes of Meningitis:

6-60 yrs.

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • N. meningitidis (#1 in teens)
  • Enteroviruses
  • HSV
688
Q

Common Causes of Meningitis:

60+ yrs.

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Gram ⊝ Rods
  • Listeria
689
Q

Meningitis is empirically treated with _____.

A
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Vancomycin
  • Ampicillin—if Listeria is suspected
690
Q

Viral Causes of Meningitis

A
  • Enteroviruses (especially coxsackievirus)
  • HSV-2 (HSV-1 = encephalitis)
  • HIV
  • West Nile Virus (also causes encephalitis)
  • VZV
691
Q

Common Causes of Meningitis:

HIV

A

Cryptococcus spp.

692
Q

Cerebrospinal Fluid Findings in Meningitis:

  • ↑ opening pressure
  • ↑ PMNs
  • ↑ protein
  • ↓ glucose
A

Bacterial

693
Q

Cerebrospinal Fluid Findings in Meningitis:

  • ↑ opening pressure
  • ↑ lymphocytes
  • ↑ protein
  • ↓ glucose
A
  • Fungal
  • TB
694
Q

Cerebrospinal Fluid Findings in Meningitis:

  • normal/↑ opening pressure
  • ↑ lymphocytes
  • normal/↑ protein
  • normal glucose
A

Viral

695
Q

Infections Causing Brain Abscess:

most common

A
  • Viridans Streptococci
  • Staphylococcus aureus
696
Q

Infections Causing Brain Abscess:

dental infection or extraction

A

Oral Anaerobes

697
Q

Infections Causing Brain Abscess:

multiple abscesses

A

Bacteremia

698
Q

Infections Causing Brain Abscess:

single lesions

A

Contiguous Sites:

  • otitis media and mastoiditis → temporal lobe and cerebellum
  • sinusitis or dental infection → frontal lobe
699
Q

Infections Causing Brain Abscess:

AIDS

A

Toxoplasma Reactivation

700
Q

Osteomyelitis:

most common

A

S. aureus

701
Q

Osteomyelitis:

sexually active

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • rare
  • septic arthritis more common
702
Q

Osteomyelitis:

Sickle Cell Disease

A
  • Salmonella
  • S. aureus
703
Q

Osteomyelitis:

prosthetic joint replacement

A
  • S. aureus
  • S. epidermidis
704
Q

Osteomyelitis:

vertebral involvement

A
  • S. aureus
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott disease)
705
Q

Osteomyelitis:

cat and dog bites

A

Pasteurella multocida

706
Q

Osteomyelitis:

IV drug abuse

A
  • S. aureus
  • Pseudomonas
  • Candida
707
Q

_____ are insensitive early but can be useful in chronic osteomyelitis.

A

Radiographs

708
Q

_____ is best for detecting acute osteomyelitis and detailing anatomic involvement.

A

MRI

709
Q

Cystitis presents with _____.

A
  • dysuria
  • frequency
  • urgency
  • suprapubic pain
  • WBCs (but not WBC casts) in urine
710
Q

Cystitis is primarily caused by _____.

A

ascension of microbes from urethra to bladder

711
Q

Ascension of microbes from the urethra to the kidneys results in pyelonephritis, which presents with _____.

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • flank pain
  • costovertebral angle tenderness
  • hematuria
  • WBC casts
712
Q

Urinary tract infections are ten times more common in women due to _____.

A

shorter urethras colonized by fecal flora

713
Q

Predisposing Factors to UTI

A
  • female
  • males with congenital defects or vesicoureteral reflux
  • obstruction
  • kidney surgery
  • catheterization
  • GU malformation
  • diabetes
  • pregnancy
  • elderly—enlarged prostate
714
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

  • leading cause of UTI
  • colonies show strong pink lactose-fermentation on MacConkey agar
A

Escherichia coli

715
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

2nd leading cause of UTI in sexually active women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

716
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

  • 3rd leading cause of UTI
  • large mucoid capsule
  • viscous colonies
A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

717
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

  • some strains produce a red pigment
  • often nosocomial and drug resistant
A

Serratia marcescens

718
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

often nosocomial and drug resistant

A

Enterococcus

719
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

  • motility causes “swarming” on agar
  • associated with struvite stones
A

Proteus mirabilis

720
Q

Urinary Tract Infections:

  • blue-green pigment
  • fruity odor
  • usually nosocomial and drug resistant
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

721
Q

UTI Diagnostic Markers:

evidence of WBC activity

A

Leukocyte Esterase

722
Q

UTI Diagnostic Markers:

reduction of urinary nitrates by bacterial species (eg. E coli)

A

Nitrite Test

723
Q

UTI Diagnostic Markers:

urease-producing bugs (eg. S. saprophyticus, Proteus, Klebsiella)

A

Urease Test

724
Q

Common Vaginal Infections:

  • no inflammation
  • thin, white discharge with fishy odor
  • clue cells
  • pH > 4.5
A

Bacterial Vaginosis

725
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis is treated with _____.

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Clindamycin
726
Q

Common Vaginal Infections:

  • inflammation (“strawberry cervix”)
  • frothy, yellow-green, foul-smelling discharge
  • motile trichomonads
  • pH > 4.5
A

Trichomonas Vaginitis

727
Q

Trichomonas Vaginitis is treated with _____.

A
  • Metronidazole
  • treat sexual partner(s)
728
Q

Common Vaginal Infections:

  • inflammation
  • thick, white, “cottage cheese” discharge
  • pseudohyphae
  • pH normal (4.0–4.5)
A

Candida Vulvovaginitis

729
Q

Candida Vulvovaginitis is treated with _____.

A

Azoles

730
Q

ToRCHeS Infections

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Rubella
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • HIV
  • Herpes Simplex Virus-2
  • Syphilis
731
Q

Transmission of ToRCHeS infections is _____ in most cases, or via _____ (especially HSV-2).

A
  • transplacental
  • delivery

*Other important infectious agents include Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci), E. coli, and Listeria monocytogenes—all causes of meningitis in neonates.

*Parvovirus B19 causes hydrops fetalis.

732
Q

Nonspecific Signs of ToRCHeS Infections

A
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • jaundice
  • thrombocytopenia
  • growth retardation
733
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • cat feces
    • ingestion of undercooked meat
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • usually asymptomatic
    • lymphadenopathy (rarely)
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • Classic Triad:
      • chorioretinitis
      • hydrocephalus
      • intracranial calcifications
      • +/− “blueberry muffin” rash
A

Toxoplasma gondii

734
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • respiratory droplets
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • rash
    • lymphadenopathy
    • polyarthritis
    • polyarthralgia
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • Classic Triad:
      • cataracts
      • deafness
      • congenital heart disease (PDA)
      • ± “blueberry muffin” rash
A

Rubella

I (eye) ruby (rubella) earrings.”

735
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • sexual contact
    • organ transplants
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • usually asymptomatic
    • mononucleosis-like illness
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • hearing loss
    • seizures
    • petechial rash
    • “blueberry muffin” rash
    • chorioretinitis
    • periventricular calcifications
A

Cytomegalovirus

736
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • sexual contact
    • needlestick
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • variable presentation depending on CD4+ cell count
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • recurrent infections
    • chronic diarrhea
A

HIV

737
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • skin or mucous membrane contact
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • usually asymptomatic
    • herpetic (vesicular) lesions
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • meningoencephalitis
    • herpetic (vesicular) lesions
A

Herpes Simplex Virus-2

738
Q

ToRCHeS Infections:

  • Mode of Transmission:
    • sexual contact
  • Maternal Symptoms:
    • chancre (1°)
    • disseminated rash (2°)
  • Neonatal Symptoms:
    • stillbirth
    • hydrops fetalis
    • facial abnormalities (eg. notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla)
    • saber shins
    • CN VIII deafness
A

Syphilis

739
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease
  • oval-shaped vesicles on palms and soles
  • vesicles and ulcers in oral mucosa
A

Coxsackievirus type A

740
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Roseola (Exanthem Subitum)
  • symptomatic rose-colored macules appear on body after several days of high fever
  • can present with febrile seizures
  • usually affects infants
A

Human Herpesvirus 6

741
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Rubeola
  • confluent rash beginning at head and moving down
  • preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and blue-white (Koplik) spots on buccal mucosa
A

Measles Virus

742
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)
  • “slapped cheek” rash on face B (can cause hydrops fetalis in pregnant women)
A

Parvovirus B19

743
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • pink macules and papules begin at head and move down, remain discrete → fine desquamating truncal rash
  • postauricular lymphadenopathy
A

Rubella Virus

744
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Scarlet Fever
  • flushed cheeks and circumoral pallor on the face
  • erythematous, sandpaper-like rash from neck to trunk and extremities
  • fever and sore throat
A

Streptococcus pyogenes

745
Q

Red Rashes of Childhood:

  • Chickenpox
  • vesicular rash begins on trunk
  • spreads to face and extremities with lesions of different stages
A

Varicella-Zoster Virus

746
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • opportunistic infections
  • Kaposi sarcoma
  • lymphoma
  • HIV
A

AIDS

747
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • painful genital ulcer with exudate
  • inguinal adenopathy
  • Haemophilus ducreyi
A

Chancroid

It’s so painful, you “do cry”.

748
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • urethritis
  • cervicitis
  • epididymitis
  • conjunctivitis
  • reactive arthritis
  • PID
A

Chlamydia trachomatis (D–K)

749
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • Condylomata Acuminata
  • genital warts
  • koilocytes
A

HPV-6 and -11

750
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • Genital Herpes
  • painful penile, vulvar, or cervical vesicles and ulcers
  • can cause systemic symptoms such as fever, headache, and myalgia
A

HSV-2, less commonly HSV-1

751
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • urethritis
  • cervicitis
  • PID,
  • prostatitis
  • epididymitis
  • arthritis
  • creamy purulent discharge
A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

752
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • painless, beefy red ulcer that bleeds readily on contact
  • uncommon in US
  • Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis
  • cytoplasmic Donovan bodies (bipolar staining) seen on microscopy
A

Granuloma Inguinale

(Donovanosis)

753
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • jaundice
  • HBV
A

Hepatitis B

754
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • infection of lymphatics
  • painless genital ulcers
  • painful lymphadenopathy (ie. buboes)
  • Chlamydia trachomatis (L1–L3)
A

Lymphogranuloma Vvenereum

755
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • painless chancre
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Primary Syphilis

756
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • fever
  • lymphadenopathy
  • skin rashes
  • condylomata lata
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Secondary Syphilis

757
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • gummas
  • tabes dorsalis
  • general paresis
  • aortitis
  • Argyll Robertson pupil
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Tertiary Syphilis

758
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infections:

  • vaginitis
  • strawberry cervix
  • motile in wet prep
A

Trichomonas vaginalis

759
Q

_____ presents with cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, purulent cervical discharge.

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

760
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease may include _____.

A
  • salpingitis
  • endometritis
  • hydrosalpinx
  • tubo-ovarian abscess
761
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease:

Pathogens

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
    • subacute
    • often undiagnosed
    • most common bacterial STI in the US
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    • acute
762
Q

_____ is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, infertility, chronic pelvic pain, and adhesions.

A

Salpingitis

763
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease can lead to _____ (perihepatitis)—infection and inflammation of the liver capsule and “violin string” adhesions of peritoneum to liver.

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

764
Q

_____ are the most common causes nosocomial infections.

A
  • E. coli (UTI)
  • S. aureus (wound infection)
765
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • antibiotic use
  • watery diarrhea
  • leukocytosis
A

Clostridium difficile

766
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • aspiration (2° to altered mental status, old age)
  • right lower lobe infiltrate or right upper/middle lobe (patient recumbent)
  • purulent malodorous sputum
A
  • Polymicrobial
  • Gram ⊝ Bacteria
  • Anaerobes
767
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • decubitus ulcers
  • surgical wounds
  • drains
  • erythema, tenderness, induration, and drainage from surgical wound sites
A
  • S. aureus (including MRSA)
  • Gram ⊝ Anaerobes
    • Bacteroides
    • Prevotella
    • Fusobacterium
768
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • intravascular catheters
  • erythema, induration, tenderness, and drainage from access sites
A
  • S. aureus (including MRSA)
  • S. epidermidis (long term)
  • Enterobacter
769
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • mechanical ventilation
  • endotracheal intubation
  • new infiltrate on CXR
  • ↑ sputum production
  • sweet odor
A
  • P. aeruginosa (sweet odor)
  • Klebsiella
  • Acinetobacter
  • S. aureus
770
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • renal dialysis unit
  • needlestick
A
  • HBV
  • HCV
771
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • urinary catheterization
  • dysuria
  • leukocytosis
  • flank pain
  • costovertebral angle tenderness
A

Infections in your PEcKer

  • Proteus spp.
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
772
Q

Nosocomial Infections:

  • water aerosols
  • signs of pneumonia
  • GI symptoms (diarrhea, nausea, vomiting)
  • neurologic abnormalities
A

Legionella

773
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • rash beginning at head and moving down
  • postauricular lymphadenopathy
A

Rubella Virus

774
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • rash beginning at head and moving down
  • rash preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and blue-white (Koplik) spots on buccal mucosa
A

Measles Virus

775
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • meningitis
  • microbe colonizes nasopharynx
A

H. influenzae type b

776
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • meningitis
  • can also lead to myalgia and paralysis
A

Poliovirus

777
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • epiglottitis
  • fever with dysphagia, drooling, and difficulty breathing due to edematous “cherry red” epiglottis
  • “thumbprint sign” on x-ray
  • also capable of causing epiglottitis in fully immunized children
A

H. influenzae type b

778
Q

Bugs Affecting Unvaccinated Children:

  • pharyngitis
  • grayish oropharyngeal exudate
  • “pseudomembranes” may obstruct airway
  • painful throat
  • elaborates toxin that causes necrosis in pharynx, cardiac, and CNS tissue
A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

779
Q

Pathogens:

asplenic patient (due to surgical splenectomy or autosplenectomy, eg. chronic sickle cell disease)

A

Encapsulated Microbes

  • *SHiN**
  • S. pneumoniae* >> H. influenzae type b > N. meningitidis
780
Q

Pathogens:

  • branching rods in oral infection
  • sulfur granules
A

Actinomyces israelii

781
Q

Pathogens:

chronic granulomatous disease

A

Catalase ⊕ Microbes

  • especially S. aureus
782
Q

Pathogens:

“currant jelly” sputum

A

Klebsiella

783
Q

Pathogens:

dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

784
Q

Pathogens:

  • facial nerve palsy (typically bilateral)
  • Lyme disease
A

Borrelia burgdorferi

785
Q

Pathogens:

fungal infection in diabetic or immunocompromised patient

A

Mucor or Rhizopus spp.

786
Q

Pathogens:

health care provider

A
  • HBV
  • HCV (from needlestick)
787
Q

Pathogens:

neutropenic patients

A
  • Candida albicans (systemic)
  • Aspergillus
788
Q

Pathogens:

organ transplant recipient

A

CMV

789
Q

Pathogens:

  • Periodic Acid–Schiff (PAS) ⊕
  • Whipple disease
A

Tropheryma whipplei

790
Q

Pathogens:

  • pediatric infection
  • epiglottitis
A

Haemophilus influenzae

791
Q

Pathogens:

  • pneumonia in cystic fibrosis
  • burn infection
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

792
Q

Pathogens:

  • pus
  • empyema
  • abscess
A

S. aureus

793
Q

Pathogens:

rash on hands and feet

A
  • Coxsackie A Virus
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Rickettsia rickettsii
794
Q

Pathogens:

sepsis/meningitis in newborn

A

Group B Strep

795
Q

Pathogens:

surgical wound

A

S. aureus

796
Q

Pathogens:

traumatic open wound

A

Clostridium perfringens