Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH > Micro/Path > Flashcards

Micro/Path Flashcards

1
Q

Autologous graft

A

your own tissue transferred from one body site to another (same individual) often used in burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Syngeneic graft

A

tissue transferred b/w genetically identical individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

allogeneic graft

A

tissue transferred bw two genetically different people in same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

xenogeneic graft

A

tissue transferred between different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ rejection to a graft occurs within minutes to hours, tissue never becomes vascularized bc there is pre-existing host serum Ab (IgG) specific for Ag in the graft

A

hyperacute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

__- rejection to a graft occurs days to weeks later, occurs when there are memory CD4 and CD8 T cells from previous graft exposure

A

acute rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

__ rejection occurs months or years after acute rejection has subsided. both humoral and cell mediated. antibody mediated necrosis of graft vasculature

A

chronic rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the most feared consequence of graft therapy with an immunodeficiency is a

A

graft versus host reaction (GVHR) = transplanted immune cells from donor attack the host. occurs most commonly after bone marrow transplants and can be fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when a graft is rejected the first time and is tried again from the same donor, it will be rejected more __than the first. this second set rejection occurs bc the individual has been previously sensitized to the graft

A

rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what cells elicit most of the destruction in graft rejections

A

CD4 and CD8 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the most common types of hyperacute rejection of graft are in __ blood mismatches

A

ABO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell is known as

a. necrosis
b. heterolysis
c. autolysis
d. apoptosis

A

b. heterolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Irreversible damage to the nucleus:
karyolysis, pyknosis, karyorrhexis

  1. the nucleus shrinks and becomes intensely basophilic, DNA is packed into a solid shrunken mass.
  2. pyknotic nucleus undergoes fragmentation and completely disappears in 1-2 days
  3. gradual fading of the basophilic nuclear material as a result of DNases.
A
  1. pyknosis
  2. karyorrhexis
  3. karyolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

___ is death of one or more cells/portion of a tissue/organ. it is the result of irreversible EXOGENOUS injury that results in an insufficient blood supply to the tissue whether from injury, radiation or chemicals

A

necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

__- aka programmed cell death plays a role in opposing mitosis in regulating the size of cell populations

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Apoptosis vs. Necrosis

  1. which on causes an acute inflamm reaction elicited by death
  2. which one does the plasma membrane rupture
  3. which one is there no breakdown of mechanisms supplying cellular energy
  4. which one fails to maintain normal cell volume
A
  1. necrosis not apoptosis
  2. necrosis not apoptosis
  3. apoptosis
  4. necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____ are proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. they promote antiviral/antitumor responses and stimulate immune responses.

A

Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. interferons are ___ specific proteins
  2. are they virus specific?
  3. are antibodies virus specific/host specific
A
  1. species (host specific)
  2. no
  3. virus specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

body’s first active defense against a virus

A

interferon = early warning system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. interferons (alpha and beta) have been used to treat various ___ infections like?
  2. interferon ___ has been used to treat a variety of diseases in which macrophage activation may play a role in recovery, ie leprosy, toxoplasmosis.
  3. since interferons have ___effects, they have been used to treat certain tumors like melanoma and Kaposi’s sarcoma
A
  1. viral, chronic hepatitis C and hepatitis B
  2. gamma
  3. anti-proliferative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

interferon, lysozyme, complement are part of ___ immune system and are induced at an early stage in viral infection before the specific immune system has had time to respond

A

non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

are interferons antiviral antbodies

A

no. they interfere with viral replication and signal neighboring uninfected cells that they should prepare for viral infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

interferons are members of a larger class of proteins called

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

small polypeptides released by a cell in order to change the function of the same or another cell are called

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which pathway is used to convert arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, prostacyclin, or thromboxanes

A

cyclooxygenase pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

arachidonic acid is a __ carbon saturated/unsaturated fatty acid?

A

20 carbon UNSATURATED fatty acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what 4 things are derived from arachidonic acid?

A

prostaglandins, prostacyclin, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

arachidonic acid is part of which part of the cell

A

part of the phospholipids in the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when a cell is stimulated by a neurotransmitter or hormone, a plasma membrane enzyme called __ is activated that splits arachidonic acid from the phospholipids

A

phospholipase A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

to form leukotrienes, the ___ pathway utilizes the enzyme ___

A

lipoxygenase pathway, lipoxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

to form prostaglandins, prostacyclin, or thromboxanes, the ___ pathway utilizes the enzyme ___

A

cyclooxygenase, cyclooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes are ___

A

chemical messengers. they act primarily as local messengers that exert their effect in the tissues that synthesize them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Serotonin is present in __ and __ cellls

A

platelets and in some neuroendocrine cells (ex. gi tract)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

serotonin is synthesized from what amino acid ___ in two steps.

  1. the first step is __ rxn
  2. 2nd is a __ rxn
A

tryptophan

  1. hydroxylation (rate limiting)
  2. decarboxylation reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the release of serotonin and histamine from platelets is stimulated when platelets aggregate after contact with

A

collagen, thrombin, ADP, and antigen-antibody complexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

serotonin is a neurotransmitter believed to play a role in __

A

temp regulation, sensory perception, and in the onset of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

chemical name for serotonin is

A

5-hydroxytryptamine (think it is derived from tryptophan) abbreviated 5 H-T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Enterochromaffin cells (EC) are a type of enteroendocrine cell. What do they produce

A

histamine, gastrin, and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

serotonin is produced in the ___ as a precursor to ___

A

pineal gland, melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

serotonin is a powerful ___ vasoconstrictor/vasodilator

A

vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

serotonin is secreted in tremendous quantities by __ tumors

A

carcinoid tumors (tumors composed of chromaffin tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

serotonin acts as __ in the spinal cord

A

inhibitor of pain pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

____ interferes with the action of serotonin in the brain

A

lysergic acid diethylamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

histamine is released in large by __ cells

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

two important VASOACTIVE amines with important actions on blood vessels are __ and __

A

histamine and serotonin = they are stored as preformed molecules in cells and therefore among the first to be released during inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what other cells have histamine in them

A

blood basophils and platelets. but mast cells in CT near BV’s have the most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name ways histamine is released

A

by mast cell degranulation due to :
physical injury, cold, heat, antibody binding to mast cell (allergic reactions), histamine releasing proteins derived from leukocytes, neuropeptides, cytokines (IL-1, IL-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Histamine is responsible for the principal symptoms of ___

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Histamine causes:

  1. __ of arterioles
  2. ___ permeability of venules
  3. broncho____
A
  1. vasodilate
  2. increase permeability
  3. bronchoconstrictor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

histamine is synthesized by the decarboxylation of the amino acid catalyzed by enzyme, _

A

histidine

L-histidine decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

histamine is chemically similar to ___

A

serotonin, epinephrine, and norephinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bradykinin is a vasoactive kinin that mediates vascular permeability, areteriolar____ and ___

A

dilation and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

pain from inflamed tissues is associated with the release of

A

bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

histamine and serotonin have __ actions

A

similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

bradykinin is a potent
1. vaso___
2. it is produced by the action of ___ generated by active Hageman factor (XIIa) on an alpha-2 globulin.
it may be involved in blood pressure regulation

A
  1. vasodilator

2. kallikrein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

complement, interferon, and natural killer cells are

specific/non specific immune system

A

non specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

plasmin is aka ___. what does it do

A

fibrolysin.
plasmin is an enzyme generated by inactive plasminogen. it is a serine protease. breaks down fibrinogen and fibrin into fibrin degradation products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

fibrinogen is a plasma protein that is essential for coagulation of blood and is converted to fibrin by __ and __

A

thrombin and calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

lysozymes cleaves what part of cell wall

A

the glycosidic bonds between the N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid (the glycan portion of the cell), between the amino sugars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

two parts of peptidoglycan wall

A

protein portion: short cross linked peptide chains containing amino acids
glycan portions: forms the backbone of the molecule: repeating units of amino sugars NAM and NAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Lysozyme is a component of the __immune system b/c its action on peptidoglycans is immediate and not pathogen specific.
A

innate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

lysozyme functions as a non-specific innate ___ by binding to the bacterial cell surface and enhancing phagocytosis

A

opsonin,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

PROTOPLASTS are cells that have had their cell walls and capsules removed by ___

A

enzymatic (lysozyme) or antibiotic penicillin treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

where in the cell are carbs synthesized

A

golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

where is the digestive system of the cell:

lysosome or peroxisome

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

peroxisomes contain enzymes that

A

detoxify harmful substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

mitochondria is a ___ membrane

A

double/

power plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

do ribosomes have membranes

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

in prokaryotes, the __ plays an essential role in the formation of ribosomes

A

nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cotton wool bone

A

paget’s disease (osteitis deformans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

melanosis in the mouth

A

Addison’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

the spherical body produced under appropriate conditions from certain bacilli by the action of lysozyme or penicillin

A

protoplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

tetanus and diphtheria are similar in nature with respect to production of

A

exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

An a___ is a sheet of microtubules found in certain microbial eukaryotes. It arises from the bases of the flagella, sometimes projecting beyond the end of the cell, and is often flexible or contractile, and so may be involved in movement and provides support for the cell

A

axostyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. An ___ is an organism that can NOT synthesize a particular organic compound required for its growth..
A
  1. auxotroph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Auxotrophy is the opposite of ____, which is characterized by the ability to synthesize all the compounds needed for growth.

A

prototroph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A mucoprotein is a glycoprotein composed primarily of mucopolysaccharides. It can be found in the ___of the ___

A

in the synovial fluid of the knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Magnesium ribonucleate is a protein in the cell membrane of gram +/- bacteria

A

positive only! It helps gram positive bacteria retain the primary dye.

gram negative do not have this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

which part of the bacteria gets stained? the cell wall or cytoplasm

A

cytoplasm. the wall does not get stained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

name the bacteria that cannot be stained with gram stain

A

chlamydia
treponema
rickettsia
mycobacteria (impermeable to the stain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

in __ the final electron acceptor is an organic compound

A

fermentation

BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

glossodynia

A

burning mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

the most common agent of septic arthritis in adults

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the initial bacteria observed in dental plaque is

A

streptococci

BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

dextrans are extracellular polysaccharides produced by

A

streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in a normal healthy mouth the microflora tends to be

aerobic, anaerobic, faculatative, acidogenic, proteolytic

A

ANAEROBIC
ACIDOGENIC
FACULTATIVE

(note it is NOT aerobic)
BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

which of the following microorganisms is the most important causative agent of dental caries:
aciduric/acidogenic/basophilic/proteolytic/gram negative rods

A

acidogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

which species is found consistently in saliva and oral soft tissues

A

strep salivarius

BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality is

A

penicillin

BOARds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

a benign glandular neoplasm is called

A

adenoma

BOARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. Nevus is the medical term for sharply circumscribed and chronic lesions of the ___ or __.
  2. These lesions are commonly named __
A
  1. skin or mucosa

2. birthmarks or beauty marks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. Papilloma refers to a benign ___growing exophytically (outwardly projecting) in nipple-like and often finger-like fronds.
  2. When used without context, it frequently refers to infections (squamous cell papilloma) caused by __
A
  1. epithelial tumor

2. human papillomavirus (HPV), such as warts

93
Q

what antibody receptors found on B cells

A

IgG and IgM

94
Q

Are T cells involved in phagocytosis or antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity?

A

no

95
Q

Do T cells have IgG receptors

A

no. They have CD3-associated T cell receptors (TCR) which recognize a unique antigen in conjunction with MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins

96
Q
  1. B and T cells are derived from the ___
  2. T cells mature in the __ and become thymocytes
  3. B cells mature in the _ and migrate to __
A
  1. bone marrow
  2. thymus gland (T = thymus)
  3. B cells mature in bone marrow,
    migrate to lymph organs
97
Q

B cells have a short life span (days to weeks). They differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells. How are they activated

A

when an immature b cell is exposed to a specific antigen (they recognize antigen by membrane bound immunoglobulin) the cell is activated. It then goes to the spleen or lymph nodes, differentiates, and produces memory B cells and plasma cells

98
Q

T cells have a long life span (months to years). Important in cell-mediated immunity, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions (contact dermatitis) and in the modulation of antibody-mediated immunity. name the different classes of t cells

A

helper t cells (type 1 and 2 = TH1, TH2)
cytotoxic t cells (CD8+ lymphocytes)
memory t cells
suppressor t cells

99
Q

CD8+ lymphocytes release ___ and induce apoptosis

A

Perforin = is a cytolytic protein found in the granules of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) and NK cells. Upon degranulation, perforin inserts itself into the target cell’s plasma membrane, forming a pore.

100
Q

which interleukin potentiates growth of NK cells

A

IL-2

101
Q

a surgical wound closed by a sterile suture would heal by:

1st intention/2nd intention/3rd intention/keloid formation

A

1st intention = aka primary adhesion/union: healing that occurs in wounds that have been closed with sterile suture. clean wounds, aseptic -no infection

102
Q

healing by ___ intention = no surgical closure. the wound is allowed to GRANULATE IN, wound closes by contraction and filling with CT

A

healing by 2nd intention/secondary adhesion/secondary union

103
Q

healing by __ intention - slow filling of a wound cavity or ulcer by granulations with cicatrization (scar formation)

A

third intention

104
Q

diff bw 1st and 2nd intention wound healing:
__ are more open and more prone to infection and much more granulation tissue needed to close the wound. also it takes longer to heal bc larger wound to fill

A

secondary

105
Q

the tensile strength (the maximum stress that a material can withstand while being stretched or pulled before failing or breaking) of healing wound depends upon the formation of

A

collagen fibers

106
Q

___ have the greatest effect on granulation tissue

A

glucocorticoids

107
Q

whether a wound heals by primary/secondary intention is determined by the nature of the wound/healing process itself

A

nature of wound

108
Q

what is the mnemonic for maternal infections that are teratogenic

A 
TORCH:
toxoplasmosis
other agents
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes simplex
109
Q

what physical agents are teratogenic

A

radiation, hypoxia, excessive CO2, mechanical trauma

110
Q

what vitamin deficiencies are teratogenic

A

vit. E, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid. (FERN)

Remember:
B TRN: B1 = thiamine
B2: riboflavin
B3: niacin

111
Q

3 teratogenic antibiotics

A

mitomycin, dactinomycin, puromycin

= chemo agents

112
Q

what 2 conditions must be met for tertogenesis to occur

A

teratogen must contact the fetus
time it contacts must be during phase where the organ systems are in process of being formed.
critical phase = first 3 month (1st trimester)

113
Q

severe bacterial infections can lead to

A

sepsis = Sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of an infection. Sepsis occurs when chemicals released into the bloodstream to fight the infection trigger inflammation throughout the body. This inflammation can trigger a cascade of changes that can damage multiple organ systems, causing them to fail

114
Q

in sepsis what 2 cytokines are notably made

A

TNF and IL-1

115
Q

main culprits of sepsis (3)

A

staph aurues
klebsiella
Escherichia coli

116
Q

Bacteremia = bacteria in blood cannot occur in healthy individuals t/f

A

false. they can occur in healthy individuals. = after oral prophylaxis and extractions, bleeding gums = transient systemic bacteremia.

117
Q

are clinical signs and symptoms present in bacteremia

A

usually not

118
Q

what organ has a remarkable capacity to regenerate

A

liver

119
Q

in liver regeneration do the liver lobes regrow after resected in operation?

A

no! we get liver mass back by ENLARGEMENT OF THE LOBES THAT REMAIN AFTER SURGERY

120
Q

enlargement of liver lobes is called

A

compensatory growth or compensatory hyperplasia = hepatocytes replicate during liver regeneration after partial hepatectomy

121
Q

can striated muscle (skeletal, voluntary, cardiac)/smooth muscle/neurons of CNS regenerate

A

no

122
Q

___ tissue has a lesser capability for regeneration.

A

highly specialized tissue: ex. surface epithelium has a marked capacity for regeneration while neurons in CNS have NO POWER of regeneration

123
Q

name the 3 organs that are VERY VULNERABLE to hypoxia and anoxia

A

heart, brain, lungs.

124
Q

which organ undergoes hypertrophy in response to injury: heart, brain, lungs.

A

heart

125
Q

name places in body that are able to regenerate

A

cartilage, intestinal mucosa, liver cells, skin cells

126
Q

Reticular connective tissue is a type of connective tissue. It has a network of reticular fibers, made of __-

A

type III collagen

127
Q

the reticuloendothelial system aka mononuclear phagocyte system consists of bone marrow origin cells of monocytes and macrophages. they constitute all phagocytic cells of the body EXCEPT

A

granulocytes (WBC’s w/granules aka polymorphonuclear leukocytes ) = neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells

128
Q
  1. mononuclear are granulocytes/agranulocytes.

2. polymorphonuclear leukocytes are?

A
  1. agranulocytes

2. granulocytes

129
Q

histiocytes

A

(FIXED) macrophages in CT

130
Q

alveolar macrophages

A

aka dust cells = macrophages fixed in alveolar lining of the lungs aka reticulum cells

131
Q

kupffer cells

A

line blood vessels of the liver

132
Q

microglia

A

macrophage of cns

133
Q

Gaucher’s disease (most common)
Niemann Pick disease
Tay Sachs disease
Fabry’s disease
1. these are all ___ disroders of the reticuloendothelial system classified as ___ diseases
2. most common in __ ancestory
3. caused by incomplete lysosomal breakdown of _
4. they are all autosomal __ diseases except __ which is X linked

A
  1. inherited, lipid storage
  2. Ashkenazi Jewish
  3. sphingolipids
  4. autosomal recessive, Fabry’s = x linked
134
Q

this disease is caused by deficiency in alpha-glactosidase

A

Fabry’s disease

135
Q

this disease is caused by deficiency in hexosaminidase A

A

Tay-Sachs disease = rapidly fatal

136
Q

this disease is caused by deficiency in sphingomyelinase

A

Niemann-Pick disease

die within a few years

137
Q

this disease is caused by deficiency in beta glucocerebrosidase

A

Gaucher’s disease

138
Q
  1. Tay–Sachs disease (also known as GM2 gangliosidosis or hexosaminidase A deficiency ) is a rare autosomal ____ genetic disorder. In its most common variant (known as infantile Tay–Sachs disease), it causes a progressive deterioration of nerve cells and of mental and physical abilities that commences around six months of age and usually results in death by the age of four. The disease occurs when harmful quantities of cell membrane components known as gangliosides accumulate in the brain’s nerve cells, eventually leading to the premature death of the cells. A ganglioside is a form of sphingolipid, which makes Tay–Sachs disease a member of the sphingolipidoses. There is no known cure or treatment.
A
  1. recessive

2.

139
Q
  1. ___disease is a genetic disease in which a fatty substance (lipid) accumulates in cells and certain organs. The disorder is characterized by bruising, fatigue, anemia, low blood platelets, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. It is caused by a hereditary deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. This enzyme acts on the glycolipid glucocerebroside. When the enzyme is defective, glucosylceramide accumulates, particularly in white blood cells, most often macrophages (mononuclear leukocytes). Glucosylceramide can collect in the spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs, brain and bone marrow.
A
  1. Gaucher’s disease or Gaucher
140
Q

____ disease refers to a group of inherited severe metabolic disorders that allow sphingomyelin to accumulate in lysosomes, which are organelles in animal cells. The severe form is fatal in toddlerhood; people with milder forms may live into their teens or young adulthood. This disease involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids, which are fats found in cell membranes, so it is a kind of sphingolipidosis. Sphingolipidoses, in turn, are included in the larger family of lysosomal storage diseases

A

Niemann–Pick

141
Q

Fabry disease Fabry’s disease, Anderson-Fabry disease, angiokeratoma corporis diffusum and alpha-galactosidase. A deficiency) is a rare genetic lysosomal storage disease, inherited in an ____manner.

A

X-linked

142
Q

healing by 1st intention steps

A
  1. within 24 hours clotted blood covers the incision and NEUTROPHILS accumulate
  2. 24-48 hours EPITHELIAL BRIDGES cross the wound
  3. 3 days: MACROPHAGES are dominant inflammatory cell
  4. 5 days: epithelium reaches full thickness and CT bridges the wound
  5. 2 weeks: inflammation subsides, blanching begins as increased collagenizaiton of wound progresses and vascularity lessens
  6. 1month: inflammatory cells entirely absent
143
Q

healing by 2intention

A
  1. immediately hemostasis occurs and blood clot covers the surface allowing formation of scab
  2. immediately- acute inflammatory response begins, including neut migration during first 24-48 hours. macrophages become dominant after. major phagocytes debride the wound. this acute response lasts until wound is completely debrided
  3. days to 6 weeks, wound contraction occurs as myofibroblasts contract. wound contracts 5-10% of its size
  4. days to weeks epithelim bridges surface
  5. weeks to month- scar tissue continues to develop, collagenizaiton and remodeling and blanching
144
Q
  1. Dermatophytosis is a clinical condition caused by ___ infection of the skin in humans, pets such as cats, and domesticated animals such as sheep and cattle.
  2. The term “ringworm”, commonly used to refer to such infections, is a misnomer, since the condition is caused by __ of several different species and not by parasitic worms.
  3. The fungi that cause parasitic infection (dermatophytes) feed on __, the material found in the outer layer of skin, hair, and nails.
A
  1. fungal
  2. fungal
  3. keratin
145
Q

Microporum
trichophyton
epidermophyton are __genera that cause ___

A

fungal, dermatophytosis

146
Q

in dermatophytes: the pathogenic members of the keratinophilic soil fungi, infection occurs by contact with arthrospores which are___ or conidia which are

A
  1. arthrospores = sexual/asexual spores formed in hyphae of the parasitic stage
  2. conidia - sexual/asexual spores formed in free living stage
147
Q

in humans dermatophytoses are referred to as __ infections

A

tinea

can spread to different locations: tinea corporis in children is result of tinea capitis that has spread to face

148
Q

Tinea corporis is a ___ infection due to ___. It is also called ___ of the body

A

skin, fungi, ringworm

149
Q

Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the ___. most often seen in

A

scalp,

children

150
Q

tinea barbae

A

fungal infection hairs and skin in beard and mustache

151
Q

tinea faciei

A

non bearded parts of face

152
Q

tinea cruri

A

infection of groin = jock itch

153
Q

tinea pedis

A

athelete’s foot - infection of foot

154
Q

tinea manuum

A

dermatophyte infection of one or both hands

155
Q

tinea unguium

A

dermatophyte infection of the nail

156
Q

what is Griseofulvin

A

the most effective anti myotic-fungal agent used to treat skin infections such as jock itch, athlete’s foot, and ringworm; and fungal infections of the scalp, fingernails, and toenails

157
Q

fungi are eukaryotic and have a complex ___

A

cell wall

158
Q
  1. can fungi be gram stained? if so are they gram + or -.

2. they grow in __ medium

A

gram +

Sabouraud’s

159
Q

fungi contain DNA or RNA?

A

BOTH DNA AND RNA.

160
Q

Two types of fungi:

  1. __ grow as single cells that reproduce by asexually budding.
  2. __ are long filaments (hyphae) which from a mat-like structure referred to as mycelium
A
  1. yeast
  2. mold

Mycelium is the vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a mass of branching, thread-like hyphae

161
Q
  1. some fungi are __ which means they form different structures at different temperatures
  2. they exist as __ in the saprophytic, free living state at ambient temp
  3. exist as __ In host tissue at body temperature
A
  1. dimorphic
  2. mold
  3. yeast
162
Q

Saprotroph?

A

a term used for organisms which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter

163
Q

name the dimorphic fungi

A

blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidioides, sporothrix schenckii

Mnemonic: Body Heat Changes Shape

164
Q

most fungi reproduce ASEXUALLY by forming asexual spores called ____ form the sides of structures called ___

A

conidia, conidiophores

165
Q

zygospores, ascospores and basidiospores are sexual or asexual spores (conidia)

A

sexual
(some fungi reproduce by sexually mating and forming sexual spores)

ZAB

166
Q

arthrospores, chlamydospores, blastospores, and sporangiospores are sexual or asexual fungal spores

A

asexual = (conidia)

CArBS

167
Q

all fungi except zygomycetes are

A

septated

168
Q

the cells of most fungi contain __ and _

A

chitin and b-1-3 linked glucan

169
Q

Sterols (ergosterol) are found in the membrane of

A

fungi

170
Q

most antifungals target the sterol (ergosterol) in cell membranes of fungus or the chitin/b-1:3 linked glucan of their cell wall

A

sterol

171
Q

Sterols, are a subgroup of the steroids and an important class of organic molecules. They occur naturally in plants, animals, and fungi, with the most familiar type of animal sterol being cholesterol. Cholesterol is vital to animal cell membrane structure and function and a precursor to fat-soluble vitamins and steroid hormones. Sterols of plants are called phytosterols and sterols of animals are called zoosterols. The most important zoosterol is cholesterol. ___ is a sterol present in the cell membrane of fungi, where it serves a role similar to cholesterol in animal cells.

A

Ergosterol

172
Q

Fungal infections initiate a type _ hypersensitivity reaction

A

4 delayed

173
Q

T/F the formation of granulomas in response to fungal infection is common

A

true:

Body Heat Changes Shape (dimorphic fungi) blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidiodes, sporothrix

174
Q

telemorph

A

fungi form that forms sexual spores

175
Q

unlike bacterial spores, most fungal spores are COMPLETELY KILLED when heated at __ degrees C for __ minutes

A

80C for 30 minutes

176
Q

how do you convert degrees Fahrenheit (°F) or Celsius (°C aka centigrade)

A

°C x 9/5 + 32 = °F

177
Q

the form of fungus producing sexual spores is teleomorph or anamorph

A

teleomeorph

178
Q

anamorph

A

the form of fungus producing asexual spores

179
Q

Fungi that produce BOTH SEXUAL AND ASEXUAL spores end in?

A

mycetes

ex zygomycetes
archiasomycetes etc

180
Q
  1. Asexual spore fungi?

2. sexual spore fungi?

A
  1. CArBS and all end in spores: chlamydospores, arthrospores, blastospores, sporangiospores
  2. ZAB and all end in “spore”
    zygoSPORe ASCOspore BASIDIOspore
181
Q

sporangiospores and conidia are asexual/sexual spores

A

asexual

182
Q

conidia/sporangiospores are asexual spores produced in a structure call SPORANGIA and are characteristic of Zygomycetes class such as Rhizopus and Mucor

A

sporangiospores

183
Q

conidia/sporangiospores are asexual spores borne naked as seen in Aspergillus, Penicillum and dermatophyts

A

conidia

184
Q

(of a disease or condition) regularly found among particular people or in a certain area. found in a certain place and is ongoing
is called an endemic/epidemic

A

endemic

185
Q

A disease that is endemic is found in a certain geographic region or in a specific race of people. Malaria is endemic to parts of Africa because it’s hot and skeeters love it. Tay-Sachs is a genetic disease endemic to ___

A

Jews and French Canadians

186
Q
  1. An ___ disease is restricted to a place, as with malaria, or a people, as with Tay-Sachs. 2. An ___ disease may happen in a specific place, but it can spread beyond that place, as with asthma or AIDS
A
  1. endemic
  2. epidemic
    Epidemic describes a disease that is widespread, affecting an “atypically large number of individuals within a population, community, or region at the same time
187
Q
  1. pandemic is an epidemic of infectious disease that has spread through human populations across a large region; for instance multiple continents, or even worldwide. NAME 2 PANDEMICS
A

Throughout history there have been a number of pandemics, such as smallpox and tuberculosis. More recent pandemics include the HIV pandemic as well as the 1918 and 2009 H1N1 pandemics. CURREN PANDEMIC: AIDS/HIV

188
Q
  1. Endemic mycoses are fungal infections caused by classic dimorphic fungal pathogens: histoplamsa, blastomyces, coccidiodies, paracoccodiodes. All of these dimorphic pathogens produce a primary infection in the — with subsequent dissemination to other organs and tissues
A

lung.

189
Q

Coccidiodomycosis - infectious disease caused by inhaling spores of a fungus called

A

coccidiodies immitis AKA VALLEY FEVER OR SAN JOAQUIN FEVER starts off as respiratory illness - progresses to a persistent infection

190
Q

amphotericin fluconazole ketoconazole and itraconazole are

A

antifungals

note the azoles and amphotericin

191
Q

Blastomyces dermatitidis causes

A

blastomycosis aka Gilchrist’s disease of north American blastomycosis

192
Q

Histoplasmosis caused by histoplasma capsulatum is found throughout the world and is an endemic in __

A

ohio and mississippi

193
Q

which dimorphic fungal pathogen infection is usually asymptomatic, can cause granulomatous, tuberculosis like infection

A

histoplasmosis

194
Q

in infected tissues, yeast cells of histoplasma capsulatum are found within what cells

A

macrophages

195
Q

Histoplasmosis resembles __ both clinically and pahtologically

A

TB

196
Q

histoplasma capsulatum produce what kind of spores?

A

chlamydospores (asexual)

197
Q

Histoplasmosis and blastomycosis are ___rarely/often acquired from another individual

A

rarely

198
Q

in humans, Malaria is caused by one of four protozoan species of the genus:

trichomonas
plasmodium
cryptosporidium
toxoplasma

A

plasmodium.

malaria is infectious disease caused by parasite plasmodium which infects red blood cells
The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a mosquito vector and a vertebrate host.

199
Q

the most serious type of malaria:

Plasmodium falciparium
P. vivax
P. maleriae
P. ovale

A

Plasmodium Falciparium

200
Q

Amebiasis is illness of the __ caused by a __

A
  1. intestines, parasite
201
Q

Entamoeba histolytica causes

A

amebiasis

202
Q

dysentery

A

bloody mucus containing diarrhea

203
Q

AMEBIC DYSENTERY (Amebiasis): parasite is ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA
1. Intestinal illness
Most common mode of spreading: ___.
Presents as dysentery (bloody, mucus containing diarrhea) also produces abscess of ___.
Treated with metronidazole
Parasite exists in 2 forms in its life cycle: active parasite (trophozoite) and dormant parasite (cyst)

A
  1. contaminated water

2. liver

204
Q
  1. Trichomoniaisis is a __ disease of ___ in women and __ in men
  2. is it common?
  3. treatment?
  4. what is the parasite
A
  1. sexually, vagina = women, urethra in men
    common cause of vaginitis
  2. one of most common infections worldwide
  3. metronidazole
  4. trichomoniasis vaginalis
205
Q

Are Entamoeba histolytica and Trichomonias found in the oral cavity?

A

YES. THEY ARE NON PATHOGENIC THERE!

206
Q

The largest protozoan parasite of humans that infects the colon causing diarrhea with colic, nausea, and vomiting, bloody stools

A

Balantidium coli

207
Q

GIARDIASIS

A

Giardia lamblia
One of most common causes of waterborne disease found in both drinking and recreational water in humans in the USA. More common in male homosexuals and in pp who have traveled to developing countries. Treat with metronidazole

208
Q

TREAT all protozoan infections (parasite) with

A

metronidazole

209
Q

Parasites:

  1. one of most common infection worldwide
  2. most common waterborne disease in USA
  3. 2 found in oral cavity where they are non pathogenic
  4. liver abscess and dysentery causing
  5. largest parasite in humans
A
  1. trichomoniasis (sexually transmitted)
  2. giardiasis lamblia
  3. trichomoniasis and entamoeba histolytica
  4. entamoeba histolytica
  5. Balantidium coli
210
Q

which disease is acquired by ingesting undercooked meat containing tissue cysts or food contaminated by cat feces

A

toxoplasmosis (parasite)

211
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum (parasite) causes

A

watery diarrhea.

212
Q

Pneumocystis carinii causes

A

pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS patients (immunocompromised) LUng disease that is often fatal.

213
Q

what parasitic disease do we treat with chloroquine mefloquine and primaquine

A

malaria (quiNe = MALARIA)

214
Q

candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, and cryptosporidium enterocolitis are all opportunistic infections associated with __

A

immunocompromised patients (AIDS patients)

215
Q

most protozoa are ___ (oxygen uses) and replicate by

A

facultatively anaerobic, simple binary fission (merogony) Protozoal merogony is an asexual replication process used by some protozoan parasites that increases the number of infective cells by multiple cell divisions

216
Q

Helminths are a group of ___. They are __-like organisms living in and feeding on living hosts

A

eukaryotic parasites

worm

217
Q
  1. Largest intestinal parasite in humans are?

2. largest protozoan parasite in humans

A
  1. Helminths

2. Balantidium coli

218
Q

helminthes reproduce __ sexually/asexually

A

sexually = lay millions of eggs/larvae

219
Q

Helminthes are very common in what country

A

developing countries

220
Q

nematodes are

A

roundworms

221
Q

trematodes

A

flukes (flat leaf shaped worms)

222
Q

hookworms are

A

roundworms

223
Q

zoonotic nematodes which accidentaly infect man are not able to complete life cycle and become trapped in tissues causing

A

local inflammatory response

224
Q

strongyloides stercoralis are

A

human intestinal worms.

225
Q
  1. Nematodes are __
  2. Trematodes are __
  3. Cestodes are
A
  1. roundworms
  2. flukes (leaf shaped)
  3. tapeworms (ribbon shaped)
226
Q

An infestation is the presence of __ ON the body OR in the organs

A

parasites: ticks, mice, lice

nematodes, worms

227
Q

Taenia are?

A

tapeworms Cestodes

228
Q

infections caused by nematodes cause marked __ in the blood

A

eosinophils.

229
Q

eosinophils attach to the surface of the parasites via

A

IgE and cytotoxic enzymes contained within their eosinophilic granules

NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions