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NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH > Micro Exams Questions (released) > Flashcards

Micro Exams Questions (released) Flashcards

1
Q

A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by?

A

Lead = toxic to organs (bones/kidneys/reproductive/nervous system), causes abdominal colic, confusion, anemia (bc hemolysis), hemoglobin in urine, encephalopathy seizures coma or even death. Affects the radial nerve

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2
Q

wrist and foot drop aka

A

radial nerve palsy

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3
Q

what other things can cause wrist and foot drop

A

stab chest below clavicle, broken humerus (because it runs through the radial groove on the lateral border of this bone along with the deep brachial artery), Persistent injury to the nerve is also a common cause through either repetitive motion or by applying pressure externally along the route of the radial nerve as in the prolonged use of crutches or extended leaning on the elbows.÷

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4
Q

The radial nerve is the terminal branch of the ___ of the brachial plexus.

A

posterior cord (C6, C7, C8) - to remember radial has 6 letters in it.

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5
Q

MYC gene abnormality

A

Lymphoma chromosomal translocation moves an enhancer sequence within the

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6
Q

normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells

A

viral oncogenes

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7
Q

which bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA

A

Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT)

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8
Q

which virus vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA

A

Measles, mumps, rubella

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9
Q

__ is the only known dietary reservoir of C. botulinum spores linked to infant botulism.

A

Honey

For this reason honey should not be fed to infants less than one year of age

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10
Q

flaccid paralysis in USA

A

clostridium botulinum = gram + rod anaerobic spore former, inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic vessels = prevents muscle contraction by blocking the release of ACh, thereby halting postsynaptic activity of the neuromuscular junction. If its effects reach the respiratory muscles, then it can cause respiratory failure, leading to death

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11
Q

acute flaccid paralysis

A

polio (AFP)

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12
Q

__ is a poison that comes from a plant grown in the rainforests of South America that can also cause flaccid paralysis

A

Curare: acts as a neuromuscular blocking agent by binding to (ACh) receptors on the muscle, blocking them from binding to ACh. As a result, ACh accumulates within the neuromuscular junction, but since ACh cannot bind to the receptors on the muscle, the muscle cannot be stimulated. This poison must enter the bloodstream for it to work. If curare affects the respiratory muscles, then its effects can become fatal, placing the victim at risk for suffocation.

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13
Q

BCG vaccine

A

Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (virulence-reduced) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans

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14
Q

Mycobacterium bovis vs M. tuberculosis

A

Bovis is in cattle, tuberculosis is in humans. M. bovis can also jump the species barrier and cause tuberculosis in humans and other mammals

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15
Q

polyvalent pneumococcus vaccine is for? Can you give it at any age?

A

prevent infection by pneumococcal bacteria. Immunization (vaccination) against pneumococcal infection is not recommended for infants and children younger than 2 years of age, because these persons cannot produce enough antibodies to the vaccine to protect them against a pneumococcal infection

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16
Q

MMR given to children at what age

A

1 year with a second dose before starting school (i.e. age 4/5 = attenuated live

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17
Q

which bacteria is commonly on the dorsum (means superior surface or back of an animal) of the tongue?

A

streptococcus salivarius
Gram-positive bacteria colonizes the mouth + upper respiratory tract few hours after birth, harmless in most circumstances. opportunistic pathogen, rarely finding its way into the bloodstream

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18
Q

Actinomyces israelii

A

A. israelii is a normal colonizer of the vagina, colon, and mouth. Infection is established first by a breach of the mucosal barrier during various procedures (dental, GI), aspiration, or pathologies such as diverticulitis.

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19
Q

a painless “lumpy jaw.”

A

Actinomyces israelii

Oral-cervicofacial disease is most common form

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20
Q

Treatment for actinomycosis consists of

A

antibiotics such as penicillin or amoxicillin for six to twelve months, as well as surgery if the disease is extensive

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21
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae: Diptheria toxin mode of action

A

inhibits protein synthesis

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22
Q

Name the ADP-robosylation bacterial exotoxins

A 
CHAP D
Cholera toxin
Heat-labile toxin
Anthrax toxin
Pertussis toxin
Diphtheria toxin
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23
Q

exotoxin vs endotoxin

A

exotoxin is in gram + or - and is located outside the cell wall. Endotoxin is located within the cell wall and only gram - bacteria have it.

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24
Q

Exotoxin/endotoxins are highly toxic and not heat stable.

A

exotoxin

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25
Q

Exotoxin/endotoxins have low toxicity and are heat stable.

A

endotoxin

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26
Q

heat-labile exotoxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?

A

E. Coli = increase adenylate cyclase activity (increases cAMP) = ADP Ribosylation

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27
Q

what does ADP Ribosylation mean

A

ADP-ribosylation is the addition of one or more ADP-ribose moieties to a protein

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28
Q

anthrax exotoxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?

A

bacillus anthracis

increase adenylate cyclase activity (increases cAMP) = ADP Ribosylation

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29
Q

exotoxins are released, endotoxins are not secreted, but released when bacteria die T/F

A

true

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30
Q

diphtheria toxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?

A

Cornybacterium diphtheria: inhibits protein synthesis

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31
Q

Name the two superantigen exotoxins

A

TSST and Erythrogenic toxin

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32
Q

all superantigens mode of action

A

they bind the MHC II and T cell receptors =stimulates release of cytokines from T helper cells

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33
Q

TSST superantigen is released by what bacteria

A

exotoxin released by staph aureus

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34
Q

erythrogenic toxin superantigen is released by what bacteria

A

streptococcus pygogenes

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35
Q

Name the 4 exotoxins that are proteases

A 
"BEAT"
botulinum toxin
exfoliatin
anthrax toxin (lethal factor)
tetanus toxin
36
Q

tetanus toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?

A

clostridium tetani

neurotoxin inhibits glycine NT

37
Q

botulinum toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?

A

clostridium botulinum

neurotoxin inhibits glycine NT

38
Q

anthax toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?

A

bacillus anthracis, cleaves phosphokinase

39
Q

exfoliatin toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?

A

staph aureus cleaves desmoglein

40
Q

name the two exotoxins released by staph aureus

A

superantigen TSST and exfoliatin

41
Q

alpha toxin is classified as a __. Action?

A

lechitinase = cleaves lecithin in cell membrane

42
Q

alpha toxin released by what bacteria

A

clostridium perfringes

43
Q

exotoxins can be detected by

A

ELISA

44
Q

enterotoxins are endotoxin or exotoxin?

A

exotoxin

45
Q

rapidly occurring cellulitis involving submandibular, sublingual, and submental fascial spaces, bilaterally. can cause airway obstruction, emergency treatment essential. cellulitic facial infection

A

Ludwig’s angina

connective tissue infection, of the floor of the mouth, usually occurring in adults with concomitant dental infections and if left untreated, may obstruct the airways, necessitating tracheotom

46
Q

cellulitis

A

a bacterial infection involving the skin. It specifically affects the dermis and subcutaneous fat.

47
Q

___ account for approximately 80% of cases of Ludwig’s angina

A

Dental infections
The route of infection in most cases is from infected lower molars or from pericoronitis, which is an infection of the gums surrounding the partially erupted lower (usually third) molars

48
Q

sepsis most commonly caused by (3)

A

staph aureus
klebsiella sp.
E. Coli

49
Q

acute inflammatory lesion with localized pus surrounded by a cell wall

A

abscess

50
Q

chronic inflammatory lesion consisting of granulation tissue (fibrosis-fibroblasts, angiogenesis-new capillaries, inflammatory cells-macrophages,lymphocytes plasma cells, multinucleated giant cells, epitheliod cells)

A

granuloma

51
Q

an epithelial lined sac filled with fluid or air

A

cyst

52
Q

name the infectious states:

A

acute/chronic/subclinical/latent/carrier

53
Q

carrier state

A

active growth of microoganisms with or without symptoms

54
Q

latent state

A

no active growth but potential for reactivation

55
Q

chronic infectious state

A

long term active infection WITH SYMPTOMS

56
Q

acute infectious state

A

short term active infection with symptoms

57
Q

surface M protein prevents? what bacteria?

A

phagocytosis = group A streptococci

58
Q

surface protein A prevents? what bacteria?

A

Prevents opsonization and phagocytosis staph aureus

59
Q

lipid A?

A

be careful this is not the same thing as protein A!!! Lipid A is the toxic portion of LPS

60
Q

3 evaders that that degrade IgA (have IgA protease enzymes)

A

Strep pneumonia, H influenza, Neisseria sp.

61
Q

coagulase enzyme?

A

promotes fibrin clot formation

62
Q

Leukocidins?

A

destroy PMNs and macrophages

63
Q

collagenases (metalloproteinases)

A

degrade collagens

64
Q

hyaluronidase

A

degrades hyaluronic acid

65
Q

lecithinase

A

hydrolyzes lecithin to destroy plasma membranes = gas gangrene

66
Q

streptolysin O

A

streptococcal hemolytic exotoxin causes beta hemolysis and is oxygen labile

67
Q

oxygen labile means

A

inactivated by oxygen

68
Q

streptolysin S

A

streptococcal hemolytic exotoxin causes beta hemolysis and is oxygen STABILE (not inactivated by oxygen)

69
Q

pneumolysin

A

causes beta hemolysis

70
Q

streptokinase/staphokinase

A

activates plasminogen to dissolve closts

71
Q

exfoliatin

A

epidermolytic protease cleaves desmoglein causes scalded skin syndrome

72
Q

positive heterophile antibody test

A

Epstein barr virus

73
Q

patient allergic to penicillin what do you give them to treat an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin?

A

erythromycin

74
Q

a patient with rheumatic heart disease is most likely to develop congestive heart failure due to

A

valvular insufficiency bc causes fibrosis of the heart valves

75
Q

cor pulmonale

A

pulmonary heart disease = enlargement or failure of right ventricle due to increased pressure or resistance in the lungs -pulmonary hypertension

76
Q

abnormally low C1 esterase inhibitor

A

hereditary angioedema = autosomal dominant

77
Q

mutations in certain genes of the major histocompatibility complex.

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome = no MHC class I/II antigens expressed. recessive genetic condition result is that the immune system is severely compromised and cannot effectively fight infection

78
Q

bronchiectasis

A

permanent enlarged airways = freq lung infections

79
Q

pneumoconiosis

A

occupational lung disease from inhaling dust = restrictive lung disease

80
Q

acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

A

white pseudomembrane sloughs off easily, cottage cheese like, aka thrush

81
Q

chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

A

white pseudomembrane doesn’t slough off easily aka leukoplakia

82
Q

acute atrophic candidiasis

A

red patch erythematous, raw painful mucosa, little to no white pseudomembrane. burning mouth, bad taste sore throat

83
Q

chronic atrophic candidiasis

A

includes denture stomatitis (denture sore mouth), angular cheilitis, and median rhomboid glossitis

84
Q

astrocytoma

A

brain cancer

forms in astrocytes (glia in brain)

85
Q

glioblastoma multiforme

A

most common type of astrocytoma

86
Q

glioblastoma multiforme risk factors

A

white, male, over 50.

NBDE PART 1 MICRO/PATH (20 decks)

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