Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH > Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus

  1. gram __
  2. Coagulase + or -?
  3. TSST-1 causes?
  4. Protein ___
  5. what superantigens does it release?
  6. superantigens bind?
A
  1. gram positive
  2. coagulase positive
  3. TSST-1 causes Toxic Shock Syndrome
  4. A
  5. enterotoxins, exfoliative toxin A, TSST-1.
  6. bind class II major histocompatibility complex molecule on macrophages. the macrophages then interact with T cell receptors and both the macrophage and the Tcells release cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. what is the only kind of staphylococcus that is coagulase +
  2. What is coagulase?
A
  1. staphylococcus aureus. ALL OTHERS ARE COAGULASE NEGATIVE

2. Coagulase is a protein enzyme produced by a microorganism that enables the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between?
A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. S.aureus produces two forms of coagulase?

2. explain

A
  1. bound coagulase and free coagulase.
  2. coagulase is BOUND to s.a cell wall and DIRECTLY converts fibrinogen to INSOLUBLE FIBRIN. this causes the SA to clump together (coagulate)

Free Coagulase: same result, but it reacts with globulin plasma factor (COAGULASE-REACTING FACTOR) to form STAPHYLOTHROMBIN which is a thrombin like factor. this factor catalyzes the conversion of Fibrinogen to fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus contains ___ acid in its cell wall

A

ribotol phosphate teichoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can staph aureus invade intact skin or intact mucous membranes?

A

NO. Infection usually begins with traumatic inoculation of the organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are S. Aureus pyogenin or non pyogenic

A

pyogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S. Aureus cause skin lesions such as boils, carbuncles, impetigo, scaled skin syndrome and what other?

A

food poisoning, acute infective endocarditis, toxic shock syndrome (TSS), sepsis, abscess, osteomyelitis, pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name 4 enzymes S. Aureus releases that hydrolyze the host tissue in order to spread bacteria.

A

hyaluronidase = hydrolyzes hyaluronic acids,
fibrinolysin aka staphylokinas - dissolve fibrin clots
lipases = hydrolyze lipids
nucelease = hydrolyze DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Staph Aureus Protein A action

A

inhibits complement fixation by binding to the Fc portion of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Staph Aureus

coagulase action

A

clot blod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staph Aureus

nuclease action

A

hydrolyze dna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Staph Aureus

lipase action

A

hydrolyze lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

staphylokinase (fibrinolysin) action (Staph Aureus)

A

dissolve blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

Staph Aureus

A

breask down hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
beta lactamase (penicillinase) 
(Staph Aureus)
A

inactivates penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(Staph Aureus)

8 enterotoxins cause?

A

food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(Staph Aureus)

5 cytolytic toxins

A

toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(Staph Aureus)

2 exfoliative toxins (A and B)

A

causes scaled skin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(Staph Aureus)

TSST-1 causes

A

toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what organism causes botulism and muscle and nerve paralysis

A

clostridium botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what organism causes gas gangrene

A

clostridium perfringens: destroys cell membrane, breaks down fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

clostrium perfringens is a potent endo/exotoxin

A

EXOTOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which organism causes diphtheria

A 
corynebacterium diptheriae (diphtheria toxin). 
inhibits protein synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does streptococcus pyogenes Exotoxin A cause

A

streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

two organisms that cause toxic shock syndrome?

A

streptococcal pyogenes

staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which organism causes scarlet fever

A

streptococcal pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

therefore streptococcal pyogenes

causes what 2 diseases

A

scarlet fever

streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

predominant bacteria on skin (2)

A

staphylococcus and corynebacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

predominant bacteria in conjunctiva (eye lids and sclera)

A

gram positive cocci and gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

predominant bacteria in teeth

A

streptococci and lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

predominant bacteria in mucous membranes

A

streptococci and lactic acid bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

predominant bacteria in nares (nasal membranes)

A

staph and corynebacteria (same as on skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

predominant bacteria in Pharynx (throat)

A

Strep, Neisseria, gram negative rods and cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

predominant bacteria in in lower respiratory tract

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

predominant bacteria in stomach

A

helicobacter pylori (50% of bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

predominant bacteria in small intestine

A

lactics, enterics, enterococci, bifidobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

predominant bacteria in colon

A

Bacteriodes, lactics, enterics, enterococci, clostridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

predominant bacteria in urogenital tract: anterior urethra

A

sparse: staph, corynebacteria, enterics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

predominant bacteria in urogenital tract: vagina

A

lactic acid bacteria during child bearing years, otherwise mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Streptococcus =

  1. gram _
  2. most are aerobes/anaerobes/facultative anaerobes
  3. coagulase +/-
  4. clusters/pairs/chains?
A
  1. positive
  2. facultative anaerobes
  3. negative
  4. pairs and chains = streptococcus
    (grape clusters = staph)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are coagulase negative exception is?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lancefield grouping (A-W) are based on the antigenic characteristic of a cell wall ____ called the ___

A

carbohydrate = C substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

the major pathogenic lancefield grouping for humans are

A

A-D and G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lancefield grouping is a method of grouping ___bacteria based on the carbohydrate composition of bacterial antigens found on their cell walls

A

beta hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lancefield grouping: Group A strains are pathogenic for humans. More than 90% of strep diseases in humans is caused by ______

A

Group A beta hemolytic strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Group A strains are further subdivided by Arabic numerals into specific antigenic types based on the cell wall ___ protein

A

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The M protein is associated with the __ of the bacteria

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lipoteichoic acid and F protein are important components in the wall of which bacteria

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A (SpeA) is a __ produced by strep pyogenes and is associated with ___ characterized by rash, hypotension, multiorgan failure and HIGH MORTALITY RATE.

A

superantigen, severe infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Oral Streptococci are usually ___ hemolytic

A

alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

name the oral streptococci

A

S. viridans, S. mutans, S. sanguis, S. salivarius - all alpha hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. ___ are the most common organisms causing SUBACUTE ENDOCARDITIS
  2. __ causes acute endocarditis
A
  1. oral streptococci: S. viridans, S. mutans, S. sanguis, S. salivarius - all alpha hemolytic
  2. staph aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when bacteria are placed in a fresh nutrient rich medium they exhibit what 4 characteristic phases of growth that is shown on a bacterial growth curve?

A 
A = LAG phase
B = Log (logarithmic or exponential phase)
C = Max stationary phase
D = decline (death) death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram + or gram - bacteria

A

Gram (-) bacteria only. Think eNdotoxin = Negative

endotoxin is associated with lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. toxicity of endotoxins LPS lipopolysaccharide (gram -) are associated with the ___ component.
  2. the immunogenicity of endotoxins are associated with
A
  1. lipid component

2. polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the cell wall __ antigens of gram negative bacteria are components of LPS.

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

LPS activates __

A

complement pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Exotoxin is in gram + or negative

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Exotoxin vs Endotoxin

  1. This is found in both gram + and -
  2. This is found only in gram -
  3. This is made of LPS
  4. Exotoxin is made of
  5. One of them cannot be denatured by boiling while the other usually can.
  6. Which one is more potent?
  7. which is more specific
  8. which one is released by an organism
  9. which has no enzymatic activity
  10. which one is pyrogenetic
A
  1. Exotoxin
  2. eNdotoxin
  3. Endotoxin, LPS/gram -
  4. proteins
  5. Exotoxin can be denatured. ENDOTOXIN cannot
  6. Endotoxin more potent = very high
    vs exotoxin = relatively high
  7. exotoxin has high degree of specificity, endotoxin has low degree of exotoxin
  8. exotoxins are released ENDOTOXINS are part of the cell membrane and not released
  9. endotoxin does
  10. endotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. endotoxins (LPS) are/are NOT SECRETED by bacterial cells
A

not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For the endotoxin to be released into the bloodstream what must occur

A

the bacterial cell MUST DIE and the outer membrane be broken down. host response to the endotoxin = chills, fever, weakness, aches, sever cases: shock or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Endotoxins are highly potent __- released from the cell walls of gram negative bacteria

A

lipopolysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

__ endotoxin is present in dental plaque and inflamed gingiva.

A

free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the most likely SOURCE of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissues is ___

A

subgingival plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

___ is the protease that degrades collagen

A

collagenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

in patients with periodontal disease, the collagen which forms the periodontium is broken down by

A

collagenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

which bacteria have collagenase

BOARDS

A

porphyromonas, clostridium, bacteriodes, actinobacillusactinomycetemcomitans (Aa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

endotoxin is composed of lipid __ = portion responsible for __activity.
and a core ___, and an __ side chain

A

lipid A = toxic
polysachharide
O antigenic side chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. endotoxin can activate the complement system via the __ pathway
  2. __ can be activated by the endotoxin in the absence of preceding activation of C1, 4, and 2.
  3. As a result, various complement components ___ are consumed and then their activity disappears or is reduced from serum
A
  1. alternative.
  2. C3
  3. C3, 5-9
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

nosocomial infection is?

A

hospital acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what bacteria is a major cause for nosocomial infections

A

staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

S. aureus causes food poisoning by releasing ___ into food

A

enterotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

S. aureus causes Toxic Shock Syndrome by releasing ___ into blood stream

A

superantigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. the surface of S. aureus is coated with protein __

2. do the surface of other staphylococcus have protein A?

A
  1. A = because it is coagulase positive

2. no the coagulase negative Staph do not have protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Protein A has an affinity for

A

binding to the Fc receptor if IgG and inhibiting complement fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The genus Neisseria contains two important human pathogens name them

A

N. Gohnorrhoeae and N. meningitides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Nisseria Gonorrhoeae causes

A

gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

N. meningitis causes

A

meningococcal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which Nisseria pathogen has a high mortality and low prevalence

A

Nisseria meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which Nisseria pathogen has a low mortality and high prevalence

A

Nisseria gonorrheoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. Salmonella is a gram __, __ shaped bacterium
  2. it is in the same proteobacterial family as ___
  3. Escherichia Coli and Salmonela are trivially known as __ bacteria
A
  1. negative facultative rod shaped
  2. Escherichia Coli
  3. enteric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. In humans, Salmonella is the cause of what 2 diseases
A

salmonellosis and acute gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

salmonellosis is

A

enteric fever (typhoid) resulting from bacterial invasion of the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

acute gastroenteritis results from

A

foodborne infection/intoxication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

the most numerous group of organisms in the oral cavity

A

streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

streptococcus can grow and cause caries. the main one is

A

s. mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how do strep use air

A

aerobic

and facultatively anaerobic gram + bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

which bacteria causes pneumonia

A

streptococci pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

which bacteria causes rheumatic fever

A

streptococci pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

which bacteria causes heart valve infections

A

streptococci viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Name 3 bacteria used clinically to remove blood clots

A
  1. Staphylokinase (produced by S. Aureus)
  2. Streptokinase (produced by hemolytic streptococci)
  3. Urokinase

they all cleave plasminogen = producing plasmin which causes liquefaction of fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Each of the following bacteria produce hyaluronidase Except which one:

  1. staphylococcus aureus
  2. streptococcus pyogenes
  3. bordetella pertussis
  4. clostridium perfringes
A

bordetella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Name the 3 bacteria that make hyaluronidase

what does the hyaluronidase do?

A

Strep, staph, clostridia =

degrades hyaluronic acid of CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Name the bacteria that makes collagenase

2. what does collagenase do?

A

Clostridium species =

dissolves collagen of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes neuraminidase

2. what does neuraminidase do?

A

Vibrio cholera and Shigella dysenteriae

degrades neuraminic acid of intestinal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Name the bacteria that makes coagulase

A

staph aureus

converts fibrinogen to fibrin = causes clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Name the bacteria that makes kinases

A

staphylococci and stretptococci

converts plasminogen to plasmin which digests fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Name the bacteria that makes Leukocidin

A

Staph aureus

disrupts neutrophil membranes and causes discharge of lysosomal granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes streptolysin

2. what does it do?

A

streptococcus pyogenes

lyse erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes hemolysins

2. what does it do?

A

strep, staph and clostridia (same ones that make hyaluronidase)
phospholipases or lecithinases that destroy red blood cells and other cells by lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes Lecithinases

2. what does it do?

A
  1. clostridium perfringes

destroy lecithin in membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes phospholipases

2. what does it do?

A
  1. clostridium perfringes

destroy phospholipids of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes anthrax EF

2. what does it do?

A

bacillus anthracis

one component is adenylate cyclase which causes increased levels of intracellular cyclic AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. Name the bacteria that makes pertussis AC

2. what does it do?

A

Bordetella pertussis
adenylate cyclase that acts locally producing increase in
intracellular cyclic AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Mycobacterium and Nocardia are classified as

a. coagulase positive
b. collagenase positive
c. acid-fast bacteria
d. phospholipase-positive bacteria

A

c. Acid fast bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not classified as either gram neg or gram pos because?
  2. the similarity among them is?
A
  1. they do not have the same chemical characteristics of either
  2. they contain peptidoglycan (murein) in their cell wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a large

a. motile/non-motile
b. __shaped
c. __ fast
d. __ producing bacteria

A
  1. NON MOTILE
  2. ROD SHAPE
  3. ACID FAST
  4. NIACIN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Does mycobacterium produce endo or exotoxins?

A

NEITHER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How does Mycobacterium tuberculosis use oxygen?

A

OBLIGATE AEROBE. this is why they are found in aerated upper lobes of lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

many non pathogenic Mycobacterium are found in normal human flora.
true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

____ is a facultative intracellular parasite usually of MACROPHAGES and has a SLOW GENERATION TIME (15-20HRS).

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

how can you diagnose ACTIVE TUBERCULOSIS histologically

A

acid-fast stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

explain the acid fast stain

A

smear on the slide is flooded with
carbol-fuchsin stain,
decolorized with acid alcohol
counterstained with methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Acid fast organisms will resist decolorization and appear ___ color against a blue background when viewed under microscope

A

RED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what in the cell wall of organisms stain red in acid fast stain

A

due to presence of lipids and waxes (MYCOLIC ACIDS) in the cell wall of these bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

another test for tuberculosis is

A

skin test PPD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

the ppd skin test for tuberculosis is limited compared to the acid fast stain because

A

it can indicated an infection but not if it is active or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

how is the skin test for TB done

A

a purified protein derivative (PPD) extract of mycobacterium tuberculosis is injected subcutaneously and the are is observed for evidence of a DELAYED HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION. a + indicated a hypersensitivity to tuberculosis proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

name the other common acid fast bacteria

A

MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
MYCOBACTERIUM AVIUM COMPLEX (MAC) which consists of 2 species: M.AVIUM and M. INTRACELLULARE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

in addition to peptidoglycan, the acid fast cell wall of Mycobacterium contains a large amount of glycolipids, especially ___ that makes up approximately 60% of the acid-fast cell wall

A

mycolic acid = waxlike coat of a branched and b branched hydroxyl fatty acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

the coat of mycobacterium is a virulence factor bc it is

A

antiphagocytic.

contains wax D (mycolic acids and sugars)
mycolic acid (large a and b branched hydroxyl fatty acids)
peptidoglycan
cord factor (glycolipid of trehalose and mycolic acid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

ACID FAST CELL WALL COMPONENTS FUNCTIONS:

  1. peptidoglycan prevents?
  2. mycolic acids and other glycolipids ___
  3. surface proteins
  4. periplasm?
A
  1. osmotic lysis
  2. impede entry of chemicals = causes them to grow more slowly and be more resistant to chemical agents and phagocytes than most other bacteria.
  3. function as enzymes, serve as adhesins -to adhere to host cell/colonize
  4. contains enzymes for nutrient breakdown and binding proteins to transfer nutrients across membrane.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

When will most cidal antibiotics work and staining work best in the bacterial growth curve:

a. lag phase
b. log phase
c. maximum stationary phase
d. decline phase

A

log phase.

Lag phase: no dividing, cells are metabolically active and getting ready for next phase

Log phase = growing and dividing phase

maximum stationary phase: rate of cells dying is equal to rate of production = total # viable cells are constant

decline (death stage) = # cells dying > production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Isoniazid

A

inhibits mycolic acid biosynthesis and is an efficient antimycobacterial agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The primary lung lesion of pulmonary TB is small rounded nodule produced by infectious M. tuberculosis, called a

A

tubercle or Ghon focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

____ is the result of ghon focus that has healed, fibrosed, and is sometimes calcified

A

Ranke complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

a major factor in the cariogenicity of S. mutans is the ability to adhere to the tooth surface. this attachment is achieved largely in part due to the presence of extracellular glycocalyx, or

a. plasma membrane
b. capsule
c. pellicle
d. reticulum

A

b. capsule

Functions:
protects against phagocytosis
mediates adherence
identification purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Name 4 bacteria that have capsules

A

streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Klebsiella pneumonia
Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

70% of the plasma membrane is made of

A

proteins embedded in it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

is the cell wall on the outside or inside of plasma membrane

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

role of cell wall

A

rigidity, strength, protection. osmtic protection, plays a role in cell division and primer for its own biosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

which of the following are associated with a gram negative cell wall.

a. thick murein layer
b. thin murein layer
c. mycolic acids
d. teichoic acids
e. lipopolysachharide

A

b. thin murein layer

e. lipopolysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. Gram __ cell wall is thick

2. Gram __ cell wall is thin

A
    • thick

2. (-) thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  1. Gram __ cell wall has a thick murein layer that makes up __ % of its cell wall
A

Gram + has a thick cell wall and a thick murein layer that takes up 90% of the cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  1. Gram __ cell wall has a THIN murein layer that makes up __ % of its cell wall
A

Gram - has a THIN cell wall and a THIN murein layer that takes up 10% of the cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Gram __ cell wall has teichoic acids, polysaccharides that serve as attachment sites for bacteriophages

A

+ = teichoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

murein is a

A

unique type of peptidoglycan: sugars (glycan) cross linked by short chains of amino acids (proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Gram negative bacteria has proteins, lipolysacharide layers and phospholipids that make up the ____ of the cell wall

A

cell envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

all bacterial peptidoglycans contain __ acid which is the definite component in murein

A

N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How to distinguish archaebacteria from other bacteria: the cell walls of archae may composed of protein, polysaccharides or peptidoglycan like molecules but will never contain __.

A

murein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

most species of lactic acid bacteria ferment glucose into

A

lactate

ie lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

T/F lactobacillus species are frequently found in association with dental caries

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

the most common application of lactobacillus is in

A

industrial to make dairy products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

lactobacillus also is part of normal flora found in the

A

vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

bc of lactobacillus ability to derive lactic acid from glucose these bacteria species create an acidic environment which inhibits growth of many other bacteria which can lead to __

A

urogenital infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Although lactobacillus species are normally present in __ numbers in the oral cavity, they are frequently found in association with __ most probably as

A

low, caries
especially Lactobacillus casei
secondary invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

lactic acid bacteria include?

A

lactobacillus and streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

lactic acid bacteria use the lactic acid fermentation pathway in which __ is reduced to __

A

pyruvate

lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q
  1. lactobacillus and streptococcus are referred to as __ meaning they can tolerate an acid environment.
  2. they are also _ which means they are acid forming
A
  1. aciduric

2. acidogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q
  1. Is lactobacillus generally harmful or harmless to humans
  2. they are resistant to which antibiotic
  3. we treat them with high doses of __ in combo with _
A
  1. harmless, rarely inciting harmful infections/diseases
  2. vancomycin
  3. penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

the main culprit in dental caries =

A

streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

__ have been found to be a causative agent of root surface caries

A

actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

the 2 organisms most commonly associated with LOCALIZED AGGRESSIVE PERIODONTITIS

a. capnocytophaga ochraceus
b. wolinella rects
c. porphyromonas gingivalis
d. actinomyces Israeli
e. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)

A

a. capnocytophaga ochraceus

e. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q
  1. aggressive periodontitis aka juvenile periodontitis occurs in what two forms
A
  1. generalized (rapidly progressive periodontitis)

and localized form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

in ___ form of aggressive periodontitis, prevotella intermedia and eikenella corrodens predominate

A

generalized

to remember: think g looks like p backwards, and GEneralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

generalized form of aggressive periodontitis occurs between what ages? characterized by

A

12-25, rapid, sever periodontal destruction around most teeth. episodic, rapid, and sever attachment loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

localized form of aggressive periodontitis main bacteria?

A

capnocytophaga ochraceus
actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
(to remember think loC-Alized)
prevotella intermedia and eikenella corrodens are present at lesser extent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

localized form of aggressive periodontitis occurs between what ages? characterized by

A

12-19, rapid and sever attachment loss confined to the INCISORS AND 1ST MOLARS
also relatively plaque is absent to explain the severe attachment loss. Could be a GENETIC disposition or dysfunction of NEUTROPHILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Name 2 disease that the following 2 bacteria are part of:
capnocytophaga ochraceus
actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)

A

localized aggressive periodontitis and periodontitis in juvenile diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

streptococcus mutans grows OPTIMALLY at a pH well below 7.0. From this statement, it can be reasoned that strep mutans is

a. acidophilic
b. acidogenic
c. aciduric
d. alkaliphilic
e. neutrophilic

A

acidophilic

optimum ph is the ph it grows best in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q
  1. bacteria that grow best at pH 7.0 are called__
  2. those which grow best below neutral are called
  3. those that grow best under alkaline conditions are called
  4. most bacteria are which one
A
  1. neutrophils
  2. acidophiles
  3. alkaliphiles
  4. neutrophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

nitrobacter and streptococcus pneumoniea are?

  1. neutrophils
  2. acidophiles
  3. alkaliphiles
A

alkaliphiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q 
pseudomonas aeruginosa 
clostridium sporogenes 
proteus species are
1. neutrophils
2. acidophiles
3. alkaliphiles
A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

thiobacillus thiooxidans, sulfolobus acidocaldarius, bacillus acidocaldarius are

  1. neutrophils
  2. acidophiles
  3. alkaliphiles
A

acidophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

which one is an obligate acidophile:

thiobacillus thiooxidans, sulfolobus acidocaldarius, bacillus acidocaldarius

A

thiobacillus thiooxidans

require low pH for growth since their membrane dissolve and the cells lyse at neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

__ means bacteria is capable of or can TOLERATE living under acidic conditions

A

aciduric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

__ means bacteria can produce high concentrations of acid

2 examples

A

acidogenic

s.mutans and lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

__ are the primary acidogenic microorganism in the oral cavity

A

streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

___ is the MAIN CAUSE of enamel decalcification

A

lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

E. Coli is the bacterial family Enterobacteriaceae. all of the following are characteristics of the family except one:

a. capnophilic
b. facultative anaerobes
c. gram negative
d. rod shaped
e. flagellated

A

a. capnophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

___ is an inflammatory disorder of the intestine, especially of the colon, that results in severe diarrhea containing blood and mucus in the feces with fever

A

Dysentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

name 3 enteric bacteria

A

Shigella
Salmonella
Escherichi coli (E.coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

enteric bacteria means

A

they live in the intestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Which enteric bacteria causes typhoid fever

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

which enteric bacteria causes dysentery

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

E. Coli is not usually considered a pathogen

true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

E.Coli is responsible for what 3 infections

A

urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, intestinal diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

capnophilic bacteria require _for growth

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

the capsule of strep mutans is an important virulence factor that (BOARDS)

a. prevents phagocytic digestion
b. enhances oral accumulation
c. has proteolytic activity
d. causes circulatory collapse

A

b. enhances oral accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

an enterotoxin formed by staph aureus causes (BOARDS)

a. food poisoning
b. rash on skin
c. neuromuscular paralysis
d. spasms of voluntary muscles

A

a. food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following: (BOARDS)

a. capsular polysaccharide
b. acid stable peptidoglycan
c. H and L chain glycoproteins
d. lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
e. somatic O polysacharride, core polysaccharide, lipid A

A

e. e. somatic O polysacharride, core polysaccharide, lipid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Which of the following causes whooping cough: BOARDS

a. haemophilus influenze
b. strep pneumonia
c. bordetella pertussis
d. brucella melitensis
e. klebsiella pneumoniae

A

c. bordetella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

BOARDS

Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized by the capability to produce

A

both yeast phase and a mycelial phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

BOARDS

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2 are generated from

A

arachidonic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

BOARDS
Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the following structures:

skin
nerve cells
plasma cells
muscle fibers
mucous membrane
A

mucous membrane (VAGINA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

BOARDS
Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump and osteoporosis are manifestations of what disease?

What is the cause of the disease

A

Cushing’s Syndrome (think cushion = cushing, buffalo hump, obese, upper body obesity, abnormal fat deposition)

high levels of cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

BOARDS

which genera of fungi is MOST frequently recovered from HEALTHY mucous membranes?

A

candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

BOARDS
in which of the following organs/tissues are ascending infections common:

a. bone
b. heart
c. kidney
d. peritoneum
e. subcutaneous CT

A

c. kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

BOARDS
Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a change in the balance of oral microbiota. this particular change is often seen in persons who are taking which of the following drugs:

a. antiviral
b. antifungal
c. antibacterial

A

c. antibacterial (think antibiotics, which are for BACTERIAL INFECTIONS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

BOARDS

In addition to Kaposi’s sarcoma, which other malignant neoplasm is often observed with AIDS?

A

Non-Hodkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q
  1. A ___ is a cancer (malignant tumor) that arises from transformed cells of MESENCHYMAL origin.
A
  1. sarcoma
    Thus, malignant tumors made of cancerous bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, vascular, or hematopoietic tissues are, by definition, considered sarcomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q
  1. A malignant tumor originating from EPITHELIAL cells, which are termed _____. .
A

carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

which are more common carcinoma or sarcoma

A

carcinoma&raquo_space;»» sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Common malignancies, such as breast, colon, and lung cancer, are almost always carcinoma/sarcoma?

A

carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

is a BENIGN tumor of epithelial tissue with glandular origin, glandular characteristics, or both is called

A

ADENOMA
Adenomas can grow from many glandular organs, including the adrenal glands, pituitary gland, thyroid, prostate, and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Mesenchyme is a type of tissue characterized by loosely associated cells that lack polarity and are surrounded by a large extracellular matrix. Mesenchymal cells are able to develop into the tissues of the ___

A

lymphatic
circulatory systems,
connective tissues: bone and cartilage

= sarcoma.

198
Q
  1. if lung/breast/colon cancer =
  2. If prostate/pituitary/thyroid/pancreas cancer =
  3. if blood/bone/cartilage cancer
A
  1. carcinoma (epithelial)
  2. adenocarcinoma
  3. sarcoma (mesenchyme origin)
199
Q

A ____ is a benign, focal malformation that resembles a neoplasm in the tissue of its origin. This is NOT a malignant tumor, and it grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues. It is composed of tissue elements normally found at that site, but which are growing in a disorganized mass. They occur in many different parts of the body and are most often asymptomatic and undetected unless seen on an image taken for another reason.

A

hamartoma
(BOARDS)

Put simply, a hamartoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g. a birthmark on the skin), and a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal situation (e.g. pancreatic tissue in the duodenum).

200
Q
  1. ____,= These tumors also contain normal tissues but are found in abnormal locations
  2. a ___is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation
A
  1. Choristomas
  2. hamartoma

BOARDS

201
Q
  1. what is suppuration?
  2. certain enzymes are responsible for suppuration. These enzymes derive chiefly from?

BOARDS

A
  1. = Pus = an exudate, typically white-yellow, yellow, or yellow-brown, formed at the site of inflammation during infection
  2. neutrophils
202
Q

BOARDS:

The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Pannus?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

203
Q

BOARDS

The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Tophus?

A

A tophus (Latin: “stone”, plural tophi) is a deposit of monosodium urate crystals in people with longstanding high levels of URIC ACID in the blood.

204
Q

BOARDS:

The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Aschoff Bodies?

A

rheumatic fever.
Aschoff bodies are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with rheumatic fever. They result from inflammation in the heart muscle and are characteristic of rheumatic heart disease

205
Q

BOards:

wire-loop lesion can be found in people with?

A

Lupus nephritis

206
Q

A women shows radiographic evidence of osteolytic lesion of humerus. her serum calcium is elevated. the bone lesion show numerous giant cells. which is the most probable cause? (BOARDS)

A

HYperparathyroidism

207
Q 
Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of the following streptococcal infections:
A. pyoderma
B. Diptheria
C. Scarlet Fever
D. Dental caries
E> Stretococcal gangrene
A

C. Scarlet Fever

208
Q

Pyoderma means any __ disease that is __

A

skin disease that is pyogenic

209
Q
  1. Diphtheria = is an ____ (where) illness caused by ____, a facultative anaerobic, Gram-___ bacterium.
A
  1. upper respiratory tract
  2. Corynebacterium diphtheria
  3. positive
210
Q

___ is characterized by sore throat, low fever, and an adherent membrane (a pseudomembrane) on the tonsils, pharynx, and/or nasal cavity

A

Diphtheria

211
Q 
BOARDS: 
which of the following represents the epithelial change most predictive of cancer
a. dysplasia
b. metaplasia
c. acanthosis
d. parakeratosis
e. hyperkeratosis
A

a. dysplasia

212
Q

•

  1. __: an initial change from normal cells to a different cell type (such as chronic irritation of cigarette smoke causing ciliated pseudostratified epithelium to be replaced by squamous epithelium more able to withstand the insult).
  2. ___: an increasing degree of disordered growth or maturation of the tissue (often thought to precede neoplasia) such as cervical dysplasia as a result of human papillomavirus infection.
  3. Dysplasia is still a reversible process. However, once the transformation to ___ has been made, the process is not reversible.
A
  1. Metaplasia
  2. Dysplasia
  3. neoplasia
213
Q

which comes first neoplasia/dysplasia/metaplasia?

which one is reversible

A

metaplasia to dysplasia to neoplasia.

neoplasia is not reversible

214
Q

Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis:

a. lung cancer
b. malignant melanoma
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. carcinoma of the colon
e. squamous carcinoma of the tongue

A

BOARDS

c. pancreatic carcinoma

215
Q

asymptomatic carriers are a major hazard of which of the following:

a. plaque
b. shigellosis
c. salmonellosis
d. typhoid fever
e. legionnaires disease

A

d. typhoid fever

(REMEMBER TYPHOID MARY)

BOARDS

216
Q

BOARDS:

acid phosphatas is elevated in which malignancy

A

metastatic carcinoma of the prostate

217
Q

The most numerous group in oral cavity is ___

A

Beta hemolytic streptococci (BOARDS)

218
Q

Name the 2 bacteria that cause meningitis

A

Strep pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis

219
Q

most bacterial endotoxins are composed of (BOARDS)

A

Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes

220
Q

BOARDS: A 17 year old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. what is the primary pathogen

A

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

LOCALIZED Aggressive periodontitis

221
Q

BOARDS: IN myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed against which structure

A

acetylcholine receptors

222
Q

BOARDS: most antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by

A

genes that are carried on plasmids

223
Q

BOARDS: Gout results in a metabolic defect in

224
Q

Name the second invader of carious lesions in the oral cavity (BOARDS)

A

lactobacillus casei

225
Q

Which component of Staphylococcus is antiphagocytic, elicits hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury

226
Q

BOARDS

A collagenase producing microorganism which has been associated with periodontal disease:

A

bacteriodes melaninogenicus

227
Q

BOARDS: The components in the cell wall of mycobacteriaceae responsible for acid fastness

A

lipids and waxes

228
Q

BOARDS: Massive accumulation of glycogen in the liver and the kidney is characteristic of

A

von Gierke’s disease

229
Q

Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the __

  1. People with Marfan tend to be unusually __, with ___ limbs and long, thin fingers.
  2. Marfan syndrome is an autosomal ___ disorder
A
  1. misfolding of the protein fibrillin-1.
  2. tall, long,
  3. dominant
230
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes:

a. is it mobile
b. group _ streptococcus
c. gram __
d. catalase positive/negative
e. chains/pairs/clusters
f. alpha or beta hemolytic?

A

a. non motile
b. group A streptococcus
c. positive
d. catalase negative
e. chains/pairs = all kinds of strep
f. Beta

231
Q

How do most streptococcus and E.Coli use oxygen?

A

facultative ANAEROBES.

some strep are capnophilic

232
Q
  1. A ___ is an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent.
A
  1. facultative anaerobe
233
Q

An ___, by contrast, cannot make ATP in the absence of oxygen,

A

obligate aerobe

234
Q
  1. Staphylococcus are catalase __

2. Streptococcus are catalase __

A
  1. Staph = catalase +

2. Strep = catalase -

235
Q

Streptococcus ___ (Group __ streptococcus) is one of the most frequent pathogens of humans.

A

pyogenes, A

236
Q

The most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis (strep throat) is ___

A

Strep pyogenes

237
Q

Strep pyogenes __ protein causes Pharyngitis (Strep throat)

238
Q

Strep pyogenes exotoxins (Spe) cause what 3 diseases

A

necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever (rash), Toxic shock syndrome

239
Q
  1. Enterococci cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A
  1. urinary tract infections
  2. gamma
  3. no
240
Q
  1. streptococcus bovis cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A
  1. infective endocarditis
  2. gamma
  3. no
241
Q
  1. streptococcus agalactiae cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A 
1. neonatal meningitis
neonatal sepsis
neonatal pneumonia
2. Beta
3. polysaccharide capsule
242
Q
  1. streptococcus viridans cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A
  1. endocarditis and caries
  2. alpha
  3. none
243
Q
  1. streptococcus pneumoniae cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A
  1. pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media
  2. alpha
  3. polysacc capsule, pneumolysin, IgA protease
244
Q
  1. streptococcus pyogenes cause what disease?
  2. they are __ hemolytic
  3. do they have virulent factors?
A
  1. Pharyngitis (strep throat)

necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome, cellulitis, acute rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

245
Q

post strep pyogenes sequelae (2)

A

acute rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

246
Q

Explain phagocytosis steps

A
  1. chemotaxis, phagocyte adheres to microbe
  2. phagocyte ingests the microbe
  3. formation of phagosome ( = vesicle formed around a particle absorbed by phagocytosis = phagocytic vesicle)
  4. phagasome fuses with lysosome = forms phagolysosome
  5. digestion of microbe by enzymes
  6. formation of RESIDUAL BODY CONTAINING UNDIGESTED MATERIAL
  7. discharge of waste material
247
Q

Reticuloendothelial cells are ____.

Fixed phagocytes do not circulate. they are fixed macrophages and cells of the reticuloendothelial system

A

phagocytic

248
Q

Free phagocytes circulate in the bloodstream and include __ and the free macrophages

A

leukocytes (WBC)

249
Q

Five different and diverse types of leukocytes exist, and several types (including __ and __ ) are phagocytic.

A

monocytes and neutrophils

250
Q

All leukocytes are produced and derived from a ___cell in the __known as a hematopoietic stem cell.

A

multipotent,

bone marrow

251
Q

which of the following is the process in which DNA is transferred from a bacterial donor cell to a recipient cell by cell to cell contact:

translation
transduction
transcription
conjugation

A

conjugation: .

252
Q
  1. Conjugation is a form of sexual reproduction in which ___ is transferred from one live bacterium to another through ___
  2. contact is established through
A
  1. DNA
    DIRECT CONTACT
  2. pili
253
Q

bacteria’s ability to transfer DNA by CONJUGATION is dependent on the presence of a cytoplasmic entity termed the __

A

fertility factor (F)

254
Q
  1. Cells carrying the fertility factor (F) are called

2. cells that don’t are called

255
Q

Fertility factor is a?

A

F is a small CIRCULAR DNA element that acts like a mini chromosome. it is a PLASMID, which are self-replicating extrachromosomal DNA molecules

256
Q

Which process transfers the GREATEST amount of genetic information:
transduction/transformation/conjugation

A

conjugation

257
Q

Which occurs more frequently conjugation or transformation?

A

conjugation

258
Q

conjugation takes place within members of the ___ genera

259
Q

Conjugation can result in the passage of genes for __ from one bacterium to another = increases pathogenicity

A

antibiotic resistance

260
Q

F factors are plasmids transferred from a donor cell, __ to a recipient cell, __ during ___

A

F+ to F-

conjugation

261
Q

An _____is a cell with an F plasmid incorporated into the chromosome

A

Hfr (high freq of recombination)

262
Q

during conjugation portions of Hfr chromosome are transferred from the ___ to __

A

Hfr bacterium to the F- bacterium

263
Q

Transfer of DNA WITHIN bacterial cell occurs via ____ which are portions of DNA that move from one site on the chromosome to another or to a plamid

A

transposons

264
Q

transcription occurs in the:

a. cytoplasm of prokaryotes, and nucleus of eukaryotes
b. cytoplasm of euk and nucleus of prok
c. nucleus of both prok and euk
d. cytoplasm of both prok and euk

265
Q

transcription is the transfer of the genetic info from the DNA to the

A

short lived messenger RNA

266
Q

The enzymes___ needed for transcription

A

DNA gyrase and RNA polymerase.
DNA gyrase unzips DNA
RNA polymerase binds to one strand of DNA and makes mRNA with base seq complementary to the DNA template that is downstream to the polymerase binding site.

267
Q

the mRNA molecule is used for

A

translation

268
Q

___ is the transfer of DNA via a PHAGE particle. It does NOT REQUIRE cell-to cell contact

A

transduction

269
Q

___ is the formation of DNA from an RNA template

A

reverse transcription

270
Q

____ use reverse transcription

give two examples of them

A

retroviruses

HIV and tumor viruses

271
Q

Retroviruses:

  1. enveloped/non enveloped
  2. linear/circular RNA/DNA genome
  3. double stranded or single stranded
  4. positive sense or negative sense
A

enveloped

linear single stranded + sense RNA genome

272
Q

enzyme used in retrovirus to make DNA from RNA?

A

reverse transcriptase

273
Q

The attachment of microbes and other foreign cells to phagocytes by antibody molecules such as IgG and complement proteins such as C3b is called

A

opsonization aka enhanced attachment

274
Q

opsonization/enhanced attachment: refers to the antibody molecules: __ or __ and the complement proteins __ and __ attaching antigens to phagocytes. the result is more efficient phagocytosis.

A

IgG or IgM

C3b and C4b

275
Q

Prokaryotes have ___ DNA (circular/linear), eukaryotes have__

A 
prok = circular
euk = linear
276
Q

bacteria replicate via

A

binary fission = one parent divides into 2 progeny cells. Bacterial growth is exponential

277
Q

viruses replicate via

A

within host

278
Q

fungi: yeast replicate by__

mold replicate by ___

A 
yeast = budding 
mold = mitosis
279
Q

eukaryotes replicate by ___

280
Q

parasites replicate by

281
Q

infectious states:

  1. ___ short term active infection with symptoms
  2. ___ long term active infection with symptoms
  3. ___infection is detectable only by serological test
  4. __ NO ACTIVE GROWTH of microorganisms but potential for reactivation
  5. ___ active growth of micoorganisms with or without symptoms

carrier/latent/subclinical/chronic/acute

A
  1. acute
  2. chronic
  3. subclinical
  4. latent
  5. carrier
282
Q

Symbiosis: the essential association b/w two ___ organisms that live close to each other with or without mutual benefit

283
Q

Abscess = a ___ (acute/chronic) inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of __ surrounded be a cellular wall

A

acute, pus

284
Q

Granuloma = a ___(acute/chronic) inflammatory lesion consisting of granulation tissue: fibrosis (fibroblasts), angiogenesis (new capillaries) and inflammatory cells (macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, epitheliod cells, multinucleated giant cells)

285
Q

Cyst = an ___ lined sac filled with fluid or air

A

epithelial

286
Q

cellulitis = an __acute/chronic) diffuse swelling located __

A

acute, along fascial planes that separate muscle bundles

287
Q
  1. Ludwig’s angina is a rapidly occurring ____.
  2. It involves the __ and __ and __ spaces
  3. why is emergency treatment crucial
A
  1. cellulitis
  2. submandibular, sublingual, submental fascial spaces bilaterally
  3. b/c it can cause airway obstruction
288
Q

Sepsis is commonly caused by what 3 bacteria

A

S. aureus, Klebsiella sp, E.coli

289
Q

Sepsis of bloodstream by toxin producing bacteria: common signs and symptoms:
fever, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, chills, and __constipation or diarrhea?

290
Q

All bacteria except ____ contain a plasma membrane surrounded by peptidoglycan cell wall

A

mycoplasma = don’t have a cell wall

291
Q
  1. Mycoplasma refers to a genus of bacteria that lack a __.

2. Without a cell wall, they are unaffected by many common ___

A
  1. cell wall

2. antibiotics such as penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis.

292
Q

____ are the smallest living cells yet discovered, and can survive without oxygen

A

Mycoplasma

293
Q

Peptidoglycan is a cross linked polysaccharide of alternating __

A

N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)

294
Q

Salivary ___ cleaves the glycosidic bods of the peptidoglycan molecule

295
Q

All bacterial capsules are made of ____ except ____ which is made of __

A

polysaccharides,
Bacillus anthracis,
protein containing D-glutamate

296
Q

The M protein prevents ___ and is seen in ___

A

phagocytosis

group A streptococci

297
Q

Protein A prevents __ and is seen in

A

opsonization and phagocytosis

S. Aureus

298
Q

IgA protease: degrades __. seen in (3)

A

IgA, Strep. pneumonia, H. influenza, Neisseria sp

299
Q

Leukocidins destroy ___

A

PMN’s and macrophages

300
Q
  1. collagenase (metalloproteinases) degrades

2. coagulase ___

A
  1. collagen

2. promotes clotting

301
Q

lecithinase: ___ causes

A

hydrolyzes lechitin to destroy plasma membranes, causes ganggrene

302
Q

streptodornase (DNase)

A

depolymerizes DNA

303
Q

streptolysin O

A

causes beta hemolysis (oxgen labile)

304
Q

streptolysin S

A

causes Beta hemolysis (oxygen stable)

305
Q

pneumolysin

A

beta hemolysis

306
Q

streptokinase and staphylokinase

A

activates plasminogen to dissolve clots

307
Q

exfoliatin

A

protease that cleaves desmoglein. causes scaled skin syndrome

308
Q

Exotoxin/endotoxin is within the cell wall

309
Q

Exotoxin/endotoxin is outside the cell wall

310
Q

endotoxin is found in gram negative bacteria and

A

listeria bacteria

311
Q

the most toxic portion of LPS is

312
Q

which one is heat stable: exotoxin or endotoxin

A

endotoxin is heat stable, exotoxin is not

313
Q

Enterotoxins are ___ that affect intestinal endothelial cells

314
Q

exotoxins or endotoxins can be detected by ELISA

315
Q
  1. When an antibody finds an antigen, the __portion of antibody (IgG) reacts with epitopes of the antigen.
  2. The _ portion of IgG can then bind to neutrophils and macrophages thus sticking the antigen to the phagocyte.
  3. binding of IgG to the Fc receptor also activates the __
A
  1. IgG–FAB ————-antigen
  2. Fc
  3. phagoctye
316
Q

opsonization is especially important against microorganisms with antiphagocytic structures like

317
Q

Name the two major opsonins

A

IgG and C3b

318
Q

For each of the following streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor list the function:

  1. M protein
  2. DNases A to D
  3. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spe A, B, C and F)
  4. Streptolysin O and S
  5. Streptokinase A and B
  6. Hyaluronidase
  7. Exotoxin A (SpeA)
  8. Exotoxin B (SpeB)
A
  1. resistance to phagocytosis
  2. DNases A to D = Cleaves DNA
  3. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins = responsible for many clinical manifestations of severe strep diseases
  4. Streptolysin O and S: lysis of red and white blood cells
  5. Streptokinase A and B: Dissolves Fibrin in clots to assist in invasion of wounds
  6. Hyaluronidase = breaks down hyaluronic acid
  7. Exotoxin A (SpeA) Toxic Shock Syndrome
  8. Exotoxin B (SpeB) rapidly dissolves tissues
319
Q

Streptococcus Pyogenes is a gram ___, ____ (utilize oxygen) bacteria.
Is it motile? does it produce spores

A

positive
facultative anaerobic
non motile and does not produce spores

320
Q

Strep pyogenes occurs in __of cocci and occasionally in __

A

long chains, occasionally in pairs

321
Q
  1. Strep pyogenes is a Group _ strep

2. what does Group A mean?

A
  1. A

2. means they have a capsule composed of hyaluronic acid and are beta hemolytic

322
Q
  1. Beta hemolytic means they produce a toxin that forms a ___zone on blood agar, demonstrating its ability to __
  2. this hemolysis is attributed to toxins formed by Group A strep called ___
  3. streptolysins can destroy?
A
  1. clear, destroy red blood cells
  2. streptolysins
  3. white and red blood cells and other cells
323
Q

Strep pyogenes produces three kinds of exotoxins. These are responsible for causing

A

fever and scarlet fever rashes and increase risk for endotoxic shock and depress antibody synthesis.

324
Q

M proteins resistance of phagocytosis seen in strep pyogenes: it is also __ and __ resistant and helps?

A

heat and acid, aids in attachment to host tissues

325
Q

The hyaluronic capsule of strep pyogenes is similar to human ___

A

CT = therefore it can go around unrecognized as an antigen by the host body = helping resist phagocytosis

326
Q

Strep pyogenes is considered a ___ pathogen

A

opportunistic pathogen because it is part of normal flora of respiratory tract but usually doesn’t cause complications until person’s natural defenses to disease are compromised.

327
Q

Impetigo is a contagious ___ infection. what bacteria causes it?

A

skin infection that usually produces blisters or sores on the face, neck, hands, and diaper area
strep pyogenes

328
Q

Name the mild diseases caused by strep pyogenes and the severe.

A

2 mild: impetigo and soar throat

2 severe: strep Toxic shock syndrome and necrotizing fascitis

329
Q

what kind of bacteria are the principal etiologic factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)

A

Spirochetes.

330
Q

ANUG is an ___ recurring gingival infection characterized by?

A

acute

necrosis of papillae, spontaneous bleeding and pain.

331
Q
  1. Name the 2 principal bacteria associated with ANUG

2. what other bacteria may be seen

A
  1. Prevotella Intermedia and Spirochetes: Treponema denticola is the intermediate sized spirochete associated with ANUG.
  2. Fusobacterium and Selenomonas
332
Q

NUG aka __ or _

A

trench mouth/Vincent’s infection

333
Q

Signs and symptoms unique/pathognomonic to NUG?

a. is there pain
b. is there attachment loss
c. papilla look __
d. psuedomembrane formation?
e. ___fever
f. __ taste
g. gingival bleeding?
h. fetor oris = ?

A

a. painful
b. NO ATTACHMENT LOSS
c. punched out papilla = interproximal gingival necrosis
d. yes
e. low grade fever
f. metallic taste
g. spontaneous gingival bleeding
h. foul smell

334
Q

Which immunoglobin is found in highest concentration in serum in patients with periodontal disease

335
Q

Name the predominant subgingival bacteria associated with gingival health

A 
strep mitis and strep sanguis
actinomyces viscosus and naeslundii
rothia dentocariosus
staphylococcus epidermidis
small spirochetes
336
Q

Are protozoa eukaryotes or prokaryotes

A

eukaryotes

337
Q

eukaryotes have the __ S ribosome

A

80S

prokaryotes (70S)

338
Q
  1. eukaryotes do not have peptidoglycan or cell walls. T/F
339
Q

The cell membrane of ___ contain sterols

A

Eukaryotes and Mycoplasma bacteria!!!

340
Q

Prokaryotes do not have sterol in their cell membranes. THE ONLY PROKARYOTE THAT DOES is the?

A

IMPT!!! Mycoplasma do not have cell walls and have sterol in their membranes

341
Q

Are viruses cells

A

no. THEY ARE ACELLULAR PARTICLES

342
Q

__ are obligate intracellular parasites

343
Q

Do viruses contain RNA and DNA?

A

NO! They contain EITHER DNA OR RNA NOT BOTH!!!! unlike bacteria and eukaryotes

344
Q

do viruses contain organelles?

345
Q

viruses have a ___ capsid and a ___ envelope

A

protein capsid and lipoprotein envelope

346
Q

do prokaryotes have a nuclear membrane

A

NO. only eukaryotes have nucleus and nuclear membranes. prok don’t have either

347
Q

in ____ DNA is a SINGLE closed looped chromosome

A

prokaryotes

348
Q

In ___ DNA is in multiple chromosomes that are linear

A

eukaryotes

349
Q

Are there proteins in prokaryotic/eukaryotic chromosomes

A

ONLY IN EUKARYOTE DNA. Prok don’t have protein in their DNA

350
Q

Do prokaryotes undergo mitosis

A

no = binary fission

351
Q

Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia are prokaryote/eukaryote

A

bacteria = prokaryote.

352
Q

In aerobic respiration we use an electron transport chain that is located in the

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

353
Q

aerobic respiration has 4 stages name them

A

glycolysis, formation of acetyl coA, citric acid cycle, electron chain and chemiosmosis

354
Q

Fermentation = __ molecules are both electron donors and electron acceptors. The molecule being metabolized is not completely __

A
  1. organic

2. oxidized. - all its potential energy is not extracted

355
Q
  1. In fermentation, ___ is reduced to ___
  2. results in excess of __
  3. __ is an important intermediate
  4. Energy is derived from __ phosphorylation
  5. Oxygen is __
  6. Energy yield is __
A
  1. NAD+ reduced to NADH
  2. NADH
  3. pyruvate
  4. substrate level
  5. not involved
  6. low
356
Q

in respiration we use ___ phosphorylation

357
Q

periodontal health is characterized by the presence of what bacteria

A

gram + strep sanguis, strep mitis, actinomyces viscosus, actinomyces naeslundii, and a few gram - bacteria: veillonella parvula and capnocytophaga ochracea.

358
Q

in periodontal disease the bacterial balance shifts to

A

gram negative, motile, strictly anaerobic bacteria. inflammatory disease and injury cant develop without these bacteria

359
Q

Aa - actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans associated with

A

aggressive periodontal disease (aka early onset periodontitis) and localized aggressive periodontitis (aka localized juvenile periodontitis)

360
Q

tannerella forsythia aka bacteriodes forsythus linked to

A

perio disease

361
Q

treponema denticola, sokranskii associated with

A

deep pockets and chronic periodontitis and NUG

362
Q

prevotella intermedia associated with

A

deep pockets and chronic periodontitis and NUG

363
Q

All dental plaque induced perio disease are __ infections

A

mixed. none of them caused by single pathogen

364
Q

Most bacteria grow in the presence or absence of oxygen this is called

A

facultative anaerobes: oxygen not required but they will use it when it is present. They grow in both oxygen/no oxygen

365
Q
  1. Superoxide dismutases (SOD) are enzymes that catalyze the dismutation of ___ into __ and __
  2. Catalase catalyzes the decomposition of __ to __ and __
A
  1. superoxide (O2−) into oxygen and hydrogen peroxide

2. hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

366
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes:

  1. can they grow in aerobic and anaerobic?
  2. do they require/use oxygen?
A
  1. they can grow in both environments
  2. do not require or use oxygen.
    Fermentation only!
367
Q

Facultative anaerobes:

  1. can they grow in aerobic and anaerobic?
  2. do they require/use oxygen?
A
  1. yes in both
  2. do not require oxygen, but they will use it if it is present
    Fermentation/aerobic respiration/anaerobic respiration
368
Q

The only two kinds of bacteria that can grow in both oxygen and non oxygen environments are?

A

aerotolerant and facultative anaerobes

369
Q

Obligate aerobes grow only in __ and no growth in __

A

grow in aerobic
no growth in anaerobic.
oxygen is required

370
Q

Obligate anaerobes: __ growth in aerobic and __ growth in anaerobic

A

no growth = aerobic
growth - anaerobic
oxygen is toxic

371
Q
  1. Anaerobic respiration is a form of respiration using electron acceptors other than ___.
  2. Although oxygen is not used as the final electron acceptor, the process still uses a respiratory electron transport chain; it is respiration without oxygen. In anaerobes, other less-oxidizing substances such as ___are used as final electron acceptor
A
  1. oxygen

2. sulfate (SO42-), nitrate (NO3-), sulphur (S), or fumarate

372
Q

obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes:

  1. do they have catalase
  2. do they have superoxide dismutase
  3. peroxidase
A
  1. yes
  2. yes
  3. no
373
Q

aerotolerant anaerobes:

  1. do they have catalase
  2. do they have superoxide dismutase
  3. peroxidase
A
  1. yes
  2. no (they do not use oxygen -only fermentation)
  3. yes
374
Q

obligate anaerobes:

  1. do they have catalase
  2. do they have superoxide dismutase
  3. peroxidase
375
Q

name two obligate anaerobes

A

clostridia and bacteriodes

376
Q

bacteria that rely entirely on INORGANIC chemicals for energy are called

A

autotrophs (aka lithotrophs)

377
Q

bacteria that require ORGANIC CARBON sources are known as

A

heterotrophs (organotrophs)

378
Q

Spore (aka endospores) formers are NEVER gram ___

379
Q

name two genera of spore formers

A

bacillus and clostridium

380
Q

spores contain a complete copy of the chromosome, the bare minimum concentration of essential proteins and ribosomes, and a high concentration of

A

calcium bound to dipicolinic acid

381
Q

under harsh environments such as loss of nutrition, bacteria such as Clostridium tetani, or Clostridium botulinum, or Bacillus anthracis can convert from __ to __

A

vegetative state to a dormant state (spore)

382
Q

Bacterial endospore is a __resistant spore formed inside a cell.

383
Q

the endospore is multilayered with peptidoglycan coat and __ core

A

calcium dipicolinate

384
Q

which is harder to destroy: HIV HBV TB or spores

385
Q

the greatest risk for bloodborne infection in healthcare workers is

386
Q

to destroy spores it must be autoclaved at the proper temp of -_ FOR __ MINUTES

A

121degrees Celcius for 20 minutes

387
Q

active spores/dormant spores have thin walls.

A

active have thin walls.

dormant have thick, strong walls

388
Q

anthrax is caused by

A

bacillus anthracis

389
Q

Identify the spore forming bacteria

  1. botulism
  2. gas gangrene
  3. tetanus are caused by
A
  1. Clostridium botulism
  2. Clostridium perfringens
  3. Clostridium tetani
390
Q

one of the most common forms of traveler’s diarrhea is caused by

A

Escherichia coli

produces an enterotoxin which causes traveler’s diarrhea and important in infantile diarrhea in developing countries.

391
Q
  1. E. Coli enterotoxin can be detected using the

2. what other disease is commonly used with elisa

A

ELISA = enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

HIV

392
Q

Can ELISA provide qualitative (YES/NO) or quantitative (how much) info on euk/prok antibodies?

A

both.
The sample with an unknown amount of antigen is immobilized on a solid support Then, a further specific antibody is applied over the surface so it can bind to the antigen. This antibody is linked to an enzyme, and, in the final step, a substance containing the enzyme’s substrate is added. The subsequent reaction produces a detectable signal, most commonly a color change in the substrate.

393
Q
  1. Eliza uses ___ and color change to identify a substance

2. Name 4 bacteria/virus that can be detected by ELISA

A
  1. antibodies

2. S. Aureus, Vibrio Cholerae, HIV, E. Coli

394
Q

Inclusion bodies = ___

A

storage sites for nutrients. Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stainable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins

395
Q

protoplasm is aka

396
Q

obligate anaerobic cant live in oxygen because they lack

A

superoxide dismutase (rids O2 radicals) and catalase (rids H2O2)

397
Q

Transformation is DNA transfer by?

A

uptake (no requirement for cell to cell contact)

398
Q

Conjugation is DNA transfer by?

A

conjugation tube (sex pilus)

399
Q

Transduction is DNA transfer by

A

bacteriophage (VIRUS) - lytic or lysogenic bacteriophage pathways

400
Q

in a gram stain, gram __ stains purple

401
Q

in a gram stain gram __ stains pink

402
Q
  1. gram + wall is made of

2. gram - wall is made of

A
  1. lipoteichoic acid

2. LPS

403
Q
  1. In transformation, the DNA picked up must be __ stranded.
  2. the DNA enters the cell and an __ degrades one of the strand = single stranded
  3. uptake is dependent on the presence of what protein
A

1 double

  1. intracellular DNAse (endonuclease)
  2. competence facotr
404
Q

Regardless of the mode of exchange of DNA, DNA becomes integrated in the cell host cell by

A

recombination

405
Q

Sexduction is genetic transfer mediated by _ cells

A

F negative prime cells

406
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa are

  1. motile/non motile
  2. gram _
  3. shape and oxygen use
  4. ___ pathogen
A
  1. motile
  2. negative
  3. aerobic rods
  4. opportunistic pathogen
407
Q

the presence of __ in pseudomonas species are used to differentiate them from enterobacteriaceae

A

cytochrome oxidase

408
Q

One of the most important virulent factor in pseudomonas aeruginosa is __

A 
Exotoxin A (ETA) 
disrupts protein synthesis by blocking peptide chain elongation in euk. like diphtheria toxin and corynebacterium
409
Q

A blue pigment called ___ is produced by pseudomonas aeruginosa, which catalyzes the production of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide. the pigment also stimulates interleukin 8 release leading to enhanced attraction of neutrophils

410
Q

a yellow green pigment called ___ is a siderophore that binds iron for use in metabolism. this pigment also regulates secretion of other virulence factors, including exotoxin A

411
Q

LasA (serine protease) and LasB (zinc metalloprotease) acts synergistically to ___

A

degrade elastin

412
Q

phospholipase C is a __

A

heat labile hemolysin that breaks down lipids and lecithin

413
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa is inherently __ to many antibiotics. Name the few that work against it

A

resistant.
fluoroquinolones,
gentamicin
imipenem

414
Q
  1. Prokaryotic cells consists of a single, circular molecule of ___ organized DNA lacking a nuclear membrane and mitotic apparatus
415
Q

Do viruses contain organelles

416
Q

Viruses have a protein ___ and a lipoprotein __

A

capsid, envelope

417
Q

endotoxins exert pathological effects by activating

A

complement cascade

418
Q

LPS is not toxic unless

A

released from the cell (death of gram negative bacteria cells release the LPS)

419
Q
  1. which is more toxic, exotoxin or endotoxin

2. which has high specificity?

A

exotoxin is more toxic
exotoxin has high specificity
(endotoxin is less toxic with less specificity)

420
Q

which are used as vaccines: exotoxin or endotoxin

A

exotoxins only. (they are more toxic, highly specific and used as vaccines)

421
Q

Name 3 organisms who’s exotoxins are neurotoxins

A
  1. clostridium botulinum (neurotoxin A, B, E)
    causes botulism = paralysis/block nerve transmission
  2. Clostridium tetani = neurotoxin tetanospasm = tetanus = spastic paralysis interferes with motor neurons
  3. Shigella Dynsenteriae = neurotoxin = bacterial dysentery = hemorrhage and paralysis
422
Q

___ exotoxin is an enterotoxin that causes food poisoning and intestinal inflammation

A

staphylococcus aureues

423
Q

___ causes rheumatic fever and scarlet fever

A

Strep Pyogenes (Group A)

424
Q

___ causes gas gangrene

A

clostridium perfringes = a toxin (lechthinase) and K toxin - collagenase

425
Q
  1. Does Neisseria gonorrhoeae have a capsule

2. Neisseria meningitdes?

426
Q

capsules play an important part in what diseases

A

haemophilus meningitis, haemophilus influenza, Klebsiella pneumonia, Neisseria meningitdes cryptococcses, pneumococcal pneumonia, and meningococcemia

427
Q

Does Strep pneumonia have a capsule

A

yes = well known for its large capsule

428
Q

In the mouth, obligate anaerobes are part of ___ and are __

A

normal flora = opportunistic

429
Q

2 pathways that metabolize glucose:

  1. anaerobic cycle occurs in ___ and is moderately efficient
  2. aerobic cycle occurs in the __ and is greatest release of energy
A
  1. cytoplasm

2. mitochondria

430
Q
  1. Respiration is the method of obtaining energy involving _
  2. Respiration can be aerobic = __ is terminal e/H+ acceptor
  3. or anaerobic = __ final e/H+ acceptor
A
  1. oxidative phosphorylation
  2. oxygen
  3. nitrate or sulfate
431
Q

in fermentation, __ is the final hydrogen acceptors

A

pyruvate (intermediate product of glucose)

432
Q

In saliva, the members of the viridans streptococci group are predominant. name them.
name the other two present

A

strep salivarius, mitis, sanguis

gram + actinomyces and gram - veillonella

433
Q

where in the body are no normal microbata found

A

upper urinary tract (kidneys and bladder) and lower respiratory tract

434
Q

strep, lactobacillus, bacteriodes, and clostridium found in

A

genitourinary tract (urethra and vaginal tracts)

435
Q

strep, staph, moroxella, Neisseria, heamophilis, bacteriodes, and fusobacterium found

A

upper respiratory tract (nasal cavity and nasopharynx)

436
Q

strep, lactobacillus, clostridium, veillonella, bacteriodes, fusobacterium, Escherichia, proteus, klebsiella and enterobacter found

437
Q

strep, veillonella, bacteriodes, fusobacterium, actinomyce, peptostreptococcus found in

A

oral cavity (saliva, tongue, palate)

438
Q

(Hansen’s bacillus) is aka

439
Q

cause of leprosy (Hansen’s bacillus)

A

Mycobacterium leprae

440
Q

tuberculosis formed by what bacteria

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

441
Q

primary lesion of pulmonary TB

A

Tubercle (GHON FOCUS) = nodule

442
Q

___ causes bovine tuberculosis and can infect people who drink unpasteurized milk

A

Mycobacterium bovis

443
Q

mycobacterial and actinomycetes cell walls contain __ that aid them to

A

waxy mycolic acids = acid fast. resistant to phagocytosis, allow these bacteria to persist inside macrophages and neutrophils as intracellular parasites

444
Q

most common used test in examining sputum (mucous) for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

acid fast stain

445
Q

Vibreo cholera grows well at what pH

A

alkaline (alkalophile)

446
Q

Nitrosomonas species grows well at what pH

A

alkaline (alkalophile)

447
Q

Thiobacillus grows well at what pH

A

pH of 2.o = acidophile = bacteria that can only grow at low pH

448
Q

Clostridium grows well at what pH

A

neutral = neutrophile

449
Q

Proteus grows well at what pH

450
Q

Lactobacilli grows well at what pH

A

neutral = neutrophile

451
Q

Pseudomonoas grow well at what pH

A

neutral = neutrophile

452
Q

lactobacillus:

  1. gram +/-
  2. shape
  3. occurs in __ to aid__
A
  1. positive
  2. rod
  3. human GI tract to aid in milk digestion
453
Q

___ are initial colonizers in the intestinal tract

A

lactobacillus.

454
Q

Lactobacillus found in __ numbers in oral cavity and assoc with

A

low, freq found in assoc with caries esp lactobacillus casei

455
Q

___ causes progression of existing lesion in coronal caries

A

lactobacilli

456
Q

lactobacillus ___ is added to commercial milk products to aid individuals unable to digest milk products/lactose intolerance. enzymes produced by the bacteria help covert the milk sugars to products that do not cause GI probs

A

acidopholus

457
Q
  1. main culprit in dental caries
  2. main culprit in smooth surface caries
  3. main culprit in root surface caries
A
  1. strep mutans
  2. strep mutans
  3. actinomyces (viscous and naeslundii)
458
Q

which is more virulent coagulase + staph or negative

A

coagulative + is only staph aureus - most virulent

459
Q

staphylococci epidermis - coagulase negative and most frequent cause of

A

infections associated with medical devices

460
Q

staphylococci saprophyticus - coagulase negative and most freq cause of

A

acute urinary tract infections in women

461
Q

Which strep causes:

  1. pneumonia
  2. rheumatic fever
  3. heart valve infections
A
  1. s. pneumonia
  2. s. pyogenes
  3. s. viridans
462
Q

Do bacteriodes produce a toxin detectable by ELISA

463
Q

what 3 bacteria produce toxins detectable by ELISA

A

E.Coli, vibreo cholera, staph aureus

464
Q

Disseminated candidiasis (widely distributed) is treated with

A

amphotericin B

465
Q

___ is the antifungal drug of choice for treating candidiasis

466
Q

nystatin and amphotericin B are antifunal and fungistatic. mechanism?

A

bind to sterols in the fungal membrane = increasing permeability and permitting leakage. they impair erogsterol synthesis

467
Q

Chronic hyperplastic is a type of __ that produces a firmly ____ on __
treated with?

A
  1. oral candidiasis that produces a firmly adherent white plaque on oral mucosa. treat with nystatin
468
Q

penicillinase is an enzyme produced by certain strains of ___ that inactivates penicillin

A

Staphylocococcus

469
Q

Penicillinase degrades the __ structure of penicillin

A

beta lactam ring

470
Q

structural modification to penicillin G such as ____ renders the molecule resistant to staph penicillinases but also narrows the spectrum of action to only against staph

A

methicillin

471
Q

name 5 types of penicillins that are penicillinase resitant

A 
methicillin
cloxacillin
dicloxacillin
nafcillin 
oxacillin
472
Q

penicillin only works on __ cells that contain __ in their wall

A

growing, peptidoglycan

473
Q

penicillin shows its greatest bactericidal activity against growing gram __ bacteria

A

positive = bc have a thick murein wall!

474
Q

penicillin inhibits the __ step in peptidoglycan synthesis

A

terminal

affects the bacterial cell wall

475
Q

penicillin is non toxic to humans because human cell

A

lacks peptidoglycan

476
Q

penicillin inhibits

A

cell wall synthesis (peptidoglycan synthesis)

477
Q

what genera of bacteria most frequently develops resistance to penicillin

A

staphylococcus = produces penicillinase

478
Q

Name the three B vitamins

A

B vitamins 1-3, “take the B train” - TRN.

B1 = thiamine
B2 = riboflavin
B3 = niacin

479
Q

name the gram positive bacteria

A

Corny Actors Knock Back Listerine in the Closet - the gram positive bacteria are Corynebacteria, Actinomyces, Nocardia, Bacillus, Listeria, and Clostridium. (plus Staph, and Strep - the t looks like a + sign)

480
Q

strep pyogenes virulence factors

A 
Streptococcus pyogenes: virulence factors are SMASHED:
 Streptolysins
 M protein
 Anti-C5a peptidase
 Streptokinase
 Hyaluronidase
 Exotoxin
 DNAses
481
Q

mnemonic for bacilli

A

Remeber… All bacilli are gram negative except “L.DATTA”

 L - Listeria
 D - Diphtheria
 A - Actinomycetes
 T - Tetani Clostridium
 T - TB Mycobatcterium
 A - Anthrax bacillus
482
Q

strep pyogenes diseases

A 
Streptococcus pyogenes: diseases causes NIPPLES:
 Necrotising fasciitis and myositis
 Impetigo
 Pharyngitis
 Pneumonia
 Lymphangitis
 Erysipelas and cellulitis
 Scarlet fever/ Streptococcal TSS
483
Q

Staph aureus diseases

A 
Staphylococcus aureus: diseases causes SOFT PAINS:
 Skin infections
 Osteomyelitis
 Food poisoning
 Toxic shock syndrome
 Pneumonia
 Acute endocarditis
 Infective arthritis
 Necrotizing fasciitis
 Sepsis
484
Q

The most appropriate alternative for treating patients with penicillin allergy

A

erythromycin

485
Q

if a patient is infected by a bacteria susceptible to both penicillin and erythromycin what should you do

A

give them both at same time because penicillin is only effective against growing cells

486
Q

the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering procedures in a patient with heart valve abnormality or who is allergic to penicillin

A

erythromycin. inhibits protein synthesis

487
Q

Rickettsial diseases:

  1. gram __
  2. aerobic/anaerobic
  3. contain dna/rna
  4. human rickettsial disease results from
  5. human target cell for rickettsiae
  6. rickettsia destroys
  7. symptoms
A
  1. negative
  2. aerobic
  3. both dna and rna
  4. insect bites
  5. endothelial cell of capillaries and small bv’s
  6. endothelial cells
  7. headache, myalgia, fever, followed by a rash
488
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat rickettsia disease

A

tetracycline and chloramphenicol

489
Q

ectoparasite

A

live on outside of host

ex lice, fleas, ticks,

490
Q

endoparasites

A

live on inside of host

ex. malaria, tape worm, schistosomiasis (bilharzias)

491
Q

streptococcus shapes

A

pairs or chains

492
Q

most strep are facultative anaerobes

T/F

NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions